Practice Test Flashcards
True or False. Water wells should be located on the opposite side or uphill side of the house from the drain field.
True
True or False. Deed restrictions are limited to residential properties
False
Name a device used to layout a building
a: GPS
b: Laser Level
c: Total station
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
The contoured elevation lines on a site plan read 135’ and 139’, two points on these lines are 15’ apart. What is the percentage of slope between the two points?
a: 20%
b: 26.6%
c: 28.5%
d: 30%
b: 26.6%
(4 foot rise/ 15 foot run)
True or False. Setbacks are measured from the lot line to the building structures
True
Driveway easements are often encountered:
a: When two adjoining properties share a common driveway
b: Include grants for sewers
c: 15 feet from the property line
d: 7 1/2’ from the property line
a: When two adjoining properties share a common driveway
At a minimum far back from the building line should the batter boards be?
a: 1 foot
b: 2 feet
c: 4 feet
d: 50 feet
c: 4 feet
A benchmark is known to be at an elevation of 100 feet and the finish grade is to be set at 97 feet. Your site reading at the benchmark using a builders level and a leveling rod read 4.5 feet. What should your reading be at finished grade?
a: 92.5 feet
b: 7.5 feet
c: 1.5 feet
d: 101.5 feet
b: 7.5 feet
True or False. A 100-year floodplain is the land adjacent to a river, lake or stream that will be inundated by water during which has a 1% chance of occurring in any given year.
True
True or False. You may bulldoze, grade and remove tree stumps in a wetland as long as you have a permit
True
The exact location of property lines should be determined early in the design phase in order to comply with ____ requirements.
a: Setback
b: Covenant
c: Topography
d: Code
a: Setback
Land Developers often create restrictive covenants that dictate what can and can’t be done on an owners property, these covenants are referred to as:
a: Set backs
b: Deed restrictions
c: Land trust
d: Land constraints
b: Deed restrictions
A site line is used to identify:
a: Lot boundaries
b: Existing roads
c: Buildings
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Survey monuments:
a: Can control the location of property lines
b: Can be either natural or man made
c: Shall be tagged with a certificate number
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Public __________ provide utilities access to run lines or pipes across or under your property
a: Setbacks
b: Ordinances
c: Easements
d: Land rights
c: Easements
A building lot is a rectangle measuring 257 feet by 387 feet, how many acres is this lot?
(Remember that are 43,560 square feet in 1 acre.)
a: 1.54
b: 1.87
c: 2
d: 2.28
d: 2.28
Which drawing shows the shape and boundary lines of a lot, as well as locating the building, driveway, sidewalks, well and septic system, elevation contours, etc.
a: Plot plan
b: Site plan
c: Elevation plan
d: Both A and B
d: Both A and B
A basic starting point from which measurements in building layout can be made using a transit or builders level is called a ___________
a: Benchmark
b: Point of reference
c: Station mark
d: Both A and B
d: Both A and B
When building in a floodplain, special precautions must be made concerning ___________
a: Flood resistant construction
b: Determining the design flood elevation
c: Placing the lowest floor at the proper elevation
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
When building in a floodplain, enclosed areas below the design flood elevation will be used solely for _______
a: Parking vehicles
b: Building access
c: Storage
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
In Michigan, the local ___________ is responsible for developing and implementing codes regarding wells and septic systems.
a: Building department
b: Agricultural department
c: Health department
d: City commission
c: Health department
True or False. Older, but still functioning septic systems, are not required to come up to the most current codes
True
The best place to find an explanation of symbols used on a survey is:
a: The legend
b: The glossary
c: The appendix
d: The table of contents
a: The legend
Advanced framing techniques increase the stud spacing to ________, to use less timber and accommodate more insulation.
a: 17-1/2 inches on center
b: 19-5/8
c: 21 inches on center
d: 24 inches on center
d: 24 inches on center
Advanced framing techniques use ______ in place of trimmer or jack studs to support headers.
a: Hangers
b: Strong ties
c: Blocks
d: Bearing stiffeners
a: Hangers
What is another name for a raised-heel truss?
a: Wide soffit
b: R-truss
c: Energy truss
d: High heel
c: Energy truss
True or False. Structural insulated panels may be energy efficient but they are not easy to erect.
False
Structural Insulated Panels are two outer layers of ____ surrounding a rigid foam interior
a: Particle boards
b: Oriented strand board
c: Plywood
d: Wafer board
b: Oriented strand board
True or False. Because structural insulated panels are uninterrupted by studs, they provide an energy efficient wall without as many thermal bridges.
True
An average wall constructed with SIPs contains __less wood than a similar wall framed with 2x4s placed 16” on center
a: 15%
b: 20%
c: 25%
d: 30%
c: 25%
True or False. Insulating Concrete Forms material cost ranges from $1.75 to $3.50 per square foot in addition to installation, labor, reinforcement, bracing and concrete.
True
True or False. Some major benefits of ICF walls are excellent insulation, sound proofing and durability.
True
R-value with ICFs can vary according to which factors?
a: Foam density
b: Form configuration
c: Connector type
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
True or False. ICFs are plastic foam forms for concrete walls. They are removed after the concrete is poured and has cured to the required strength.
False: They are not removed afterwards
True or False. There is still need for some conventional framing when using prefabricated wall systems.
False
The Michigan Uniform Energy Code has an allowance to use ________ instead of the required R49, if you use energy heel trusses that allow for full insulation.
a: R-30
b: R-32
c: R-38
d: R-40
c: R-38
Today’s air tight homes can be energy savers, but air quality can be diminished significantly. It is recommended that a ____ be used for proper ventilation:
a: Sealed Combustion Appliances
b: Air Removal Systems
c: Air Conditioning
d: Heat Recovery Ventilator
d: Heat Recovery Ventilator
Batt insulation is a cost effective way to create an energy-efficient house if _____
a: Installed with care
b: Unfaced fiberglass is used
c: Faced fiberglass is used
d: Foil faced fiberglass is used
a: Installed with care
Cellulose insulation is made of ________
a: Recycled cardboard
b: Recycled newspaper
c: Recycled plastic
d: Fiberglass
b: Recycled newspaper
A major benefit of using insulating sheathing is to provide insulation that covers what are uninsulated areas at studs and headers and all wood corners. These uninsulated areas are called:
a: Cold spots
b: Hot spots
c: Thermal breaks
d: All of the above
c: Thermal breaks
One disadvantage of sheathing a home in insulated sheathing is __________.
a: Poor sound barrier
b: Lower structural strength
c: High cost
d: Off gassing
b: Lower structural strength
Frost-protected shallow foundations are most effective in _______ climates.
a: Mild
b: Tropical
c: Warmer
d: Colder
d: Colder
True or False. The local climate and number of heating-degree days determines the thickness and width of the insulation applied in a Frost Protected Shallow Foundation.
True
True or False. Constructing and operating buildings consumes more material and energy than any other single entity in the U.S.
True
True or False. Minimum energy standards required by the Michigan Uniform Energy Code
True
True or False. Successful energy-efficient construction practices are more complicated than conventional practices.
True
Benefits of green building are ________.
a: Less construction waste
b: Less impact on the environment
c: Economic benefits to the homeowner
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
True or False. A comprehensive approach to resource and energy efficiency is the best approach to green building.
True
One advantage of using Advanced Wall Framing techniques is the ability to apply more insulation because the studs are placed _______ on center.
a: 12”
b: 16”
c: 20”
d: 24”
d: 24”
Wood is not a good insulator. Advanced Framing techniques reduce the amount of wood in construction thereby reducing insulation voids and increasing energy efficiency by as much as 30%
True
You can build ________ by taking a couple 2X 10’s, adding 1/2” OSB, and then throwing some rigid insulation in between.
a: A raised heel truss
b: An insulated header
c: Insulated wall tie
d: Prefabricated wall
b: An insulated header
_________ provide high quality, straight walls that reduce a great deal of time and waste.
a: Double 2 x 4 walls
b: Spray foam insulations
c: Insulated concrete forms
d: Prefabricated walls
d: Prefabricated walls
Advanced framing costs far more than traditional framing initially, but ultimately reduces energy costs.
False
Unit price contracts are used:
a: When quantities of work are not known
b: For budget estimates
c: By design/build companies
d: All of the above
a: When quantities of work are not known
Conceptual estimates are used:
a: For T&M work
b: Before the design starts
c: For square foot estimates
d: All of the above
b: Before the design starts
Detailed cost estimates are prepared by:
a: The company officer
b: The subcontractor
c: The chief estimator
d: all of the above
c: The chief estimator
Quantity take-off:
a: Is necessary when bidding unit price projects
b: Is used to measure the amount of building materials for project
c: Is used to calculate the contractor “tms” overhead
d: All of the above
b: Is used to measure the amount of building materials for project
Why are site visits so important?
a: They can tell you what types of soil are present
b: They can tell you whether or not utilities are readily available
c: They can tell you whether the site will require special equipment
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
The ______ is the basis for any bid or proposal
a: Specifications
b: Estimate
c: Site visit
d: Addenda
b: Estimate
Who typically prepares the project documents
a: The architect
b: An engineer
c: An attorney
d: Any of the above
d: Any of the above
Which of the following is not a type of contractor bond?
a: Bid
b: Surety
c: Security
d: Performance
c: Security
Funds that are allocated to specific items in the budget are called:
a: Addenda
b: Allowances
c: Change orders
d: General conditions
b: Allowances
________ provide additional information such as soil reports, project studies and land surveys:
a: Specifications
b: General conditions
c: Supplements
d: Allowances
c: Supplements
_______ derail materials, work methods, and quality requirements.
a: Drawings
b: Addenda
c: Supplements
d: Specifications
d: Specifications
Which of the following factors will not influence the cost of labor?
a: The skill level of workers
b: The number of workers required
c: Weather conditions that may slow workers down
d: Material changes requested by the owners
d: Material changes requested by the owners
True or False. Renting equipment for a job is best when there is a short term need for a specific project.
True
Costs that are associated with the project, but are NOT labor and materials are termed:
a: Company overhead
b: Project overhead
c: Direct costs
d: Indirect costs
b: Project overhead
What tool would you use to peel back topsoil
a: Bulldozer
b: Backhoe
c: Tractor
d: Shovel
a: Bulldozer
True or False. Soil boring is the method used to determine the soil type or types that will be supporting the footings at a proposed building site.
True
The percolation test is used to determine:
a: Soil compressibility
b: Effectiveness of insulation
c: Plumbing for leaks
d: Permeability of soil
d: Permeability of soil
Contractors should ne cautious not to harm or possibly even kill trees intended to be saved on a construction site by not:
a: Raising the grade around the tree
b: Scarring the bark of the tree
c: Running heavy equipment over the tree’s root system
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
At a minimum how far back from the building lines should the batter boards be?
a: 2 feet
b: 4 feet
c: 8 feet
d: 15 feet
b: 4 feet
A deposit of earth material placed by artificial means is called _______.
a: Load
b: Backload
c: Fill
d: Dry earth
c: Fill
True or False. Grading is changing the earth surface by either excavating or filling or a combination of both.
True
The stage at which the grade approximately conforms to approved plans is called.
a: Backfill
b: Rough grade
c: Clearing
d: Finish grade
b: Rough grade
A building lot is a rectangle measuring 257 feet by 387 feet, how many acres is this lot?
a: 1.54
b: 1.87
c: 2
d: 2.28
d: 2.28
Code requires that the grade around the building must be sloped so rain water drains away from the foundation area. The minimum slope shall be _____ of fall in 10 feet.
a: 4 inches
b: 6 inches
c: 8 inches
d: 1 foot
b: 6 inches
What type of material allows for the best drainage?
a: Pea pebbles
b: Soft clay
c: Organic matter
d: None of the above
a: Pea pebbles
If a excavating company needs to haul away 125 yards of bank soil that will swell 20% how many yards of loose soil will they haul away?
a: 140 yards
b: 145 yards
c: 150 yards
d: 160 yards
c: 150 yards
True or False. You may bulldoze, grade and remove tree stumps in a wetland as long as you have a permit.
True
_______ the root system of a tree during construction can potentially kill it.
a: Cutting into
b: Piling soil over
c: Compacting
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
It is important to call your state One Call utility locator (exp..MISS Dig, 811) ________ before excavation starts.
a: 1 day
b: 2 days
c: 3 days
d: one week
b: 2 days
You would use a _______ to determine a floor is level, but this tool would not help in determine if a wall is plumb:
a: Transit
b: Builders level
c: Plumb bob
d: Benchmark
b: Builders level
The condition of erosion control devices must be checked after a rainfall event of _______ or more within a 24 hour period.
a: 1 inch
b: 2 inches
c: 1/2 inch
d: 3/4 inch
c: 1/2 inch
What are the three basic soil types
a: Cohesive, granular, organic
b: Clay, sand, topsoil
c: Silt, clay, sand
d: Low plasticity, medium plasticity, high plasticity
a: Cohesive, granular, organic
True or False. Soil that is moldable, and only breaks into a few pieces when dropped, is considered to have ideal moisture content.
True
What type of soil compactor would be the best choice for compacting cohesive soils?
a: Vibratory plate
b: Soil compressor
c: Rammer
d: Any of the above
c: Rammer
When back filling around the foundation the soil should be compacted in ________ of 6 inches at a time.
a: Layers
b: Segment
c: Lifts
d: Bumps
c: Lifts
True or False. The ability to achieve maximum density when compacting soil requires that the soil has it’s optimum moisture content.
True
True or False. The heavier the plates are on a vibratory plate compactor the more compaction force it will generate.
True
True or False. All soil types have the same optimum moisture content for compaction.
True
True or False. Water wells should be located on the opposite side or uphill side of the house from the drainfield.
True
What is a method of determining soil density:
a: Proctor test
b: Sand cone test
c: Nuclear density test
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
It is virtually impossible to compact soil ______
a: Without adequate moisture
b: Containing too much water
c: With optimum moisture content
d: Both A and B
d: Both A and B
Which of the following is not typically required prior to beginning demolition?
a: Get the right permit
b: Make sure all utilities have been cut and capped
c: Have topographical survey done
d: Provide notice to adjacent property owners.
c: Have topographical survey done
True or False. An engineering survey must be conducted of the building and equipment before demolition may commence.
True
True or False. In an emergency situation, where a building or structure must be demolished, a survey is not required.
True
During demolition, an employee may not work on a floor below a floor opening unless protected by a solid barricade not less than _____ high, and not less than ____ back from the projected opening above:
a: 24 inches and 4 feet
b: 30 inches and 6 feet
c: 36 inches and 4 feet
d: 42 inches and 6 feet
d: 42 inches and 6 feet
During demolition, workers may not work where hazards exist until the hazards are corrected by:
a: Shoring
b: Bracing
c: Caging
d: All the above
d: All the above
Materials from a brick or masonry chimney or stack being manually demolished must be dropped _____ the chimney or stack.
a: Inside
b: Outside
a: Inside
When removing ceiling and floor systems openings cut into the floor for disposal of materials may not be more than ________ of the total floor area.
a: 20%
b: 25%
c: 30%
d: 35%
b: 25%
During a demolition, walkways for workers must be no less than _____ wide.
a: 12 inches
b: 15 inches
c: 18 inches
d: 24 inches
c: 18 inches
The roots of a tree are found mostly in the upper _____ of the soil.
a: 2 to 4 inches
b: 3 to 5 inches
c: 6 to 12 inches
d: 10 to 18 inches
c: 6 to 12 inches
True or False. Soils found in nature are almost always a combination of different soil types.
True
Which of the following is NOT a reason to compact soil:
a: To provide stability
b: To reduce settling
c: To reduce load bearing capacity
d: To reduce swelling and contraction
c: To reduce load bearing capacity
Which of the following pieces of equipment is best used if you have a wide trench and no shallow cross lines?
a: Sheepsfoot roller
b: Vibratory plates
c: Rammers
d: Tamping rollers
a: Sheepsfoot roller
The most common type of test used to determine optimum moisture content in soil is the:
a: Hand test
b: Proctor test
c: Nuclear density test
d: Perc test
b: Proctor test
Which of the following soil tests would you use when planning the location of a leach field?
a: Modified proctor
b: Percolation
c: Sand cone
d: Nuclear density
b: Percolation
True or False. When excavating near a foundation, the excavator should not remove lateral support without first underpinning the foundation against lateral translation.
True
______ grading changes the elevation of the ground by bringing in additional soil from another spot on the site.
a: Lift
b: Cut
c: Fill
d: Rough
c: Fill
Code requires that the ground immediately adjacent to the foundation be sloped away from the building at a ____ % slope for at least 10 feet.
a: 2.5%
b: 5%
c: 6%
d: 12%
b: 5%
If you are planning to excavate a site, you must call MISS DIG at least:
a: 2 days in advance
b: 3 days in advance
c: 7 days in advance
d: 10 days in advance
b: 3 days in advance
Permits are required for any construction activity that will disturb ____ or more acres of land.
a: One
b: Two
c: Five
d: All the above, a permit is always required
a: One
According to the EPA, this phase is the most environmentally dangerous part of a construction project
a: When land is cleared of vegetation and excavated to grade levels
b: When construction vehicles compact the soil
c: When no storm drains are created
d: When septic systems are located too close to a well.
a: When land is cleared of vegetation and excavated to grade levels
Who is responsible for the ongoing maintenance of erosion and sediment control devices?
a: The property owner
b: The site superintendent
c: The permit holder
d: The general contractor
c: The permit holder
Inspections of erosion control measures must be conducted after any rain event or ____ inch or more in a 24 hour period
a: 1/2 inch
b: 1 inch
c: 2 inches
d: 4 inches
1/2 inch
True or False. It is critical that sediment from a construction site not be allowed to invade the storm sewer system.
True
Excavations for footings should extend into undisturbed soil a minimum of:
a: 4 inches
b: 12 inches
c: 8 inches
d: 24 inches
b: 12 inches
Final grade around buildings must slope away from the foundations walls a minimum of _______ for the first 10 feet
a: 2%
b: 4%
c: 5%
d: 10%
c: 5%
Which of the following statements about foundation drainage systems are true?
a: 4 inch drain pipe shall be laid on top of a minimum 2 inches of crushed stone or gravel and covered with gravel or crushed stone to a minimum of 6 inches above the top of the tile.
b: Footing drain pip shall be placed below the level of the basement floor slab with the holes facing downward
c: Gravel or crushed stone drainage systems must extend a minimum of 12 inches past the edge of the footing.
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Reinforcement steel bar placed in footings must be kept ____ from the footing edges of the earth.
a: 3 inches
b: 4 inches
c: 5 inches
d: 6 inches
a: 3 inches
Fasteners used below grade in wood foundations shall be: ______
a: Doubledipped galvanized
b: Tripledipper galvanized
c: Zinc
d: Stainless Steel
d: Stainless Steel
Concrete slabs below grade require a ________ base course of sand, gravel or crushed stone if the existing base isn’t a group 1 soil.
a: 4”
b: 5”
c: 6”
d: 3”
a: 4”
The minimum size of the footings needed to support a building structure is determined by:
a: The type of building
b: The number of stones
c: The type of soil supporting the building
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
When steel reinforcement is required, it must be placed at least _________ above the bottom of the footing.
a: 2”
b: 3”
c: 4”
d: 5”
b: 3”
If a footing and a foundation wall is constructed by the same form work and created by the same concrete pour, this is called ______
a: Unibond construction
b: Monolithic construction
c: Time Management
d: All of the above
b: Monolithic construction
A groove formed in the surface of a footing to support the foundation wall is called:
a: Wall slot
b: Keyway
c: Strong tie
d: Tie slot
b: Keyway
What should be the elevation change limit per step be for step footings?
a: 1’
b: 2’
c: 2 1/2’
d: 3’
b: 2’
What is the horizontal brace for wall forms called?
a: Long brace
b: Wale
c: Shark
d: Lead brace
b: Wale
Protecting foundation walls against ordinary seepage such that may occur after a rainstorm is called:
a: Waterproofing
b: Dampproofing
c: Parging
d: Sealcoating
b: Dampproofing
True or False. Wood posts or columns that are in direct contact with the ground and support permanent structures must be preservative treated.
True
Anchor bolts must be provided within ________ from the end of each piece of the sill plate.
a: 6”
b: 8”
c: 10”
d: 12”
d: 12”
Anchor bolts shall be embedded into at least ______ of concrete or grouted masonry.
a: 7”
b: 8”
c: 9”
d: 10”
a: 7”
True or False. To keep water moving in a footing drain, the drainpipe should be sloped at least 1/8” per foot.
True
Foundation drain pipe or tile should be ________ than the basement floor slab.
a: Lower
b: At the same elevation
c: Higher
d: Any of the above
a: Lower
The required minimum strength of concrete used for footings is:
a: 1000 lb./sq. in.
b: 2000 lb./sq.in.
c: 2500 lb./sq.in.
d: 3000 lb./sq.in.
c: 2500 lb./sq.in.
At what distance must rebars used in reinforced concrete footings be kept from the bottom of the footing?
a: 4 inches
b: 6 inches
c: 1 1/2 to 2 1/2 inches
d: 3 inches
d: 3 inches
The unsupported height of masonry pier foundations are limited in height to _____ times their width.
a: 6
b: 8
c: 10
d: 12
c: 10
True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.
True
A footing and a wall are two parts of a:
a: Soffits
b: Flashing
c: Foundation
d: Floor
c: Foundation
What is the required thickness of the moisture barrier that must be used under the basement floor (slab)?
a: 2 mils
b: 4 mils
c: 6 mils
d: 8 mils
c: 6 mils
Typically, a footing must be how much wider than the wall bearing on it?
a: 4”
b: 6”
c: 8”
d: 12”
c: 8”
Wood foundations not designed in accordance with AWC PWF are limited to a maximum backfill height of:
a: 3 feet
b: 4 feet
c: 5 feet
d: 6 feet
b: 4 feet
A wall portion projecting from either or both wall faces serving as a vertical column is a?
a: Pier
b: Pillar
c: Pilaster
d: Tremie
c: Pilaster
Foundation walls should be a minimum of how many inches above finished grade when no masonry veneer is being used?
a: 6”
b: 12”
c: 16”
d: 8”
a: 6”
What is the minimum diameter anchor bolt used to anchor the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall?
a: 3/8”
b: 1/2”
c: 5/8”
d: 3/4”
b: 1/2”
Pier and curtain wall foundations require:
a: continuous footings for load bearing walls.
b: Load bearing masonry shall be a minimum of 4 inches thick nominal
c: Maximum height of 4 inch nominal load bearing walls is 4 feet.
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
When a curtain foundation wall is exposed to the weather what is the minimum strength required?
a: 1000 lbs/sq.in.
b: 2000 lbs/sq.in.
c: 2500 lbs/sq.in.
d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.
d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.
Footings and foundations shall be constructed of masonry, concrete or treated wood and shall:
a: constructed of consistent materials
b: Extend below the frost line
c: 15” in depth
d: None pf the above
b: Extend below the frost line
Foundations for all buildings where the surface of the ground slopes more than 1 unit vertical in 10 units horizontal (10% slope) shall be level or shall be _______ so that both the top and bottom of the foundation is level.
a: Stepped
b: Bridged
c: Jacked
d: Sloped
a: Stepped
Anchor bolt washers for the sill plate must be a minimum of ________ and must be used on each bolt, in areas with high levels of seismic activity.
a: 1” x 1” x 1/8”
b: 1 1/2” x 1 1/2” x 1/8””
c: 1 3/4” x 1 3/4” x 3/16”
d: 3” x 3” x 1/4”
d: 3” x 3” x 1/4”
A beam notch in a masonry or concrete foundation wall must provide the beam with an air space clearance a minimum of _____ on each side and end.
a: 1/4”
b: 3/8”
c: 1/2”
d: 3/4”
c: 1/2”
The footing for a wood foundation is made up of _______
a: Gravel or crushed stone
b: Concrete
c: Lime
d: Treated wood
a: Gravel or crushed stone
The footing for a crawl space wood foundation must have a minimum depth of _____ of crushed stone or sand.
a: 4”
b: 5”
c: 6”
d: 8”
c: 6”
The minimum thickness of a slab on ground is _______.
a: 3”
b: 3 1/2”
c: 4”
d: 6”
b: 3 1/2”
Footings that are formed on a level grade with wood or steel are called:
a: Trench footings
b: Spread footings
c: Monolithic footings
d: Grade footings
b: Spread footings
What is the maximum unbalanced backfill height of a pier and curtain wall foundation that is 4 inch solid masonry.
a: 12 inches
b: 18 inches
c: 20 inches
d: 24 inches
d: 24 inches
The thickened portion of a slab made to support a load bearing wall is:
a: Not required
b: Called a grade beam
c: Required by code
d: Both b and c
d: Both b and c
True or False. Footings must always bear on undisturbed soil or engineered fill.
True
Pile foundations are foundations that exceed a width to length ratio of:
a: 1 to 8
b: 1 to 10
c: 1 to 12
d: 1 to 14
c: 1 to 12
If approved drain tiles are to be used along the footing of the foundation wall, what are the coverage requirements of the fill?
a: 1 inch of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
b: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
c: 4 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
d: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
d: 2 inches of porous gravel base, and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
Maximum anchor bolt spacing is:
a: 2’
b: 4’
c: 6’
d: 8’
c: 6’
The maximum distance between the last anchor bolt and the end of the foundation plate is:
a: one foot
b: two feet
c: four feet
d: No more than four feet
a: one foot
A horizontal member of a concrete wall form used to help brace the form is a:
a: Rail
b: Strongback
c: Wale
d: Wall tie
c: Wale
Under what circumstances would it be recommended to use a step footing:
a: Uncompacted soil
b: Uneven batter boards
c: Sloped grade
d: Unevenly distributed load.
c: Sloped grade
Backfill material should be free of:
a: Mostly clay soil
b: Scrap lumber
c: Tree limbs
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
What type of building superstructure is allowed when a wood foundation system is utilized?
a: Wood frame only
b: Wood frame and concrete block
c: Concrete block
d: Solid brick
a: Wood frame only
If a high water is present, what is required by code to cover the foundation wall up to finish grade?
a: A waterproofing must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.
b: The outside of the entire foundation wall must be cement parged and then waterproof cover added over the parging
c: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the entire exterior face of the foundation wall.
d: None of the above
a: A waterproofing must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.
In a footing what does a key or keyway refer to?
a: The ground that the footing sits on
b: The direction that the truck has to come to pour the footing
c: The schedule of time to pour
d: The groove in the top of the footing
d: The groove in the top of the footing
Waterproofing runs from what to what?
a: Top of foundation to grade.
b: Bottom of the foundation to the grade.
c: Top of the footing to the finished grade.
d: Bottom of the footing to the sill plate.
c: Top of the footing to the finished grade.
True or False. Both pier foundations derive their load bearing capacity through skin friction, end bearing or a combination of both.
True
True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.
True
In frost-protected footings, the minimum distance from grade to the bottom of the footing is ______
a: 8”
b: 10”
c: 12”
d: 14”
c: 12”
The minimum projection (P) of the footing is 2” and it should not exceed:
a: 4”
b: 6”
c: 8”
d: the thickness of the footing
d: the thickness of the footing
What is the minimum twenty-eight day compression strength of concrete used for foundations not being exposed to weather?
a: 1500 psi
b: 2000 psi
c: 2500 psi
d: 3000 psi
c: 2500 psi
What type of fasteners are allowed for below grade exterior walls for wood foundation systems?
a: Galvanized
b: Zinc coated
c: Stainless
d: Electro galvanized
c: Stainless
What is the minimum twenty-eight day compression strength of concrete used for a garage floor slab in areas with severe weathering potential?
a: 2000 psi
b: 2500 psi
c: 3000 psi
d: 3500 psi
d: 3500 psi
When building a step footing, what is the maximum slope of the grade under the step area?
a: 4%
b: 6%
c: 8%
d: 10%
d: 10%
Anchor bolts used to attach the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall must be at least _______ in diameter.
a: 3/8”
b: 1/2”
c: 5/8”
d: 3/4”
b: 1/2”
Anchor bolts for the sill plate must be embedded in concrete or grout a minimum of ______
a: 5”
b: 6”
c: 7”
d: 8”
c: 7”
Besides Type M mortar, what other type is acceptable for mortar being used for foundations?
a: E
b: N
c: O
d: S
d: S
What is the minimum diameter of a steel column?
a: 3”
b: 3 1/2”
c: 4”
d: 4 1/2”
a: 3”
All vented crawl spaces shall be vented within _____ of each corner.
a: 2 feet
b: 2 1/2 feet
c: 3 feet
d: 3 1/2 feet
c: 3 feet
At final grade, what is the minimum slope of the grade extending perpendicular to the foundation walls?
a: 4” drop in 10 feet - 3.3%
b: 5” drop in 10 feet - 4.2%
c: 6” drop in 10 feet - 5.0%
d: 7” drop in 10 feet - 5.8%
c: 6” drop in 10 feet - 5.0%
What is the minimum required width of a concrete footing in a 3 story single family dwelling conventional light frame construction with a soil bearing capacity of 2000 psf?
a: 12”
b: 17”
c: 20”
d: 24”
b: 17”
Excavations for footings should extend into undisturbed soil a minimum of:
a: 4 inches
b: 12 inches
c: 8 inches
d: 24 inches
b: 12 inches
Final grade around buildings must slope away from the foundation walls a minimum of _____ for the first 10 feet
a: 2%
b: 4%
c: 5%
d: 10%
c: 5%
Which of the following statements about foundation drainage systems are true?
a: Drainage tiles or perforated pipe shall be placed on a minimum of 2 inches of crushed stone or gravel and covered with gravel or crushed stone to a minimum of 6 inches above the top of the tile.
b: Footing drain pip shall be placed below the level of the basement floor slab.
c: Gravel or crushed stone drainage systems must extend a minimum of 12 inches past the edge of the footing.
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Reinforcement steel bar placed in footings must be kept _______ from the footing edges or the earth.
a: 3 inches
b: 4 inches
c: 5 inches
d: 6 inches
a: 3 inches
Fasteners used below grade in wood foundations shall be: _____
a: Doubledipped galvanized
b: Tripledipped galvanized
c: Zinc
d: Stainless Steel
d: Stainless Steel
Concrete slabs below grade require a _______ base course of sand, gravel or crushed stone if the existing base isn’t a group 1 soil.
a: 4”
b: 5”
c: 6”
d: 3”
a: 4”
What type of building can be erected on a pier and curtain wall foundation?
a: Steel frame
b: Light frame
c: Natural stone
d: all of the above
b: Light frame
The minimum size of the footings needed to support a building structure is determined by:
a: The type of building
b: The number of stories
c: The type of soil supporting the building
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Rubble stone foundations must be a minimum of _____ inches wide.
a: 12
b: 16
c: 24
d: None of the above
b: 16
If a slab and a footing constructed by the same form work and created by the same concrete pour, this is called ______
a: Unibond construction
b: Monolithic construction
c: Time management
d: All of the above
b: Monolithic construction
A groove formed in the surface of a footing to support the foundation wall is called:
a: Wall slot
b: Keyway
c: Strong tie
d: Tie slot
b: Keyway
What should be the elevation change limit per step be for step footings?
a: 1’
b: 2’
c: 2 1/2’
d: 3’
b: 2’
What is the horizontal brace for wall forms called?
a: Long brace
b: Wale
c: Shark
d: Lead brace
b: Wale
Protecting foundation walls against ordinary seepage such that may occur after a rainstorm is called:
a: Waterproofing
b: Dampproofing
c: Parging
d: Sealcoating
b: Dampproofing
True or False. Wood posts or columns that are in direct contact with the ground and support permanent structures must be preservative treated.
True
Anchor bolts must be provided within _____ from the end of each piece of the sill plate.
a: 6”
b: 8”
c: 10”
d: 12”
d: 12”
Anchor bolts shall be embedded into at least ______ of concrete or grouted masonry
a: 7”
b: 8”
c: 9”
d: 10”
a: 7”
True or False. To keep water moving in a footing drain, the drainpipe should be sloped at least 1/8” per foot.
True
Foundation drain pipe or tile should be _____ than the basement floor slab.
a: Lower
b: At the same elevation
c: Higher
d: Any of the above
a: Lower
The required minimum strength of concrete used for footings is:
a: 1000 lb./sq.in.
b: 2000 lb./sq.in.
c: 2500 lb./sq.in.
d: 3000 lb./sq.in.
c: 2500 lb./sq.in.
Vented crawl spaces require a vent opening within ___ feet of each corner.
a: 1
b: 2
c: 3
d: 6
c: 3
Pier foundations are limited in height to ____ times their width.
a: 6
b: 8
c: 10
d: 12
d: 12
True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.
True
A footing and a wall are two parts of a:
a: Soffits
b: Flashing
c: Foundation
d: Floor
c: Foundation
What is the required thickness of the moisture barrier that must be used under the basement floor (slab)?
a: 2 mils
b: 4 mils
c: 6 mils
d: 8 mils
c: 6 mils
Typically, footings must be how much wider than the wall bearing on it?
a: 4”
b: 6”
c: 8”
d: 12”
c: 8”
Wood foundations are limited to a maximum unbalanced backfill height of:
a: 3 feet
b: 4 feet
c: 5 feet
d: 6 feet
b: 4 feet
A wall portion projecting from either or both wall faces serving as a vertical column is a?
a: Pier
b: Pillar
c: Pilaster
d: Tremie
c: Pilaster
Foundation walls should be a minimum of how many inches above grade?
a: 6”
b: 12”
c: 16”
d: 8”
a: 6”
Batter boards must be kept _____ feet from the intended excavation.
a: 2
b: 4
c: 6
d: None of the above
b: 4
Pier and curtain wall foundations requires:
a: Continuous footings for load bearing walls.
b: Load bearing masonry walls shall be a minimum of 4 inches thick nominal.
c: Maximum height of 4 inch nominal load bearing walls is 4 feet.
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
When a concrete foundation wall is exposed to moderate weather conditions, what is the minimum strength required?
a: 1000 lbs/sq.in.
b: 2000 lbs/sq.in.
c: 2500 lbs/sq.in.
d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.
d: 3000 lbs/sq.in.
Footings and Foundations shall be constructed of masonry, concrete or treated wood and shall:
a: Constructed of consistent materials
b: Extend below the frost line
c: 15” in depth
d: None of the above
b: Extend below the frost line
Foundations for all buildings where the surface of the ground slopes more than 1 unit vertical in 10 units horizontal (10% slope) shall be level or shall be ________ so that both the top and bottom of the foundation is level.
a: Stepped
b: Bridged
c: Jacked
d: Sloped
a: Stepped
Anchor bolt washers for the sill plate must bea minimum of ______ and must be used on each bolt, in areas of Tennessee with high levels of seismic activity.
a: 1” x 1” x 1/8”
b: 1 1/2” x 1 1/2” x 1/8”
c: 1 3/4” x 1 3/4” x 3/16”
d: 3” x 3” x 1/4”
d: 3” x 3” x 1/4”
A beam notch in a poured concrete foundation wall must have a minimum clearance of ______ on each side and end:
a: 1/4”
b: 3/8”
c: 1/2”
d: 3/4:
c: 1/2”
The footing for a wood foundation is made up of _______.
a: Gravel or crushed stone
b: Concrete
c: Lime
d: Treated wood
a: Gravel or crushed stone
The footing for a wood foundation must have a minimum depth of _____ of crushed stone or sand.
a: 4”
b: 5”
c: 6”
d: 8”
c: 6”
The minimum thickness of a slab on the ground is _______
a: 3”
b: 3 1/2”
c: 4”
d: 6”
b: 3 1/2”
Footings that are formed on grade level with wood or steel are called:
a: Trench footings
b: Spread footings
c: Monolithic footings
d: Grade footings
b: Spread footings
What is the maximum unbalanced backfill height of a pier and curtain wall foundation that is 4 inch solid masonry:
a: 12 inches
b: 18 inches
c: 20 inches
d: 24 inches
d: 24 inches
The thickened portion of a slab made to support a load bearing wall is:
a: Not required
b: Called a grade beam
c: Required by code
d: Both a and c
d: Both a and c
True or False. Footings must always bear on undisturbed soil.
True
Pile foundations are foundations are foundations that exceed a width to length ratio of:
a: 1 to 8
b: 1 to 10
c: 1 to 12
d: 1 to 14
c: 1 to 12
If approved drain tiles are to be used along the footing of the foundation wall, what are the coverage requirements of the fill?
a: 1 inch of porous gravel base, and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile.
b: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 4 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile
c: 4 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile
d: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile
d: 2 inches of porous gravel base and 6 inches of porous gravel cover for the tile
Crawl space foundations are typically less than ____ feet tall.
a: 2
b: 4
c: 5
d: 8
c: 5
The maximum distance between the last anchor bolt and the end of the foundation plate is:
a: One foot
b: Two feet
c: Four feet
d: No more than four feet
a: One foot
A horizontal member of a concrete wall form used to help brace the form is a:
a: Rail
b: Strongback
c: Wale
d: Wall tie
Wale
Under what circumstances would it be recommended to use a step footing:
a: Uncompacted soil
b: Uneven batter boards
c: Sloped grade
d: Unevenly distributed load
c: Sloped grade
Backfill material should be free of:
a: Mostly clay soil
b: Scrap lumber
c: Tree limits
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
What type of building superstructure is allowed when a wood foundation is utilized?
a: Wood frame only
b: Wood frame and concrete block
c: Concrete block
d: Solid brick
a: Wood frame only
If a high water table is present, what is required by code to cover the foundation wall up to finish grade?
a: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.
b: The outside of the entire foundation wall must be cement parged and then a waterproof cover added over the parging.
c: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over th entire exterior face of the foundation wall
d: None of the above
a: A waterproofing membrane must be applied over the exterior face of the foundation wall up to grade level.
In a footing what does a key or keyway refer to?
a: The ground that the footing sits on
b: the direction that the truck has to come to pour the footing
c: The schedule of time to pour
d: The groove in the top of the footing
d: The groove in the top of the footing
Waterproofing runs from what to what?
a: Top of the foundation to grade
b: Bottom of the foundation to the grade
c: Top of the footing to the grade
d: Bottom of the footing to the sill plate
c: Top of the footing to the grade
True or False. Pile caps are used to evenly distribute the weight of a column to may piles.
True
True or False. Wood foundations shall not be backfilled until the basement floor and first floor have been constructed or the walls have been braced.
True
In frost-protected footings, the minimum distance from grade to the bottom of the footing is _______
a: 8”
b: 10”
c: 12”
d: 14”
c: 12”
What is the minimum twnety-eight day compression strength of concrete used for foundations not being exposed to weather?
a: 1500 psi
b: 2000 psi
c: 2500 psi
d: 3000 psi
c: 2500 psi
True or False. Grade beams are used to distribute large wall loads of a building equally along pile caps, caissons and spread footings.
True
When building a step footing, what is the maximum slope of the grade under the step area?
a: 4%
b: 6%
c: 8%
d: 10%
d: 10%
Anchor bolts used to attach the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall must be at least ____ in diameter.
a: 3/8”
b: 1/2”
c: 5/8”
d: 3/4”
b: 1/2”
Besides type M mortar, what other type is acceptable for mortar being used for foundations?
a: E
b: N
c: O
d: S
d: S
The minimum diameter of a steel column?
a: 3”
b: 3 1/2”
c: 4”
d: 4 1/2”
a: 3”
All vented crawl spaces shall be vented within _____ of each corner.
a: 2 feet
b: 2 1/2 feet
c: 3 feet
d: 3 1/2 feet
c: 3 feet
At final grade, what is the minimum slope of the grade extending perpendicular to the foundation walls?
a: 4” drop in 10 feet - 3.3%
b: 5” drop in 10 feet - 44.2%
c: 6” drop in 10 feet - 5.0%
d: 7” drop in 10 feet - 5.8%
c: 6” drop in 10 feet - 5.0%
Concrete is made by mixing:
a: Lime, Portland cement, and water
b: Cement, sand, water, and gravel
c: Lime, mortar, and water
d: None of the above
b: Cement, sand, water, and gravel
Ready mix concrete is purchased by the cubic yard, which is how many cubic feet?
a: 144
b: 27
c: 12
d: 48
b: 27
The thermal process known as hydration refers to:
a: Air entrainment of concrete
b: Freeze and thaw conditions of concrete
c: The curing process
d: None of the above
c: The curing process
A slump cone is a metal cone used for:
a: Determining water mix in concrete
b: Pouring cement in small places
c: Measuring amount of cement used
d: None of the above
a: Determining water mix in concrete
The minimum compressive strength of concrete for slabs in moderate weather exposure is _____.
a: 2000 lb
b: 2500 lb
c: 3000 lb
d: None of the above
c: 3000 lb
Reinforced concrete is accomplished by adding:
a: Reinforcing rod
b: Welded wire
c: Stronger cement
d: Either a or b
d: Either a or b
The term “fine aggregate” refers to well-graded up to:
a: 1/4 inch
b: 1/8 inch
c: 3/8 inch
d: 5/8 inch
a: 1/4 inch
In comparison to regular concrete, air entrained concrete:
a: Has more workability
b: Is more watertight
c: is more durable in freeze/thaw conditions
d: Both a and c
d: Both a and c
If fill needs to be added for a slab-on-grade, it should be compacted in successive layers of not more than _____ inches thick at a time.
a: 24
b: 18
c: 6
d: all of the above
c: 6
A number 3 rebar is what diameter?
a: 1/8 inch
b: 1/4 inch
c: 3/8 inch
d: 1/2 inch
c: 3/8 inch
When water is added to Portland cement it causes the mass to set. This reaction is called.
a: Admixtures
b: Hydration
c: Entrainment
d: Mixing
b: Hydration
For garage floor slabs where a steel trowel finish is used, the total air content can be reduced to _____ percent provided the strength of the concrete is increased to 4000 psi.
a: 3
b: 5
c: 7
d: All of the above
a: 3
What is used to prevent concrete from sticking to wood forms
a: Grease
b: Form release agent (Oil)
c: Concrete will not stick to wood
d: None of the above
b: Form release agent (Oil)
The most commonly used additive to help concrete set rapidly and more cohesively is:
a: Calcium chloride
b: Fly ash
c: Hydrochloric acid
d: Paint catalyst
a: Calcium chloride
How much does one cubic foot of concrete weigh?
a: 0.86 lbs.
b: 94 lbs.
c: 150 lbs
d: 4050 lbs.
c: 150 lbs
Concrete is considered to be fully cured or set after _____ days
a: 14 days
b: 21 days
c: 28 days
d: 30 days
c: 28 days
True or False. Air entrainment protects concrete from frost damage, but also makes concrete more workable. For that reason, not as much water is necessary for the mix.
True
True or False. On hot sunny days in the summertime, a contractor may decide to use _______ to slow down the setting time of concrete.
a: Water
b: Retarders
c: Chloride
d: A tarp
b: Retarders
True or False. When pouring concrete, the concrete should be placed near its required point. Excessive handling o the concrete weakens it.
True
A ——- is a 12” high cone which determines the amount of water in the mix.
a: Waffle cone
b: Masonry cone
c: Concrete cone
d: Slump cone
d: Slump cone
Adding too much water to a concrete mix will _____ it.
a: Strengthen
b: Drown
c: Lighten
d: Weaken
d: Weaken
_____ concrete is the process of leveling the freshly poured concrete before it is floated.
a: Screeding
b: Brushing
c: Raking
d: Stomping
a: Screeding
True or False. Floating of the freshly screeded is accomplished with a wood or magnesium bullfloat which smooths out, levels, compacts and brings the small particles to the surface for finishing.
True
On large areas, it may be necessary to use a _____ to finish the surface area.
a: Large finish trowel
b: Bullfloat
c: 2 x 12
d: Power trowel
d: Power trowel
On sidewalk surfaces, it is necessary to broom the surface of concrete to provide a:
a: Non-slip surface
b: Clean sidewalk
c: Bubble-free surface
d: More durable surface
a: Non-slip surface
It is necessary to maintain the temperature above 50 degrees in order for concrete to properly:
a: Dissipate
b: Strengthen
c: Cure
d: Level off
c: Cure
Welded wire mesh should be placed _____ below the top of the surface of the slab.
a: 1 inch
b: 2 inches
c: 4 inches
d: None of the above
b: 2 inches
The white salty powder that forms on the finished surface of concrete is called _____.
a: Sodium
b: Dust
c: Lime
d: Efflorescence
d: Efflorescence
A concrete floor may also be called a:
a: Cement pond
b: Slab on the ground
c: Lower elevation
d: Slag
b: Slab on the ground
Concrete slabs on grade have a tendency to curl because:
a: The ground may settle
b: The top cures faster
c: The middle is heavier
d: The sides are lighter
b: The top cures faster
As concrete is placed in a form it needs to be leveled off. This can be done manually or mechanically with a _______.
a: Power trowel
b: Power screed
c: Power stomper
d: Power washer
b: Power screed
A control joint allows for what?
a: Leveling the foundation
b: A place for a girder to rest.
c: Movement
d: None of the above
c: Movement
Pouring concrete on frozen earth is:
a: Acceptable if fast drying concrete is used.
b: Acceptable if air-entrainment concrete is used.
c: Acceptable if the surrounding earth is treated with chloride
d: Never acceptable
d: Never acceptable
The diameter of a No. 4 deformed bar is:
a: 1/4”
b: 3/8”
c: 1/2”
d: 3/4”
c: 1/2”
Which of the following are true in regard to cold-weather construction?
a: Water for mixing can be heated
b: Insulated blankets can be placed over concrete footings
c: Aggregate can be heated
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
When sawing a control joint in a concrete slab, the joint must be a minimum f how deep?
a: 1/5 the thickness
b: 1/4 the thickness
c: 1/2 the thickness
d: 2/3 the thickness
b: 1/4 the thickness
What is the purpose of adding retarders to a concrete mixture?
a: To cause the concrete to set faster
b: To increase the amount of water needed to mix concrete
c: To slow down the setting time of concrete
d: To increase shrinkage as the concrete dries.
c: To slow down the setting time of concrete
What is added to make concrete more workable with less water?
a: Fly ash
b: Accelerators
c: Retarders
d: Water reducers
d: Water reducers
A one car driveway should have a minimum width of?
a: 8’
b: 10’
c: 12’
d: 16’
b: 10’
A two car wide driveway is usually how wide?
a: 14’
b: 16’
c: 18’
d: None of the above
c: 18’
In cases of severe cold weather exposure, the air content in a concrete mix should be about:
a: 3% to 5%
b: 5% to 7%
c: 8% to 10%
d: 10% to 12%
b: 5% to 7%
If concrete is exposed to de-icers and it is not air entrained, it could:
a: Bleach the surface
b: Darken
c: Scale or spall
d: Buckle
c: Scale or spall
When concrete becomes flaky and fragmented on the surface, this is called:
a: Scaling or spalling
b: Spider cracking
c: Buckling
d: Lifting
a: Scaling or spalling
The maximum size aggregate is limited to the lesser of:
a: One quarter the thickness of nonreinforced slabs
b: Three-fourths the clear spacing between the bar and the side of the form
c: One-fifth the narrowest distance between sides of the form.
d: b and c
d: b and c
Where concrete is cast against and permanently exposed tooo the earth, reinforcement steel should be ______ from the earth.
a: 1”
b: 2”
c: 3”
d: 4”
c: 3”
In most specifications, adding water to a batch of concrete is permitted only one time at the job site as long as the WC ratio is not exceeded. This would be done in order to:
a: Increase the slump to the level specified in the mix design
b: Make cleanup easier
c: Speed up the job
d: The workman’s preference
a: Increase the slump to the level specified in the mix design
A method to prevent cast concrete from excessive shrinking is to:
a: Increase the cement factor and reduce the size of the aggregate
b: Lower the cement factor and increase the size of the aggregate
c: Use more steel
d: Add calcium chloride
b: Lower the cement factor and increase the size of the aggregate
Contraction joints, also known as control joints, in a slab are used to:
a: Control random cracking
b: Create dimensional character
c: Water drainage
d: Segregate the slab
a: Control random cracking
Isolation joints isolate differing parts of a structure to permit independent:
a: Structures
b: Design
c: Movement
d: Placement
c: Movement
______ are a convenient way to limit the size of the placement of concrete to a manageable volume and are a stopping place for a day’s work.
a: Construction joints
b: Contraction joints
c: Isolation joints
d: Control joints
a: Construction joints
For a slab placed below grade, it is necessary to provide at least 4” of crushed gravel or stone. This should be compacted. It will prevent moisture from collecting under the slab. this 4” area is known as _______
a: Aggregate fill
b: Extra aggregate
c: Dry-base
d: Base
d: Base
The timing for the removal of forms is important. The concrete has to achieve a strength great enough to support its own weight and the weight of any construction loads places upon it. General guidelines for wall and column form removal is _______ after placement.
a: At least 12 hours
b: At least 24 hours
c: At least 36 hours
d: At least 48 hours
a: At least 12 hours
Concrete that has a lot of Portland cement in the mix may be referred to as:
a: High mix
b: Max mix
c: Rich concrete
d: Fat mix
c: Rich concrete
What is the reason for using fiber reinforcement in concrete?
a: Improves ductility and reduces surface cracks
b: It’s a cheap filler
c: It increases temperate strength
d: Increases compression strength
a: Improves ductility and reduces surface cracks
The most precise way of positioning rebar for a slab is to use:
a: Stirrups
b: Tables
c: Stools
d: Spacers
a: Stirrups
True or False. Chairs are classified according to their degree of rust protection. Class #1 is the maximum protection, class #2 is moderate protection, and class #3 is no protection.
True
Proper _______ prevents most problems in the finished concrete. Methods used to ensure a high quality, finished product,, include a sprayed on membrane curing compound, polyethylene sheets, waterproof paper or wet burlap.
a: Curing
b: Seasoning
c: Basting
d: Besting
a: Curing
With the exception of special conditions, maximum delivery time between the water being mixed with the Portland cement in batching and the time of completion of discharge from a transit-mix truck is ______
a: 30 minutes
b: 60 minutes
c: 90 minutes
d: 120 minutes
c: 90 minutes
What is the sole purpose for welded wire fabric in a floor slab?
a: Increase the load carrying capacity
b: Prevent slab from cracking
c: Prevent cracks from opening
d: All of the above
c: Prevent cracks from opening
True or False. The reason for tying reinforcing bars with tie wire is to keep the rebar in place while pouring. It does not add any additional strength to the concrete:
True
True or False. Rebar is placed in concrete mainly to improve its compression strength.
False
What is the usual size of tie wire for rebar placement:
a: #8 gauge soft annealed
b: #12 gauge soft annealed
c: #14 gauge soft annealed
d: #16 gauge soft annealed
d: #16 gauge soft annealed
Reinforcing steel placed in concrete to increase is ______ strength.
a: Compression
b: Tensile
c: Soil compaction
d: None of the above
b: Tensile
There are two ways to insure proper curing of concrete: apply water to make up for water lost due to evaporation, and _____.
a: Use plasticizers
b: Use retarders
c: Prevent evaporation
d: All of the above
c: Prevent evaporation
True or False. Concrete cures best in cool, damp environments
True
Besides ensuring the proper strength of concrete, proper curing of concrete also aids in:
a: Durability
b: Surface soundness
c: Reducing cracking
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
Concrete slabs poured above grade are oftne supported by ribber or corrugated steel decking. These forms are called _____.
a: Slip forms
b: Jump forms
c: Stay-in-place forms
d: Gang forms
c: Stay-in-place forms
What is the minimum thickness of concrete footings for fireplaces?
a: 10”
b: 11”
c: 12”
d: 14”
c: 12”
What is the minimum thickness of concrete used for floors?
a: 3”
b: 3 1/2”
c: 4”
d: 4 1/2”
b: 3 1/2”
To stiffen floor construction, a builder should:
a: Use proper bridging
b: Use building paper over subflooring
c: Use a steel beam instead of a wood beam
d: Use a lot of nails
a: Use proper bridging
A ledger is:
a: Part of a window
b: A strip for headers to rest on
c: A board for joists to fasten to
d: An accounting book
c: A board for joists to fasten to
Joists resting on beams or girders must overlap a minimum of how many inches, if they don’t run continuous?
a: 5
b: 4
c: 3
d: 2
c: 3
If the joists are to be framed flush with the top of a wood girder, it is best to use:
a: Edging strip
b: Hangers
c: Flushers
d: 8D nails
b: Hangers
Bearing walls running above and parallel to the floor joists require that the floor joists be:
a: Doubled
b: Either a or c
c: Laddered
d: Replaced
b: Either a or c
In lumber classification, Firsts and seconds (FAS) is best described as:
a: Discarded boards suitable for concrete forms and other uses
b: Boards of approximately 8’ and 101’ lengths
c: Boards with few knots or irregularities
d: Exceptionally green lumber prone to heavy shrinkage
c: Boards with few knots or irregularities
What is used over doors/openings to transfer superimposed loads to vertical members
a: Ceiling joists
b: Rafters
c: Headers
d: Wall top plates
c: Headers
When floors require bridging, use solid blocking, diagonal wood or metal bracing or a continuous 1 x 3 strip nailed across the bottom of joists for spans over ______.
a: 6 feet
b: 8 feet
c: 10 feet
d: 12 feet
b: 8 feet
Rafters and floor joists should be installed with the:
a: Crown up
b: Bow up
c: Crown down
d: None of the above
a: Crown up
The maximum size hole that may be bored into a 12” floor joists is:
a: 2”
b: 3”
c: 3 3/4”
d: 6”
c: 3 3/4”
For a fire stop, you should not use:
a: 3/4” plywood
b: 19/32 particle board
c: A thickness of two 1” pieces of lumber
d: 2” nominal thickness lumber
b: 19/32 particle board
The mark C-D stamped on a sheet of plywood refers to the:
a: Strength of the plywood
b: Stereophonic capability when used in speakers
c: Veneer grade
d: Construction durability
c: Veneer grade
The lowest horizontal member of a truss is called a:
a: Bottom chord
b: Brace
c: Ceiling joist
d: Stay
a: Bottom chord
What is the minimum amount of bearing for the ends of each joist placed over a girder or sill plate
a: 1”
b: 1 1/4”
c: 1 1/2”
d: 1 3/4”
c: 1 1/2”
The name for the metal or wood plate used to strengthen the joints of a truss is:
a: Gusset
b: Chord
c: Metal tie
d: None of the above
a: Gusset
In exterior walls and bearing partitions, any wood stud is permitted to be cut or notched to a depth not exceeding _____ of its width.
a: 50%
b: 40%
c: 25%
d: None of the above
c: 25%
Holes drilled into floor joists for piping shall not exceed 1/3 of the depth of the joist and:
a: Must be closer than 2’ to the top or bottom
b: Must be in the middle third of the span
c: Not in the left or right third of the span
d: Not be closer than 2” to the bottom of the joist
d: Not be closer than 2” to the bottom of the joist
Plywood testing and rating is performed by:
a: APA
b: TIOSHA
c: IRC/MRC 2000
d: EPA
a: APA
When framing for large openings in the floor, the joist and header should be:
a: Notched
b: Tripled
c: Reinforced
d: Doubled
d: Doubled
A sheet of plywood stamped 32/16 has a maximum span of:
a: 32” subflooring and 16” roof sheathing
b: 32” wall sheathing and 16” roof sheathing
c: 32” roof sheathing and 16” wall sheathing
d: 32” roof sheathing and 16” subflooring
d: 32” roof sheathing and 16” subflooring
What is meant by the term dead load?
a: Weight from immovable objects
b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems
c: Weight distributed to the earth
d: None of the above
b: Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems
A ridge board for rafters shall not be less than ___ inch nominal thickness and not less than the depth of the cut end of the rafter.
a: 1
b: 2
c: 3
d: 4
a: 1
What is the maximum notch depth in the middle third of a rafter
a: 1/6 the depth of the rafter
b: 1/4 the depth of the rafter
c: 1/3 the depth of the rafter
d: Never notch the middle third!
d: Never notch the middle third!
True or false. Live load is load produced by the use and occupancy of the building or other structure that does not include construction or environment loads.
True
For most wood, drying its moisture content to _____ percent does not result in shrinkage
a: 12
b: 20
c: 28
d: None of the above
c: 28
True or False. The most stable lumber is quarter sawn.
True
Preservative-treated wood shall be marked with a stamp or label showing:
a: Identification of treating manufacturer
b: Type of preservative used
c: Minimum preservative retention (pcf)
d: All of the above
d: All of the above
