Practice Test Flashcards
(108 cards)
1
Q
Who was the first person on the coalition’s 55 most-wanted leaders list to surrender during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A
Iraq’s science advisor.
2
Q
In the Mission Design Series, what does the modified/basic mission designator X represent?
A
Research.
3
Q
How many combatant commands are there currently?
A
10* (*11 per US DEPT OF DEFENSE)
4
Q
The AFR includes more than 860,00 members. (BLANK) are deemed Selected Reservists who are “ready-now” for participating in every job specialty and on the front lines of daily military operations around the globe.
A
70,000
5
Q
The (BLANK) is a congressionally chartered, non-profit corporation for the public good that may be utilized as a civilian volunteer auxiliary of the Air Force.
A
CAP - Civil Air Patrol
6
Q
Approximately (BLANK) individual units comprise the lower-level echelons of CAP within the state-level wings.
A
1,500
7
Q
Which Air Staff symbol code identifies the Studies, Analyses, Assessments and Lessons Learned office?
A
A9
8
Q
With nearly (BLANK) Total Force members, Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) is equipped and trained to accomplish the demands of its diverse mission.
A
77,000
9
Q
Deliberate development is essential throughout an Airman’s career. It is not satisfied through (BLANK).
A
Seeking a narrow array of experiential opportunities.
10
Q
The Enlisted Force Development Panel does not (BLANK).
A
Include the current 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year on its panel.
11
Q
What are the three common trainer responsibilities?
A
- Briefing the trainee and supervisor on training evaluation results.
- Planning, conducting and documenting training.
- Preparing and using teaching outlines or task breakdowns.
12
Q
A trainee received a second unsatisfactory CDC exam result. If the unit commander withdraws the Airman for failing to progress and places the Airman into Training Status Code T, when can the commander reevaluate the Airman and pursue corrective action, as appropriate?
A
90 days later.
13
Q
Under DoD guidance, the Defense Security (BLANK) Agency leads national security objective efforts to train, educate, advise and equip foreign partners.
A
Cooperation.
14
Q
The Inter-American Air Forces Academy (IAAFA) is (BLANK).
A
An element of the US Security Assistance Program.
15
Q
How many levels of leadership skills are recognized across the institutional competencies?
A
Three.
16
Q
Who do MAJCOM Functional Managers provide functional and subject matter expertise to in order to develop, modify or improve training programs?
A
Training managers.
17
Q
Which statement about ACA is inaccurate?
A. Raters should be impartial and provide honest, realistic feedback.
B. Specific negative comments should be avoided at all costs.
C. Specific positive comments reinforce behavior.
D. Feedback needs to be specific, whether it’s positive or negative.
A
B. Specific negative comments should be avoided at all costs.
18
Q
The initial ACA is the only feedback required for:
A. CMSgt and Col.
B. SMSgt and Lt.
C. TSgt and MSgt.
D. AB and SrA.
A
A. CMSgt and Col.
19
Q
If an Airman is not selected for reenlistment:
1,) When must they submit their appeal to the military personnel section? 2.) On what form?
A
1.) Within 10 calendar days of the date the Airman renders the appeal intent. 2.) On the AF Form 418.
20
Q
How long may Airmen remain on the career job applicant waiting list?
A
Until their 43rd month on their current enlistment (67 months for six-year enlistees).
21
Q
To qualify for non-disability retirement, MSgt- and SMSgt-selects must obtain (BLANK) years of service retainability and incur a (BLANK)-year Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) from the promotion effective date.
A
Two; two.
22
Q
Who provides each member eligible for promotion with access to WAPS CDCs?
A
Air Force Career Development Academy.
23
Q
Members compete for promotion within their (BLANK) unless they are assigned a reporting or special duty identifier on the PECD (Promotion Eligibility Cutoff Date).
A
Control AFSC.
24
Q
You can find the complete charts, including exceptions and notes, for calculating points and factors for enlisted promotion testing in (BLANK).
A
AFI 36-2502.
25
Which statement about the Air Force Portal is false?
A. It always requires a separate user ID and password.
B. It offers access to myPay, the Air Force Fitness Management System and vMPF (Virtual Military Personnel Flight).
C. It is the single point of entry for collaboration and networking tools, and combat support systems.
D. It is the single point of entry for web-based information and self-service applications.
A. It always require a separate user ID and password.
26
Which A&FRC (Airman and Family Readiness Center) program provides servicemembers with the knowledge and skills for make informed decisions, compete in a global workforce and positively contribute to their community as they transition from military service into civilian life?
A. Career Development Program
B. TAP (Transition Assistance Program)
C. Military Family Life Counselors
D. Employment Assistance
B. TAP - Transition Assistance Program
27
Officers must have 20 years TAFMS (Total Active Federal Military Service) and (BLANK) years total active federal commissioned service to be eligible to retire.
10 years.
28
Which statement about place of retirement is inaccurate?
A. Members may elect to retire OS and live permanently in that country.
B. Generally, a member retires at the current duty station and may travel to a home of selection anywhere in the US.
C. Airmen stationed OS may choose to use their local out-processing facilities or request travel to a separation processing base in the US.
D. Airmen stationed OS who choose to retire and live permanently in that country must comply with command and host government residency rules before their date of retirement.
C. Airmen stationed OS may choose to use their local out-processing facilities or request travel to a separation processing base in the US.
29
Which current Air Force Regular personnel are eligible for the Final Basic Pay retirement plan?
A. Entered service on or after 8 September 1980 and before 1 August 1986.
B. Entered service on or after 1 January 2018.
C. Entered service before 8 September 1980.
D. Entered service on or after 1 August 1986 and before 1 January 2018.
C. Entered service before 8 September 1980.
30
Which statement about the Survivor Benefit Plan is false?
A. The plan is one of several ways a member can provide a portion of their military retired pay to eligible survivors.
B. Prior to retiring, each member must decide whether to continue plan coverage into retirement.
C. The annuity may be payable if the member's death is not classified in LOD (Line of Duty), and the member was retirement eligible on the date of death.
D. Premiums and annuity payments to the beneficiary depend on the "base amount" elected for coverage.
A. The plan is one of several ways a member can provide a portion of their military retired pay to eligible survivors.
31
Which statement is false?
A. The American Red Cross offers emergency communication, financial assistance and reconnection workshops for reintegration support.
B. The American Red Cross' psychological first-aid course is only available to spouses and the significant others of servicemembers.
C. The American Red Cross offer reliable financial assistance for burial of a loved one and to avoid privation or hardship.
D. The American Red Cross requires specific personal information from you so they can provide expedient service.
B. The American Red Cross' psychological first-aid course is only available to spouses and the significant others of servicemembers.
32
Which statement about a pass period is false?
A. Regular passes start at the end of normal work hours on a duty day and end at the beginning of normal work hours for the next duty day.
B. You may be required to return to duty within a reasonable time for operational mission requirements, such as a recall, unit alert or unit emergency.
C. There are mileage restrictions.
D. It is an authorized absence from duty for a relatively short time.
C. There are mileage restrictions.
33
If you previously served in (BLANK), the Air Force adjusts your pay date to reflect credit for these periods.
Certain governmental agencies.
34
SGLI (Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance) automatically provides eligible members with life insurance coverage when on Regular Air Force status and/or training for an ordered period of more than (BLANK).
30 days.
35
The cost of SGLI (Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance) spousal coverage depends on the amount of coverage selected. Each child receives $(BLANK) in mandatory coverage at no cost to the member.
$10,000
36
When are SGLI (Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance) and family SGLI premiums deducted from a member's pay?
Monthly.
37
Financial complaints are forwarded to your commander, who attempts to respond within (BLANK) days.
15 days.
38
The change process model proposed by social psychologist (BLANK) recommends that leaders view change as a three-stage process.
Kurt Lewin.
39
The first stage of the three-step change process is (BLANK). It is a deliberate management activity to prepare people for change by knowing and going where issues may exist.
Unfreezing.
40
During which step of the Practical Problem-Solving Method do you strive to create process improvement changes that are sustainable, repeatable, and move the organization closer to the ideal state?
Step 5: Develop countermeasures.
41
In the Practical Problem-Solving Method, which step compares the results of implemented countermeasures to the identified performance gaps, improvement objectives/targets and expected outcome?
Step 7: Confirm results and process.
42
Also called point improvement, the (BLANK) level of effort to accomplish a Practical Problem-Solving Method initiative involves one person or a small team and can be done in less than one day.
A. Rapid improvement event.
B. Quick hit.
C. Just do it.
D. Improvement project.
C. Just do it.
43
Improving aircraft servicing cycle times is one possible example of an Improvement initiative executed at the (BLANK) level of Practical Problem-Solving Method.
Rapid improvement event.
44
(BLANK) provides leadership, management, general supervision and guidance organizing, equipping, training and mobilizing the organization's enlisted force to meet mission requirements?
Group superintendent.
45
In team building, crating trust among team members requires a desire to achieve established objectives. What two other qualities are required to create trust?
A. Brutal honesty and professional working relationships.
B. Casual working relationships and friendly behavior.
C. Frequent feedback and team-building activities.
D. Professional behavior and working relationships.
D. Professional behavior and working relationships.
46
As a supervisor, when communicating with Airmen, which type of information is required for personnel to perform their very best?
A. Constructive, comprehensible and accurate.
B. Constructive, comprehensible and critical.
C. Constructive, convoluted and accurate.
D. Constructive, critical and convoluted.
A. Constructive, comprehensible and accurate.
47
All of the following are trainer responsibilities except (BLANK).
1. Briefing the trainee and supervisor on training evaluation results.
2. Integrating training with day-to-day work center operations.
3. Preparing and using teaching outlines or task breakdowns.
4. Planning, conducting and documenting training.
2. Integrating training with day-to-day work center operations.
48
Who created the Chief of Staff, USAF Professional Reading Program in 1996 to develop a common frame of reference among Air Force members so that they become better, more effective advocates of airpower?
General Fogleman.
49
Mentoring is a powerful, (BLANK) process that also helps Airmen prepare for increased responsibilities throughout their careers.
Ongoing.
50
FRLD (Full Range Leadership Development) views leadership as a system of three core elements: the leader, the follower and the (BLANK).
Situation.
51
Which leadership behavior ensures control by monitoring and governing subordinates through forced compliance with rules, regulations and expectations for meeting performance standards?
Management by Exception-Active.
52
One of the first steps in preparing for a job interview is to (BLANK).
A. Carefully study the job advertisement or position description.
B. Develop a list of questions to ask potential employers.
C. Gather all information and documentation required.
D. Research the mission and history of the hiring organization.
A. Carefully study the job advertisement or position description.
53
Which statement about job interviews is false?
A. An interview is a one-way communication process in which the employer decides if you are right for the position.
B. Ensure you understand the conditions of the position to determine whether you can truly commit to the assignment/job.
C. Many Air Force positions require a job interview.
D. The goal of all job interviews is finding the right person for the right job.
A. An interview is a one-way communication process in which the employer decides you are right for the position.
54
The talking paper provides more detail than a point paper and (BLANK).
Includes speaker notes in outline or narrative form to inform others during a planned presentation.
55
When speaking to an audience, remember (BLANK)
Pausing for effect is a good way to highlight an important point.
56
Which government communications systems are subject to monitoring?
All government systems.
57
The Defense Message system is (BLANK) of record for the DoD and the Air Force.
Core messaging system.
58
When using federal government resources to access internet-based capabilities, individuals shall comply with (BLANK).
Operations security guidance (AFI 10-701, Operations Security).
59
When threat of enemy attack is (BLANK), establishing and conducting preparedness actions is considered mission-critical and given a high priority.
High.
60
What does attack warning signal Alarm Black indicate?
The attack is over and CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear) contamination and/or unexploded ordinance hazards are suspected or present.
61
(BLANK) are in the best position to identify hazards, assess risks and correct safety deficiencies in the workplace.
A. NCOs
B. Officers
C. SNCOs
D. Supervisors
D. Supervisors.
62
All of the following are tools for risk analysis measurement except:
A. After-action reports.
B. Budget reports.
C. In-progress reviews.
D. Surveys.
B. Budget reports.
63
What Standard Form is used to record the security checks of classified material at the close of each day?
SF 701, Activity Security Checklist.
64
When classified information or equipment cannot be physically located or accounted for, it is considered a (BLANK).
Loss.
65
Refer to the DoDM 5400.07-R/AFMAN (BLANK), Freedom of Information Act Program, for specific policy and procedures on the Freedom of Information Act.
AFI 33-302.
66
(BLANK) denies unauthorized persons valuable information derived from intercepting and analyzing compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment, information systems and telecommunications systems.
TEMPEST (formerly emissions security).
67
What is the information gathered and activities conducted to protect against human intelligence threats called?
Counterintelligence.
68
You must report Human Intelligence or counterintelligence contact to the Air Force OSI within (BLANK) days.
30 days.
69
Which Air Force publications are orders of the SecAF?
A. AFIs and AFMANs.
B. AFIs and Nondirective.
C. AFPDs and AFMANs.
D. Nondirective and AFPDs.
A. AFIs and AFMANs.
70
Which of the following statements about the rules of engagement is false?
A. Mission-specific rules of engagement are tailored to the political and military nature of a mission, e.g. execution orders, operation plans and operation orders.
B. Only leaders must understand, remember and apply mission rules of engagement.
C. Reprisals shall be resorted to only after carefully inquiring into the facts.
D. Rules of engagement set parameters for when, where, how, why and against whom force may be used.
B. Only leaders must understand, remember and apply mission rules of engagement.
71
When you consider whether the forces committing hostile acts or hostile intent have been warned and given the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions, which of the four elements of self-defense are you applying?
De-escalation.
72
Which level of Code of Conduct training is the minimum level needed for members whose military jobs, specialties or assignments entail significant or high risk of capture and whose position, rank or seniority makes them vulnerable to greater-than-average exploitation efforts by a captor?
Level C.
73
All of the following members require Level C Code of Conduct training, except:
A. Aircrews.
B. Members of ground combat units.
C. Pararescue teams.
D. Special mission forces.
B. Members of ground combat units.
74
Who must accept command in a POW facility?
A. The elected prisoners' representative.
B. The individual appointed by the captors.
C. The oldest officer.
D. The senior-ranking military POW, regardless of military service.
D. The senior-ranking military POW, regardless of military service.
75
Under Article V of the Code of Conduct and Geneva Conventions, what information is a POW required to given when questioned by the enemy?
Name, rank, service number and date of birth.
76
Which statement about professional and unprofessional relationships is false?
A. All personal relationships are unprofessional.
B. Fraternization exists when a relationship between an officer and an enlisted member prejudices good order and discipline in - or brings discredit to - the US Armed Forces.
C. Social interaction that contributes appropriately to unit cohesion and effectiveness is encouraged.
D. Unprofessional relationships result in or create an impression of favoritism, misuse of office or position, or abandonment of organizational goals for personal interest.
A. All personal relationships are unprofessional.
77
What is the primary objective of the Equal Opportunity program?
Eradicating unlawful discrimination and fostering a positive human relations environment.
78
Which statement about sexual harassment is false?
A. If any military member or civilian employee makes deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal comments or gestures of a sexual nature in the workplace, it constitutes to sexual harassment.
B. If supervisors or those in command positions use or condone any sexual behavior to control, influence or affect a career, it constitutes to sexual harassment.
C. If includes unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors or deliberate or repeated offensive comments.
D. To be actionable as an "abusive work environment." harassment requires concrete psychological harm to the victim.
D. To be actionable as an "abusive work environment," harassment requires concrete psychological harm to the victim.
Rationale: To be actionable as an "abusive work environment," sexual harassment need not result in concrete psychological harm. It must only be severe and pervasive enough for both the victim and a reasonable person to perceive the environment as hostile or offensive.
79
Can a person consent to sexual conduct while sleeping or incapacitated due to reasons such as age, alcohol, drugs or mental incapacity?
No; consent does not exist.
80
What provides commanders with an official and single means of filing derogatory data on an Air Force member's personal conduct and duty performance?
UIF.
81
Which statement regarding the control roster is inaccurate?
A. Commanders can remove an individual from the roster early.
B. Commanders place an individual on the roster using AF Form 1058, "Unfavorable Information File Action."
C. If a member is not rehabilitated within three months of being placed on the roster, the commander initiates more severe action.
D. It cannot substitute for more appropriate administrative, judicial or nonjudicial action(s).
C. If a member is not rehabilitated within three months of being placed on the roster, the commander initiates more severe action.
82
Who does not have authority to reduce grades of SMSgt and CMSgt by one grade?
A. Commanders of unified or specified commands.
B. Commanders to whom promotion authority has been delegated.
C. MAJCOM commanders.
D. Wing commanders.
D. Wing commanders.
83
Airmen who do proper strength workouts only once a week can maintain a moderate level of strength for a short period of time if they have established a (BLANK) level of muscular fitness.
Strong baseline.
84
To help expedite care, you should document and discuss specific instances of a fellow Airman's unusual behavior or acknowledgement of a substance use/misuse problem with any of the following except his or her:
A. First sergeant.
B. Spouse.
C. Supervisor.
D. Unit commander.
B. Spouse.
85
What determines the length of a member's involvement in nonclinical substance use services?
A. It is based on the patient's presenting problems and agreed-upon treatment or behavioral contract.
B. It is set at the commander's discretion.
C. It is set at the member's discretion.
D. It is set during entry into the program by the ADAPT (Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment) team.
A. It is based on the patient's presenting problems and agreed-upon treatment or behavioral contract.
86
Who is responsible for all personnel and administrative actions regarding patients in ADAPT (Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment)?
Commanders.
87
What initiative provides information on focus areas, such as integrative wellness, mental wellness, nutrition, physical activity, sleep and tobacco-free living, and is found at https://health.mil/?
A. Operation Healthy Airmen.
B. Operation Healthy Living.
C. Operation Live Free.
D. Operation Live Well.
D. Operation Live Well.
88
Which statement about personal grooming standards for mustaches and sideburns is false?
A. Mustaches do not extend downward beyond the upper lip line.
B. Mustaches do no extend sideways beyond a vertical line drawn upward from the corners of the mouth.
C. Sideburns are straight, of even width (not flared) and end in a clean-shaven, horizontal line.
D. Sideburns may extend below the bottom of the ear opening.
D. Sideburns may extend below the bottom of the ear opening.
89
Which of the following statements about body piercing and ornamentation is true?
A. Men may wear earrings out of uniform.
B. When in uniform, women with multiple ear piercings may wear two sets of earrings.
C. While off duty, in civilian attire, on a military installation, objects, articles, jewelry or ornamentations may never be attached, affixed or displayed on or through the ear, nose, tongue, eyebrows, lips or any exposed body part.
D. Women may wear authorized earrings up to 7mm in diameter while in uniform.
A. Men may wear earrings out of uniform.
90
All of the following are mandatory for the women's mess dress uniform except:
A. Blue-satin inverted v-tie tab.
B. Cummerbund.
C. Low quarters.
D. White collar blouse.
C. Low quarters.
91
Which is not worn with the mess dress uniform?
A. Appropriate rank.
B. Badges.
C. Miniature medals.
D. Nametag.
D. Nametag.
92
While in uniform, when is the wear of approved cold-weather accessories permissible?
A. Cold-weather accessories are never permissible.
B. If the items are worn while indoors and with authorized outer garments.
C. If the items are worn while outdoors and with authorized outer garments.
D. If the wearer is either outdoors or indoors and wearing authorized outer garments.
C. If the items are worn while outdoors and with authorized outer garments.
93
The (BLANK) US flag measures 4'4" x 5'6".
Ceremonial.
94
What is the preferred method to dispose of US flags no longer fit for display?
Burn worn flags.
95
When you accompany or join a person senior to you, what position should you always take?
The senior's left.
96
Which of the following is not true regarding saluting protocol?
A. If an Airman recognizes a need to salute, carrying out the salute is mandatory.
B. The junior member should initiate the salute in time for the senior officer to return it.
C. To prescribe an exact distance for saluting in all circumstances is not practical; good judgment should dictate when salutes are exchanged.
D. When a salute is exchanged among individuals, the junior member salutes first.
A. If an Airman recognizes a need to salute, carrying out the salute is mandatory.
Rationale: While any Airman recognizing a need to salute may do so anywhere at any time, sometimes this may not be practical or warranted.
97
What should you do when you're in a group and a senior officer approaches?
The first individual to notice the officer calls the group to attention, then all members face the officer and salute.
98
Which statement regarding basic guidelines and procedures for promotion ceremonies is false?
A. All bases must hold a base-wide promotion for all promotees.
B. Commanders and supervisors are responsible for ensuring their personnel receive proper recognition.
C. Many of the guidelines are the same as decoration ceremonies.
D. Most promotions become effective the first day of the month.
A. All bases must hold a base-wide promotion for all promotees.
Rationale: Some bases hold a base-wide promotion for all promotees, while other bases prefer to recognize promotees within organizations.
99
Which of the following is NOT one of the Air Force core values?
A. Excellence In All We Do.
B. Honor Above All.
C. Integrity First.
D. Service Before Self.
B. Honor Above All.
100
As a virtue of "Excellence In All We Do", teamwork means that Airmen:
A. Maintain transparency and own outcomes of their actions and decisions.
B. Perform what is required for the mission as determined by law, the DoD and Air Force instructions, directives and guidance.
C. Realize the interdependency of every member's contribution to the mission and work together to achieve organizational excellence.
D. Treat others with dignity and value them as individuals, each with fundamental worth as a human being.
C. Realize the interdependency of every member's contribution to the mission and work together to achieve organizational excellence.
101
Considering honorable characteristics in the Air Force, (BLANK) entails a willingness to give one's life, time or comfort to meet the needs of others.
Sacrifice.
102
Who was the first person on the coalition's 55 most-wanted leaders list to surrender during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A. Iraq's minister of defense.
B. Iraq's minister of information.
C. Iraq's science advisor.
D. The Iraqi Intelligence Service director.
C. Iraq's science advisor.
103
In the Mission Design Series, what does the modified/basic mission designator X represent?
A. Multi-Mission.
B. Observation.
C. Research.
D. Staff.
C. Research.
104
How many combatant commands are there currently?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
C. 10
105
The AFR includes more than 860,000 members. (BLANK) are deemed Selected Reservists who are "ready-now" for participating in every job specialty and on the front lines of daily military operations around the globe.
A. 65,000
B. 70,000
C. 75,000
D. 80,000
B. 70,000
106
The (BLANK) is a congressionally chartered, non-profit corporation for the public good that may be utilized as a civilian volunteer auxiliary of the Air Force.
A. AFJROTC (Air Force Junior Reserve Officers Training Corps)
B. CAP (Civil Air Patrol)
C. Peace Corps.
D. WHO (World Health Organization)
B. CAP (Civil Air Patrol)
107
Approximately (BLANK) individual units comprise the lower-level echelons of CAP within the state-level wings.
A. 1,000
B. 1,250
C. 1,500
D. 1,750
C. 1,500
108
Which Air Staff symbol code identifies the Studies, Analyses, Assessments and Lessons Learned office?
A. A3
B. A5
C. A7
D. A9
D. A9
