Practice Test 2 Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
What is the study of cells?
A
Cytology
2
Q
What is the study of tissue called
A
Histology
3
Q
A group of similar cells that perform specialized functions are called a
A
Tissue
4
Q
__________ is the state of balance in the body. The body is at the state, it means it performs at its maximum potential
A
Homeostasis
5
Q
Organs functioning together for a common purpose is called an
A
Organ system
6
Q
In anatomical position, the palms are facing backwards true or false
A
False. In anatomical position the palms are facing up
7
Q
Sagittal view divides the body into anterior and posterior, true or false?
A
False. The sagittal divides the body into unequal left and right portions
8
Q
_________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior
A
Transverse
9
Q
Sagittal plane divides the body into left and right, true or false?
A
True
10
Q
Tissue serving a common purpose or function makes up
A
An organ
11
Q
In anatomical position, the thumb is on the medial side of the hand true or false?
A
False. In anatomical position the thumb is on the lateral side of the hand
12
Q
The great toe is on the medial side of the foot, true or false?
A
True
13
Q
Opposite of contralateral is
A
Ipsilateral
14
Q
What are other terms for superior?
A
Cranial or hyper
15
Q
The other term for inferior is
A
Claudial
16
Q
If you know the superficial femoral artery extends from slightly inferior to the groin area to the knee area which part of it is the proximal part in which part is the distal part?
A
The portion by the groin is proximal, distal is by the knee
17
Q
The other term for anterior is?
A
Ventral.
18
Q
The other term for posterior is
A
Dorsal
19
Q
Pertaining to the covering of an organ is
A
Visceral
20
Q
Pertaining to the outer wall of cavity is
A
Parietal
21
Q
Laying down on the back is called the
A
Supine position
22
Q
Laying down on the chest is the
A
Prone position
23
Q
Laying down supine, with feet elevated is called the
A
Trendelenburg position
24
Q
Laying down supine, with feet lowered is called the
A
Reverse Trendelenburg position
25
In the ________ position, the patient lies on their back, thighs acutely flexed on the abdomen, and legs flexed on thighs; legs are widely separated and raised. Used freq in GYN
Lithotomy
26
___________ position is useful in advanced pregnancy to avoid hypotension caused by IVC compression
Semi – Fowler
27
Sitting in this position is also called ________. It prevents aspiration
Fowler
28
__________ is the position used for rectal exams.
Sims. The position consists of the patient in left or right oblique, with opposite leg flexed at the hip and knee.
29
Turning the foot inward is called
Inversion
30
Turning the foot outward is called
Eversion
31
Turning The forearm so that the palm of the hand faces backward is called
Supination. Seen in anatomical position
32
Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces forward is called
Pronation
33
Describe flexion and extension of the forearm
Flexion of the forearm is when the fist moves towards the shoulder. Extension of the forearm is when the fist moves away from the shoulder. The movement originates at the elbow
34
A sagittal plane divides the body into ventral and dorsal Plains, true or false?
False. The coronal plane divides the body into ventral and dorsal planes
35
The ventral cavity consists of:
The thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavities. Sometimes the abdominal and pelvic cavities are referred to together, forming the abdominopelvic cavity. The diaphragm is also included in the ventral cavity
36
The dorsal cavity consists of:
The cranial and spinal cavities
37
Name the nine regions of Addison's planes
Left and right hypochondria, left and right lumbar, left and right iliac fossa, epigastric, hypogastirum, umbilicus
38
What are the four quadrants of the abdominal pelvic area?
right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, right lower quadrant left lower quadrant
39
The right hypochondriac region of the abdomen corresponds to which quarter?
Right upper quadrant
40
What does BOS stand for?
Base of support.
41
Narrow base of support characterizes unstable and mobile systems, true or false?
True
42
What constitutes a person's base of support?
Feet and the space between them.
43
Center of gravity is a hypothetical point at which the object will balance, true or false?
True
44
Stability can be achieved when a body center of gravity is over its base of support, true or false?
True
45
The body will topple if the center of gravity is displaced outside its base of support, true or false?
True
46
Smooth muscles, not skeletal muscles in the body have red and white fibers, true or false?
False. smooth muscles ARE skeletal muscles
47
Red fibers are considered the slow twitch fibers, true or false?
True
48
Exercise intensity initiates which type dominates force production- true or false?
True
49
White muscle fibers do not fatigue quickly, so we don't collapse, true or false?
False. White muscle fibers do fatigue quickly. They are responsible for rapid movements
50
Red muscle fibers are responsible for postural stability, true or false?
True
51
When lifting boxes or patients, keep your knees straight, true or false?
False – keep your back straight, and bend your knees
52
For effective transfers, a person should use the motility of white muscles for lifting and the postural muscles for support, true or false?
True
53
When lifting boxes or patients, keep your back straight as much as possible, true or false?
True
54
When transporting a patient, the most important things to verify is the:________ and ________
Name and DOB
55
When transporting a patient, when you leave the patient alone, when your test includes the patient turning to the other side, or when the patient appears drowsy or showing altered level of consciousness, make sure to
____________!!!!!
Put up the bedrails!
56
When transferring a patient from wheelchair to a bed or vice versa always position the patient so that he or she is transferring towards their strong side, true or false
True
57
When transferring a patient to a wheelchair or a bed or vice versa make sure that the bed and the wheelchair are both
Locked, and the brakes are on
58
When transferring a patient from wheelchair to a bed or vice versa, make sure necessary personnel are employed to help assist in the move, communication has ensured that the patient understands the procedure, true or false?
True.
Always explain to the patient that they are about to be transferred and how that will be happening. They are people, not luggage.
59
When lifting a patient, the person performing the transfer should stand with feet apart shoulder width apart to widen the base of support-true or false?
True
60
When lifting a patient, the patient center of gravity should be held close to the transfers center of gravity, true or false?
True
61
When lifting patients, it is important to keep the back stationary and straight and do all the lifting by bending the knees, true or false
True. The back should be kept as straight as possible and the weight lifted with the thighs and knees.
62
Ambulatory means_______.
| Sometimes the term is used for ______
Mobile. Outpatients.
63
When transferring a patient, you can twist your trunk, true or false?
False. Never twist at the trunk. It weakens the base of support by shifting the center of gravity.
64
The condition when someone feels dizzy when he or she sits up quickly after prolonged we company position is called___________. Patient might show slurring or slowing of speech. This is indicative of decreased blood flow to the brain.
Orthostatic blood pressure
65
If you're going to do a study on a patient in wheelchair and the patient informs you that he or she is capable of the transfer to the bed on their own, what should you do?
Allow them to move themselves as much as possible
66
When assisting patients while transferring from bed to wheelchair or vice versa, which one can you choose – the gait belt or Bill Gates?
The gait belt
67
If you were transferring a patient who weighs 130 pounds and the patient can't bear weight on their lower extremities, which method of transfer can be used? In this method where does the stronger transfer stand? And who is in charge of the transfer?
It is called a two person transfer. The strongest person is at the patient's head and is in charge of overall transfer orders.
68
Before you transfer a patient from or to a wheelchair, make sure the wheelchair is locked and the feet rest are swung away, true or false?
True
69
If you were transferring a patient who is a sumo wrestler, what method of transfer is preferable?
Hydraulic lift
70
When transferring a patient from bed to a stretcher and the patient can do the transfer on their own, make sure the bed and the stretcher are ___________.
Aligned right next to each other, the brakes are on, and the outer rails are up.
71
When transferring a patient from bed to stretcher and the patient can't help with the transfer usage of ________ and _______ to help with the transfer.
A bodyboard, other staff.
72
50% of the population has this body habitus
What is Sthenic?
73
In sthenic body habitus, the stomach is J-shaped and is located low in comparison with that of the hypersthenic true or false?
True.
74
The elderly have what body habitus?
Asthenic
75
People who are usually thin but healthy and somewhat under wait for his or her height have a body habitus of
Hyposthenic 35% of population
76
A patient with hypersthenic body habitus possesses a gallbladder that is high and lies farther to the right, a stomach which is located high and in transverse section, is this true or false?
True
77
What does MSI stand for?
Musculoskeletal injury
78
Define musculoskeletal injury
Musculoskeletal injury refers to a group of disorders caused by or aggravated by workplace activities.
79
More than 80% of sonographers surveyed reported symptoms of MSA, true or false?
True
80
What are five contributing factors to the increased incidence of MSI reports?
More scans, more obese patients, staffing shortages, aging workforce, increased awareness
81
Left handed scanners tend to have shoulder and neck injuries; right handed scanners tend to have wrist and elbow problems, true or false?
False. Lefties have wrist and elbow problems. Right handed scanners tend to have shoulder and neck injuries
82
Sonographers who lack variety in studies are less prone to MSI, true or false.
False. Sonographers need variety in studies to stop repetitive injury.
83
Wrist or fingers extended or flexed for a long period of time exposes the sonographer to musculoskeletal injury, true or false?
True
84
What are five symptoms associated with musculoskeletal injury?
```
Pain
swelling
numbness
loss of sensation
muscle spasm
```
85
Stage III of musculoskeletal injury is permanently disabling and career ending, true or false?
True.
86
What side of the hand is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome, and what nerve is affected?
The palm of the hand is affected because the median nerve is inflamed.
87
What is trigger finger?
Trigger finger is the inability to extend or flex a digit
88
Tennis elbow indicates pain on the _______ Side of the elbow
Lateral
89
Golfers elbow indicate pain is on the ________ Side of the elbow
Medial
90
De-Quervain disease is considered a tendinitis and it indicates the inability to abduct the thumb, true or false?
True
91
Thoracic outlet syndrome occurs because of excessive stretching and reaching, true or false?
True.
92
In rotator cuff tear, symptoms include: inability to raise the affected arm out to the side of the body, true or false?
True
93
Wrapping the transducers cable around your neck is a correct practice, true or false?
False. Wrapping the transducer's cable around your neck is disgusting.
94
Wearing appropriate size gloves helps with the transducer gripped and is a correct practice, true or false?
True
95
You should use pillows, towels, or other supports when necessary to avoid extreme of flexion or extension on the wrist and arm, True or false?
True
96
Position the patient's bed, the chair if you use one, the ultrasound machines monitor, and the keyboard in the most comfortable position for YOU, true or false?
True
97
Practice the exercises you learned in class as often as you can to reduce the risk of musculoskeletal injury, true or false?
True
98
Describe five related techniques that are affected in the prevention of musculoskeletal injury
```
Posture of sonographer
Position of exam table
Position of patient
Position of equipment
Support wrist, elbow, hand
```
99
When you were going to do a portable study, pull and do not push the ultrasound machine true or false?
False. Do not ever pull the ultrasound machine around, they are heavy and you do not have as much power/controll pulling as you do pushing
100
Nowadays ultrasound machines have a good ergonomic design, true or false?
True. They are not everything they could be, but they are much better than they were.
101
Having a Palmar grip on the transducer is a correct practice, true or false?
True
102
When scanning a patient, maintain an arm abduction of less than 30°, true or false?
True
103
Refocus your eyes onto distant objects while scanning, true or false?
False! Focus your eyes on the damn scan when scanning. Don't miss the pathology! Refocus your eyes on the distant objects in between scans or at mini breaks
104
Minimization of sustained bending, twisting, reaching, lifting, and awkward positioning are good practices, true or false?
True
105
You might need to take short breaks during an ultrasound study to stretch your body, your shoulder, head, arms and legs, your fingers, and refocus your eyes on to a distant object for a moment, true or false?
True
106
If the ultrasound order has elevated Amylase and lipase under indication it means that the study is to perform abdominal ultrasound with more focused on the_________
Pancreas
107
If the ultrasound order has under indication: elevated BUN and creatine, which organ is affected?
The kidney
108
Small amounts of blood in urine is normal, true or false?
False. There should never be blood in urine.
109
Small amounts of protein in the urine is normal, true or false?
False. There should never be protein in the urine
110
Small amount of sugar in the urine is normal, true or false?
False. Sugar should never be in the urine. If it is, it means that the body's glucose level is over 180.
111
The presence of protein in the urine in a pregnant woman is an indication of _______. This is a fetal condition and can be fatal if not treated. and its main symptom is high blood pressure
Eclampsia
112
What is urine sediment?
Anything solid left over after the urine has been through the centrifuge
113
The presence of leukocyte esterase and nitrates in the urine indicates:
Urinary tract infection
114
ALP and AST are increased in_________?
Liver diseases or infections like hepatitis
115
The bilirubin that results from hemolytic anemia is direct Bilirubin true or false?
False. The Bilirubin that results from hemolytic anemia is unconjugated and indirect Bilirubin
116
The Bilirubin that results from tumor to the head of the pancreas is conjugated, true or false?
True
117
Normal level of serum glucose is
70-100 mg/dl
118
ESR stands for:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
119
ESR is a specific indicator of certain diseases, true or false?
False. ESR is an indicator of no particular disease.
120
These three tests are used to determine the clotting a tendency of blood in a patient:
PT- prothrombin time
PTT-partial thromboplastin time
5 platelet count
121
If a patient is on anticoagulation medicine due to stroke or DVT and he or she needed a procedure, he or she should stop the specific medications that increase the risk of bleeding for five days before the procedure and INR should be taken on him on the day of the procedure and the number should not be more than one, true or false?
True
122
All patients who are going to have a procedure should not take anti-coagulation or any blood thinners like warfarin or any aspirin contain medications, fish oil antifactor 10 medications, true or false?
True
123
Normal PT is:
12-13 seconds
124
What are the two tests that are nonspecific indicators of inflammation in the body?
ESR
| C-reactive protien
125
What is the normal range count of white blood cells?
4,500-10,000 per microliter
126
What does wbc differential mean?
It means the percentage of each type of white blood cells found in the blood
127
Mention six categories included in the white blood cell differential and the percentage of the three most dominant ones
1neutrophils 40-60%
2. lymphocytes (b/t cells) 20-40%
3. Monocytes 2-8%
4. Eosinophils 1-4%
5. Basophils .5-1%
6. Bands (young neutrophils) 0-3%
128
Leukopenia is...
Low white blood cell count
129
High white blood cell count is indicative of ______ and/or ________
Infection or leukemia
130
Mention for conditions that cause leukopenia
Bone marrow disease, some leukemias, HIV, chemo
131
Knowing the white blood cell differential is important, because depending on the category that is increased or decreased, you can lead the position into a more accurate differential diagnosis, true or false?
True
132
What is the normal level of hemoglobin for men and for women
Men: 13.5 g/dl
Women: 12g/dl
133
What's hemocrit?
Hemocrit is the proportion of red blood cells in the total blood volume
134
Normal hemocrit for men and women are, respectively:
40-50% for men and
| 35-45% for women
135
People living in high altitude's are expected to have a lower hemoglobin than others, true or false?
False. People living in higher altitudes have higher hemoglobin than people who live in low altitude's.
136
Anemia is accompanied by a decrease in red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, true or false?
True
137
What is hemoglobin and where is it found?
It is in oxygen-carrying protein. It is found in red blood cells.
138
Pollycythemia Vera
A disease characterized by an increase of red blood cells
139
Two diseases that can change the shape of red blood cells are:
Sickle cell anemia and pernicious anemia
140
Normal number of red blood cells is:
4-6 million per cubic mm
141
The scientific term used for red blood cells is
Erythrocytes
142
The scientific term used for white blood cells is
Leukocytes
143
____________ are the most common type of blood cells.
Erythrocytes
144
Normal platelet level is
150,000-400,000 per microliter
145
What happens if there are less than normal numbers of platelets?
A person does not clot and uncontrolled bleeding may become a problem
146
Platelets are the largest type of blood cells, true or false
False. Platelets are tiny, and the smallest type of blood cell
147
What happens if there are more than the normal number of platelets?
Clotting. The potential for thrombus
148
CBC stands for and includes
```
Complete blood count and includes values from a multitude of tests including
Red blood cell count
white blood cell count w:differential
Hemoglobin
Hematocrit
5 platelet count
```
149
What are the four vital signs?
1. Temp
2. Pulse rate
3. Respiratory rate
4. Blood pressure
150
What is the organ that regulates body temperature?
The hypothalamus which is located at the base of the brain
151
What does the body do when the hypothalamus sense is a heat level above the set point?
It will be begin to bring blood to the surface of the skin as a flush, produce sweat to cool the body,
152
What does the body do when the hypothalamus senses a heat level below the set point?
It begins to generate heat through shivering
153
Mention five reasons that cause body temperature to fluctuate
```
Infection
Exercise
Ovulation
Time of day ( highest in evening)
Teething
```
154
On the day of ovulation, body temperature is 1° less, true or false?
False. On the day of ovulation body temperature is 1° more
155
Temperature below normal is called
Hypothermia
156
Temperature above normal is called
Hyperthermia
157
What's fever? What is the other name for fever? What number on the thermometer reflects a fever?
A fever is another name for hyperthermia. The body's temperature rises above 99° for a prolonged period this made happen acutely or slowly. Should the temperature rise over 107° brain cell death occurs.
158
Febrile seizures in children often develop into epilepsy, true or false?
False this theory is as of yet unproven.
159
What is the definition of fever of unknown origin:
A prolonged incidence of hyperthermia of 101 with several spikes a week over 3 consecutive weeks which, despite inpatient investigation, has no known cause.
160
Normal temperature in Fahrenheit and Celsius for humans:
Oral: 97-99 degrees F
36-37.5C
Axillary temp 96.5-98.5 F
35.5-37C
Rectal: 97.5-99.5F
36.5-38C
161
Mention all the sites for body temp taking
```
Mouth
Armpit
Rectal
Ear
Forehead
```
162
What is the safest method of taking a temp?
| What is the most reliable?
Safest: armpit- just not super reliable.
Most accurate: rectal- super unpleasant, but the core body temp.
163
What is the range of normal pulse?
Adult: 60-100 bpm
Child: 100-120 bpm
Infant: 120-140 bpm
164
Name all the sites of detecting pulse and know where each one is located
1. Temporal- anterior to the superior portion of the ear
2. Carotid- anterior portion of the kneck
3. Apical - base of the heart
4. Radial- base of the thumb, lateral side of the lower arm
5. Ulnar- at the medial side of the lower arm
6. Brachial – in the group between the biceps and triceps above the elbow at the antecubital fossa
7. Femoral – in the medial groin region
8. Popliteal- at the posterior aspect of the knee
9. Posterior tibial – posterior to the medial ankle
10. Dorsalis pedis – on the dorsal surface of the foot
165
Which side is the most common site for measuring pulse rate?
The radial artery is the most common site for measuring pulse rate
166
What are the three characteristics you have to evaluate when measuring pulse rate?
Pulse Rate
Pulse Rhythm
Volume
Any variations
167
Abnormal rhythm is called
Arrhythmia
168
Abnormal rhythm is described by patients as having__________ or _______.
Palpitations/skipped beats
169
BPM stands for
Beats per minute
170
Mention five causes of an irregular rhythm
1. Strenuous exercise
2. Fever
3. Pain
4. Coronary artery disease
5. Injury from heart attack
171
Weak or thready pulse is seen in
Bradycardia- seen in Hemorrhagic shock
172
Bounding pulse is seen in
Tachycardia- seen in fever
173
If someone has greater than 100 bpm this is called
HTN
174
If someone has less than 60 bpm this is called
Hypotension
175
Mention four causes that might affect pulse rate
1 Exercise
2 Emotional state
3 drugs
4 build
176
If the blood pressure is low, what happens to the pulse rate?
With low blood pressure, The pulse rate is rapid
177
If blood pressure is high, what happens to the pulse rate?
If the blood pressure is high, The pulse rate is slower
178
The patient's pulse reflects the amount of blood eject it with each heartbeat, true or false
False. The pulse reflects the amount of BPM's
179
Pulse oximetry measures_________. The normal number is______
Oxygen saturation
| High 90's is normal (96-100)
180
Nail polish can give an incorrect reading on the pulse oximeter, true or false?
True. The pulse ox monitor works on wavelengths of light, polish can displace this
181
External respiration is:
Refers to the delivery of O2 to the lungs capillaries during inhalation and releasing carbon dioxide by exhalation
182
Internal respiration is::
A metabolic process during which oxygen is released to tissues and carbon dioxide is absorbed by the blood. it occurs at the level of cells
183
What are the four characteristics you evaluate when you measure breathing?
1 rate
2 rhythm
3. Character
4. Depth
184
Normal breathing rate is
16-20 breaths per min (adults)
20-30 children
35+ for infants
185
Ratio of respirations to heart rate is
1:4
186
Shallow breathing can cause
Hypoxia
187
Normal breathing is______, ________, __________.
1. Quiet
2. Effortless
3. Regular
188
What are five factors that might influence the rate breathing?
1. Exercise
2. Pathology or Disease
3. Emotional state
4. Age
5. Temp
189
Pulse rate is measured for 30 seconds and multiplied by two. If irregular rhythm is observed, measure pulse rate for one whole minute, true or false?
True
190
What is Dyspnea
Trouble breathing
191
What is apnea
Cessation of breathing for periods of time this may be intermittent before the breath resumes again
192
Tachypnea, what is it
Literally rapid breathing
193
What is hyperventilation?
Hyperventilation, frequently seen in hysteria, is when the blood oxygen/co2 balance becomes disturbed. This is due to long deep breath's rapidly taken over a period of time
194
Blood pressure is the product of these three factors
1. Intensity of the contraction of the heart ventricle
2. The amount of blood being pumped out of the heart
3. Resistance of blood vessels to heart flow
195
Normal blood pressure is
Below 120/80
196
The first number of blood pressure which is the higher number is the ________, and the second number is the ______ pressure
Systolic, and diastolic
197
Elevated BP is called________, and it happens when blood pressure measurement is equal or higher then _______.
Hypertension or HTN
| >90
198
When blood pressure is below______, it is called______
80/50
| hypotension
199
Isolated increased systolic hypertension is common in the elderly do to hardening of the arteries true or false?
True.
200
Mention five factors that might affect blood pressure
1. Age
2. Activity
3. Emotions
4. Gender
5. Pathology/disease
201
The device we used to measure blood pressure is called_________, The unit of blood pressure is _______
A sphygmomanometer
| Mm of mercury, written mm Hg
202
Is stethoscope is needed to measure blood pressure using the mercury and android systems, so you can listen to the artery's pulsation, true or false?
True
203
A stethoscope is needed to measure blood pressure using the electronic system, true or false?
False. the stethoscope is not needed to measure blood pressure using the electronic system
204
An inflatable ________ is wrapped around the patient's arm when measuring blood pressure.
Cuff
205
When you squeeze the _______, it inflates the ______ with air. When this is inflated, it obstructs of the ________ artery.
1. Bulb
2. Cuff
3. Brachial
206
When you need to lower pressure in the cuff, you slowly loosen the _______
Valve.
