Practice Test Questions Flashcards by Christina Troyer

The complete blood count (CBC) is a test used to evaluate overall health and detect a wide range of disorders, including anemia and infection. It is an analysis of the blood that consists of a red blood count, white blood count, a differential white blood count and hemoglobin and hemocrit measurements. One way to determine hemocrit is to place blood in a tube and spin the tube in a centrifuge, thereby separating the blood components. Which of the following is a false statement with regard to the hemocrit and rbcs?
A) the red blood cells account for the same percentage of the total blood volume in males and females
B) abnormal hematocrit may be an indication of anemia
C)the hematocrit is the percentage of total blood volume composed of red blood cells
D) when blood is centrifuged, white blood cells and platelets rest on the red blood cells
E) when blood is centrifuged, plasma is found at the top of the tube

A) the red blood cells account for the same percentage of the total blood volume in males and females

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The extent to which the ventricular walls are stretched is called the …
When this is increased, the result is an increase in…
A) afterload, stroke volume
B) ventricular ejection, the number of cross bridges formed
C) venous return, the afterload
D) preload, cardiac output

D) preload, cardiac output

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Control of blood gases is important for maintaining homeostasis. With regard to blood gas control, choose the statement that is false
A) respiratory acidosis can lead to increase PCO2 in the plasma
B) central chemoreceptors respond to CO2 changes in the extracellular fluid in the brain
C) all of the choices are true. None are false
D) peripheral chemoreceptors respond to H+, O2 and CO2 changes in arterial blood
E) control centers in medulla oblongata and pons adjust rate and depth of breathing to compensate for changes in blood gases

C) all of the choices are true. None are false

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are true with regard to breathing?
A) all of the choices are true
B) the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract when stimulated by afferent nerves
C) inspiration is initiated by action potentials from the DRG
D) the vagus nerve innervates the diaphragm
E) the VRG is located in the pons in front of the DRG

C) inspiration is initiated by action potentials from the DRG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Prednisone is a steroid that reduces inflammation and is prescribed to treat conditions such as autoimmune diseases. It produces aldosterone like effects in the kidney. Predict the effect of prednisone treatment on blood pressure and blood volume
A) none of the choices are correct
B) decrease blood pressure, dec blood volume
C) dec blood pressure, inc blood volume
D) increase blood pressure, inc blood volume
E) inc blood pressure, Dec blood volume

D) increase blood pressure, inc blood volume

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Whole blood can be divided into two portions: the cellular portion and the plasma portion.
Plasma donation centers often pay $50-$75 per donation. During a plasma-only donation, blood is removed from the donor’s arm and run through an automated process that removes the plasma portion from the blood. The remaining red blood cells and platelets are then returned to the donor’s arm with a small amount of saline to maintain the overall volume. This allows a donor to give more plasma than they would during a regular blood donation and to donate more frequently. The ideal blood type for plasma donations are AB+ and AB-. AB is the universal blood type and can be given to patients with any blood type. Plasma is critical in trauma care, where there’s often not enough time to test blood type prior to transfusion. Which of the following is true regarding blood plasma?
A. Proteins that are found in the plasma portion of the blood include albumin, fibrinogen and globulins
B. The plasma portion of the blood contains platelets
C. The plasma portion of the blood is a larger component of the blood than the cellular portion of the blood.
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

D. A and C only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The liver produces albumin and then secretes it into the bloodstream. Albumin makes up 50% of the proteins found in your plasma. Hypoalbuminemia happens when your body doesn’t produce enough of the albumin protein, or when you lose too much albumin in your urine or stool. Considering the functions of albumin in the body, what are some plausible effects of hypoalbuminemia?
A. Swelling (often in the feet or legs)
B. Disruption of hormone transport
C. Ascites, which is the abnormal build-up of fluid in the abdomen.
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When comparing pressures in the vascular system, which has the lowest pressure (in mmHg)?
A. Capillaries
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Arterioles
E. None of the above. Pressures the same in all of the blood vessels

B. Veins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the heart, norepinephrine and epinephrine
A. usually bind to the M2 receptor
B. decrease cardiac output
C. causes K+ to exit cardiac myocytes, resulting in membrane hyperpolarization
D. facilitate the opening of Na+ and Ca++ slow channels
E. none of the above

D. facilitate the opening of Na+ and Ca++ slow channels

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the course of an average lifetime, your heart is likely to beat more than two and a half billion times, without ever pausing to rest. The strength of beating can be altered by
A. autonomic inputs
B. endocrine (hormonal) inputs
C. increased stretch (longer sarcomere length, up to a limit)
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Angina is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerin is a compound which is given to people who have documented coronary artery blockage or suspected chest pain due to angina. Nitroglycerin causes the relaxation of vascular smooth muscles, causing arteriolar and venous dilatation. It increases blood flow to the myocardium and reduces cardiac preload and afterload, decreasing myocardial wall stress and ameliorating anginal symptoms. Nitroglycerin forms free radical nitric oxide (NO) which activates guanylate cyclase, resulting in an increase of guanosine 3’5’ monophosphate (cyclic GMP) in smooth muscle and other tissues.
Which of the following can bring about arteriole vasodilation?
A. Active hyperemia
B. Epinephrine binding to β2 adrenergic receptors
C. Flow autoregulation
D. A, B and C
E. Only A and C

D. A, B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The effects of exercise on the cardiovascular system may include
A. a significant increase in cardiac output
B. a significant increase in systolic arterial pressure
C. a relatively stable diastolic arterial pressure
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The right and left coronary arteries supply blood to your heart. They’re the first branches off the aorta, which is the main artery in your body. These arteries and their branches supply all parts of the heart muscle with blood. They make it possible for your heart to beat and pump blood throughout your body. Coronary artery disease (CAD) occurs if these arteries clog and don’t deliver enough blood to your heart. Which of the following is NOT necessary to calculate blood flow?
A. Hemoglobin saturation
B. Fluid viscosity
C. Inside radius of the blood vessel
D. Change in pressure
E. Resistance

A. Hemoglobin saturation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A heart murmur is a blowing, whooshing, or rasping sound heard during a heartbeat. The sound is caused by turbulent (rough) blood flow through the heart valves or near the heart. Murmurs can happen for many reasons, such as: when a valve does not close tightly and blood leaks backward (regurgitation) or when blood flows through a narrowed or stiff heart valve (stenosis). Regarding valves, which is NOT matched correctly?
A. Mitral (bicuspid) valve: between left atrium and left ventricle
B. Tricuspid valve: between right atrium and right ventricle
C. Aortic valve: between left ventricle and the aorta
D. Pulmonary valve: between right and pulmonary artery
E. None of the above. They are all correctly matched.

E. None of the above. They are all correctly matched.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

There are advantages of having two completely separate systems: systemic and pulmonary circulation. We do not want too much pressure in our lungs. Fluid could leak out of blood vessels into the lungs, resulting in Pulmonary edema. With regard to pressure and volume, which of the following is matched incorrectly?
A. Diastolic pressure: the pressure observed between ventricular contractions
B. Afterload: left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP); is the amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole.
C. EDV (end diastolic volume): volume of blood in ventricle after filling phase
D. The atrial pressure: remains relatively low in comparison to the aortic pressure during the cardiac cycle
E. The ventricular pressure: increases significantly during the cardiac cycle

B. Afterload: left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP); is the amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The vagus nerve is the longest of the cranial nerve. Its name is derived from Latin meaning “wandering”. True to its name, the vagus nerve wanders from the brain stem through organs in the neck, thorax and abdomen. The vagus nerve is responsible for the regulation of internal organ functions, such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate, as well as certain reflex actions, such as coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting, and vasomotor activity. Vasomotor refers to actions upon a blood vessel which alter its diameter. It can refer to vasodilator action and vasoconstrictor action.
In the heart,
A. if the vagus nerve is overactive, it can lead to stronger contractions faster heart rate and increased blood pressure
B. a substance released by the vagus nerve is acetylcholine
C. drugs that inhibit the muscarinic receptors (anticholinergics, such as atropine) inhibit the action of the vagus nerve on the heart.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only

E. B and C only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Neuroscientist Otto Loewi first demonstrated that nerves secrete substances called neurotransmitters. In his experiment, Loewi electrically stimulated the vagus nerve of a frog heart. Then he took the fluid from the heart and transferred it to a second frog heart without a vagus nerve and observed the response. Loewi described the substance released by the vagus nerve as vagusstoff (translated from German as “Vagus Substance”). It refers to the substance released by stimulation of the vagus nerve .
Which of the following is (are) mostly likely to be true?
A. the response Loewi observed in the second frog heart was bradycardia
B. vagusstoff is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
C. vagusstoff is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine
D. the response Loewi observed in the second frog heart was tachycardia
E. both A and B

E. both A and B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over a minute be calculated using which information?
A. stroke volume and heart rate
B. stoke volume and circulating blood volume
C. change in aortic pressure and total peripheral resistance
D. heart rate and total plasma volume
E. none of the above

A. stroke volume and heart rate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) occurs when a blood clot (thrombus) forms in one or more of the deep veins in the body, usually in the legs. Deep vein thrombosis can cause leg pain or swelling. A blood clot in the legs can also develop if you don’t move for a long time. For example, you might not move a lot when traveling a long distance or when you’re on bed rest. DVT can be serious because blood clots in the veins can break loose. The clots can then travel through the bloodstream and get stuck in the lungs, blocking blood flow and thereby causing a pulmonary embolism (PE). PE can cause a lack of blood flow that leads to lung tissue damage and low blood oxygen levels that can also damage other organs in the body. A PE, particularly a large PE or many clots, can quickly cause serious life-threatening problems and even death.
Which of the following play a major role in normal blood clotting?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Platelets
D. A, B and C
E. A and C only

D. A, B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Leaving the left ventricle of the heart, the blood passes through the____and then enters the _____
A. Semilunar valve, aorta
B. AV valve, superior vena cava
C. AV valve, aorta
D. AV valve, left pulmonary veins
E. Semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries

A. Semilunar valve, aorta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is the proper order of the components of the electrical activity of the heart?
A. AV node —SA node—Bundle of His—Purkinje fibers
B. SA node —Bundle of His — AV node—Purkinje fibers
C. SA node —AV node — Bundle of His—Purkinje fibers
D. Purkinje fibers —SA node —AV node—atria
E. AV node — atria—Purkinje fibers —Bundle of His

C. SA node —AV node — Bundle of His—Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Depolarization in the cardiac muscle results from
A. An influx of sodium, and a decrease in K+ permeability
B. Direct simulation by the thoracic nerves
C. The opening of funny channels
D. An influx of calcium and an increase in K+ permeability
E. The contraction of the SA node

A. An influx of sodium, and a decrease in K+ permeability

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is mainly responsible for the delay between the atrial and ventricular contractions?
A. the shallow slope of the SA node pacemaker potentials
B. the slow action potential conduction velocity of AV node cells
C. the slow action potential conduction velocity along atrial muscle cell membranes
D. greater parasympathetic nerve firing to the ventricles than to the atria
E. the slow action potential conduction in the Purkinje network of the ventricles

B. the slow action potential conduction velocity of AV node cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following correctly describe events during an action potential in the SA node?
A. the initial, gradual rise in membrane potential is due in part to the continuous decrease in permeability to potassium.
B. the influx of calcium both initiates and sustains the depolarization phase of the action potential
C. there is a very sudden rise in the peak of the action potential which is due to the opening of Na+ channels
D. A and B only
E. A, B and C

D. A and B only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The exchange of substances across capillary walls is affected by A. the rate and amount of blood flow B. the diffusion of substances along their concentration gradient C. the pressure of the blood in comparison to the pressure of the interstitial fluid D. A and B only E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

Which of the following pairs an ECG phase with the corresponding cardiac event? A. P wave: depolarization of the ventricles B. P wave: depolarization of the AV node C. QRS wave: repolarization of the ventricles D.T wave: repolarization of the atria E. None of the above

E. None of the above

Long QT syndrome is a heart rhythm condition that can potentially cause fast, chaotic heartbeats. These rapid heartbeats might trigger a sudden fainting spell (syncope). Long QT syndrome can arise from mutations that tend to lengthen the QT interval (as recorded on an ECG), which delays the repolarization of the heart. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for how a mutation could cause long QT syndrome? A. The mutation could prolong the duration of the ventricular action potential B. The mutation could disrupt atrial depolarization, and manifest as multiple P waves on an ECG C. The mutation could cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) D. All of the above E. None of the above

A. The mutation could prolong the duration of the ventricular action potential

Which of the following correctly describe events during an action potential in the cardiac muscle? A. The initial, gradual rise in membrane potential is due in part to the continuous increase in permeability to potassium. B. The rapid influx of calcium is responsible for the initial depolarization phase of the action potential C. There is a very sudden rise to the threshold level, which is due to the opening of K+ channels D. Sodium channels remain open for a fairly long time. This accounts for the plateau in the action potential E. None of the above

E. None of the above

At the arteriole end of a capillary bed A. the pressure of the blood is lower that the pressure of the interstitial fluid B. the pressure of the blood is higher than the pressure of the interstitial fluid C. water and small solutes are being forces into the capillaries due to hydrostatic pressure D. fluid is being pulled back into the blood E. None of the above

B. the pressure of the blood is higher than the pressure of the interstitial fluid

Lymphoma is a broad term for cancer that begins in cells of the lymph system. The two main types are Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Hodgkin lymphoma can often be cured. In addition to cancer, abnormal lymph system functioning can cause other problems. What will be the likely long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed? A. more fluid entering the venous capillaries B. fewer proteins leaking out of the blood to enter the interstitial fluid C. the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas D. the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small E. none of the above

C. the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas

As red blood cells break down glucose for energy, they produce BPG (2,3, biphosphoglycerate). BPG binds to hemoglobin and increases its ability to release oxygen. Increased levels of BPG__ A. would have no effect on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve B. would cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift right C. would cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift in the same direction as an increase in pH D. would cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift left E. would cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift in the same direction as a decrease in temperature

B. would cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift right

Air moves into the mammalian lung in response to _______ and oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood in response to _____________ A. lower than atmospheric pressure in the alveoli; lower partial pressure of oxygen in the blood than in the alveoli B. negative pressure in the abdominal cavity; active transport C. negative pressure in the intrapleural space; higher partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli than in the blood D. lower volume in the lung than in the air; higher partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere than in the lung E. lower concentration in the alveoli than in the air; opening of voltage gated channels

A. lower than atmospheric pressure in the alveoli; lower partial pressure of oxygen in the blood than in the alveoli

Which is the proper sequence of events during exhalation? A. diaphragm moves down (contracts), rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure B. diaphragm relaxes (moves up), rib cage gets smaller, decrease in lung volume, increase in pressure C. diaphragm flattens, rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure D. external intercostal muscles contract, ribs pulled upward, decrease in lung volume, decrease in pressure E. None of the above

B. diaphragm relaxes (moves up), rib cage gets smaller, decrease in lung volume, increase in pressure

What are two different contributions to lowering your pH when it has become too high? A. Increasing ventilation rate; secreting more H+ into stomach B. Increasing depth and rate of breathing; losing more bicarbonate ions in urine C. Decreasing intestinal motility; increasing insulin levels D. Decreasing ventilation rate; losing more bicarbonate ions in urine E. Reabsorbing more sodium from the nephron while producing more urine.

D. Decreasing ventilation rate; losing more bicarbonate ions in urine

Which of the following is (are) true with regard to breathing? A. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract when stimulated by afferent nerves B. Inspiration is initiated by action potentials from the DRG C. The vagus nerve mainly innervates the diaphragm D. The VRG is located in the pons, in front of the DRG E. All of the above

B. Inspiration is initiated by action potentials from the DRG

Which of the following corresponds to the point at which Pip= -7mmHg during normal breathing? A. the peak of inspiration B. when Patm=Palv C. when the chest wall is no longer expanding D. A and B only E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

Control of blood gases is important for maintaining homeostasis. With regard to blood gas control, choose the statement that is false. A. Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to H+, O2 and CO2 changes in arterial blood B. Control centers in medulla oblongata and pons adjust rate and depth of breathing to compensate for changes in blood gases C. Central chemoreceptors respond to CO2 changes in the extracellular fluid in the brain D. Respiratory acidosis can lead to increased PCO2 in the plasma E. All of the above are true

E. All of the above are true

Which of the following occurs when your diaphragm contracts? A. Intra-abdominal pressure increases B. Diameter of bronchioles decreases C. Intrapleural pressure drops (from -4 mmHg to -7mm Hg) D. Alveolar pressure rises from zero to plus 7 mmHg E. Diameter of trachea increases

C. Intrapleural pressure drops (from -4 mmHg to -7mm Hg)

The partial pressure gradients established between the alveolar air and the pulmonary capillary blood induce passive diffusion of O2 and CO2. What is the partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the alveolar sacs and which way does each gas diffuse in the lungs? A. PO2= 100; PCO2=40; O2 diffuses into the blood, CO2 diffuses out of the blood B. PO2= 160; PCO2=46; O2 diffuses into the blood, CO2 diffuses out of the blood C. PO2= 40; PCO2=46; O2 diffuses out of the blood, CO2 diffuses into the blood D. PO2= 120; PCO2=46; O2 diffuses out of the blood, CO2 diffuses into the blood E. None of the above

A. PO2= 100; PCO2=40; O2 diffuses into the blood, CO2 diffuses out of the blood

Arterial PCO2 is the most important input regulating the magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. An increase in arterial PCO2 stimulates chemoreceptors to initiate an increase in ventilation so that the excess CO2 is exhaled into the atmosphere. But the central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, do not monitor CO2 itself. Rather, these chemoreceptors are directly stimulated by H+ concentrations in the brain ECF (extracelluar fluid) which surrounds them. However, unlike CO2, H+ cannot readily permeate the blood brain barrier (BBB), so H+ in the blood plasma cannot gain access to the central chemoreceptors. Considering these circumstances, how can the central chemoreceptors be stimulated by H+? A. High levels of CO2 in the blood react with excess alveolar oxygen, which increases H+ transport to the ECF B. High levels of CO2 in the blood cause it to diffuse down its concentration gradient and across the BBB, where it reacts with water to produce carbonic acid, which dissociates to bicarbonate and H+ C. Hypoxic levels of O2 in the alveolar air decrease the rate and depth of breathing, which stimulates the baroreceptive reflex, bypassing the need for H+ to bind to central chemoreceptors. D. High levels of CO2 induce metabolic alkalosis, which greatly increases the blood pH, creating an extremely high concentration of H+ which enables it to cross the BBB and react with chemoreceptors. E. None of the above

B. High levels of CO2 in the blood cause it to diffuse down its concentration gradient and across the BBB, where it reacts with water to produce carbonic acid, which dissociates to bicarbonate and H+

Pleurisy is a condition that causes chest pain that worsens during breathing. It results from inflammation of the membranes that surround the lungs and can be caused by a viral infection. Which of the following are functions of the pleural membranes and/or pleural cavity? A. The pleural cavity transmits movements of the ribs muscles to the lungs, particularly during heavy breathing B. The fluid filled space of the pleural cavity allows the lungs to move without abrasion C. Negative pressure in intra-pleural space keeps lungs in contact with chest wall D. Both A and B E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

Chronic renal failure is caused by a decrease in the number of functional nephrons in the kidney. Which of the following are plausible consequences of chronic renal failure? A. dysregulation of blood pressure and blood volume control B. ionic imbalances that would affect the nervous system C. development of acidosis because the kidney is not able to effectively secrete H+ D. improper regulation of water and Na+ that could lead to edema (swelling) E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Which of the following is correctly paired? A. collecting duct: responsive to ADH B. descending loop of Henle: permeable to Na+ and Cl- C. distal tubule: region where salt and water is usually secreted D. proximal convoluted tubule: region where NH3 and H+ is usually reabsorbed E. all of the above

A. collecting duct: responsive to ADH

Glucose is usually completely reabsorbed from the filtrate by the time the filtrate has reached A. the end of the proximal convoluted tubule B. the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule C. the Bowman capsule D. the end of the collecting duct E. the ascending Loop of Henle

A. the end of the proximal convoluted tubule

Increased aldosterone causes A. decreased reabsorption of Cl- B. increased permeability of the distal convoluted tubule to water C. increased reabsorption of Na+ D. increased volume of urine E. all of the above

C. increased reabsorption of Na+

Which of the following is a false statement? A. aldosterone increases the volume of fluid in the body B. renin triggers angiotensin production C. atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) stimulates the release of aldosterone D. angiotensin stimulates arteriole constriction E. angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by ACE

C. atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) stimulates the release of aldosterone

The pH of urine and consequently, the pH of blood, are regulated in the nephron. Exactly how this occurs depends upon the pH state of the individual. A person with a diet high in fruits and vegetables and little or no animal protein is typically in an “alkaline state”. A person with a diet that includes animal protein and wheat (a typical American diet) is generally in an “acidic state”. How does the kidney react when the blood is acidic? A. Na+/H+ pumps transport Na+ from the tubule cells into the filtrate cells, and transports H+ from the filtrate into the tubule cells. B. Newly synthesized HCO3- is reabsorbed into the blood, and H+ is secreted into the filtrate and eliminated in the urine C. More HCO3- and HPO42- is reabsorbed into the filtrate, where it reacts with excess H+ D. Less HCO3- will be reabsorbed into the blood and more will excreted in the urine E. None of the above

B. Newly synthesized HCO3- is reabsorbed into the blood, and H+ is secreted into the filtrate and eliminated in the urine

Prednisone is a steroid that reduces inflammation and is prescribed to treat conditions such as autoimmune diseases. It produces aldosterone-like affects in the kidney. Predict the effect of prednisone treatment on blood pressure and blood volume. A. increase blood pressure; increase blood volume B. decrease blood pressure; increase blood volume C. decrease blood pressure; decrease blood volume D. increase blood pressure; decrease blood volume E. none of the above

A. increase blood pressure; increase blood volume

The juxtaglomerular cells of the _____ and the macula densa cells of the ____ form the juxtaglomerular apparatus. A. afferent arteriole; proximal tubule B. afferent arteriole; distal tubule C. efferent arteriole; proximal tubule D. efferent arteriole; distal tubule E. none of the above

B. afferent arteriole; distal tubule

Angiotensin II ___ A. causes vasodilation B. inhibits aldosterone secretion C. inhibits ADH secretion D. all of the above E. None of the above

E. None of the above

The consumption of a large amount of water in a very short period of time, coupled with the absence of solute intake can reduce sodium levels in the blood below tolerable levels. This condition, called hyponatremia, has caused death of a fraternity pledge as a consequence of a water hazing ritual. From what part(s) of the nephron is sodium usually reabsorbed? A. proximal and distal tubules B. descending limb of loop of Henle C. ascending limb of loop of Henle D. both A and B E. both A and C

E. both A and C

In the kidney, what would be the effect(s) if blood pressure in the afferent arteriole is decreased? A. the blood pressure in the efferent arteriole would increase to offset it B. there would be a reduction in the force driving water and solutes across the membranes of the glomerular capillaries, which would result in a reduction of glomerular filtration rate C. the blood would be held up in the glomerulus longer, leading to an increased glomerular filtration rate D. both A and B E. none of the above

B. there would be a reduction in the force driving water and solutes across the membranes of the glomerular capillaries, which would result in a reduction of glomerular filtration rate

The osmolarity of human urine A. can be significantly greater than the normal osmolarity of human plasma. B. is always exactly equal to plasma osmolarity. C. is always less than plasma osmolarity. D. is determined primarily by the concentration of glucose E. None of the above

A. can be significantly greater than the normal osmolarity of human plasma.

ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of the following ways? A. ADH stimulates diuresis and RAAS stimulates natriuresis. B. ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of water, and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ reabsorption. C. ADH and RAAS work antagonistically; ADH stimulates water reabsorption during dehydration and RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is in excess in body fluids. D. Both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, which increases both blood volume and pressure via receptors in the urinary bladder. E. Both A and B

B. ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of water, and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ reabsorption.

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle all have A. transverse tubules. B. gap junctions. C. motor units. D. thick and thin filaments. E. none of the above

D. thick and thin filaments.

skeletal muscle with abnormally low levels of calcium ions would be directly impaired in A. initiating contraction B. the initiation of an action potential. C. ATP hydrolysis. D. its ability to sustain glycolysis. E. none of the above

A. initiating contraction

The muscles of a recently deceased human can remain in a contracted state, termed rigor mortis, for several hours, due to the lack of A. phosphorylated actin. B. calcium ions needed to bind to troponin C. ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds. D. oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin. E. sodium ions needed to fire action potentials.

C. ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds.

Fast anaerobic muscle fibers fatigue_______ than fast aerobic fibers. Thus, endurance training can convert fast muscle fibers from ____ to _____. A. more slowly, anaerobic to aerobic B. more rapidly, anaerobic to aerobic C. more rapidly, aerobic to anaerobic D. more rapidly, postural to anaerobic E. more slowly, slow oxidative to fast glycolytic

B. more rapidly, anaerobic to aerobic

At the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle, which neurotransmitter binds to which receptor? A. Acetylcholine binds to the M2 receptor B. Epinephrine binds to the β andrenergic receptor C. Acetylcholine binds to the muscarinic receptor D. Acetylcholine binds to the nicotinic receptor E. Norepinephrine binds to the nicotinic receptor

D. Acetylcholine binds to the nicotinic receptor

The force of a skeletal muscle contraction is affected by A. recruitment B. the types of muscle fibers utilized C. re-stimulation of a muscle fiber before it relaxes, resulting in summation D. A and B only E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

In a skeletal muscle cell, calcium triggers a contraction in the following way: A. Calcium binds to calmodulin, activating an enzyme that phosphorylates myosin cross bridges, so they can bind to actin filaments B. Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move away from myosin binding sites, so myosin cross bridges can bind to actin filaments C. Calcium binds to calmodulin, activating an enzyme that phosphorylates actin cross bridges, so they can bind to myosin filaments D. Calcium binds to tropomyosin causing troponin to move away from actin binding sites so actin cross bridges can bind to myosin filaments E. Calcium binds to myosin cross bridges so the cross bridges can bind to actin filaments

B. Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move away from myosin binding sites, so myosin cross bridges can bind to actin filaments

The arrector pili muscle is a small muscle attached to hair follicles in mammals. Contraction of these muscles are responsible for making the hair follicles stand on end, causing a phenomenon known as “goose bumps.” This muscle is seen as vestigial in humans since the purpose of the muscle is to alert mammals that they are scared or cold, in which they have enough hair to trap warm air. Which of the following most likely describes the arrector pili muscle? A. Involuntary, Smooth B. Voluntary, Skeletal C. Involuntary, Cardiac D. Voluntary, Smooth E. Involuntary, Skeletal

A. Involuntary, Smooth

Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence. (1) An action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule. (2) Calcium ions bind to troponin. (3) The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions. (4) Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril. (5) The troponin-tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites. A. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 E. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

B. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

. A drug that interferes with the active transport of calcium ions from the sarcoplasm back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum would result in A. relaxation of the muscle fiber. B. contraction with no relaxation. C. muscle hypertrophy. D. fibrosis of the muscle. E. an imbalance of blood calcium.

B. contraction with no relaxation.

During short periods of intense exercise (such as sprinting for 1 minute), energy in muscles is primarily derived from A. aerobic respiration. B. anaerobic respiration. C. creatine phosphate breakdown. D. nuclear reactions. E. both anaerobic respiration and creatine phosphate breakdown.

E. both anaerobic respiration and creatine phosphate breakdown.

Actin filaments are stabilized by actin binding proteins known as actinins (of which there are two main types, type 2 and type 3). ACTN3, known more commonly as the “speed gene,” is a gene in humans that encodes the protein alpha-actinin-3. This specific protein helps to anchor and stabilize the actin filaments of a myofibril within a fast muscle fiber. Many athletes, especially sprinters, have been observed to have at least one copy of this gene. Looking at the different types of muscle fibers, which characteristic is NOT representative of a fast-twitch fiber? A. High concentration of glycogen B. Low anaerobic capacity C. Fast myosin-ATPase activity D. Capable of undergoing conversion E. None of the above

B. Low anaerobic capacity

In the heart, an increase in the preload A. increases cardiac output B. increases end diastolic volume C. may be due to increased venous return D. increases stroke volume E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following correctly ranks pressures during the ventricular ejection phase of a normal cardiac cycle? A. left ventricular>aortic>left atrial B. aortic>left atrial>left ventricular C. left atrial>aortic>left ventricular D. aortic>left ventricular>left atrial E. left atrial>left ventricular>aortic

A. left ventricular>aortic>left atrial

Exhausted by studying for his BIOL 216 exam, James falls asleep while writing practice multiple choice questions. Hours later, his alarm sounds and he is immediately awakened, feeling startled and disoriented. He immediately jumps out of bed and checks the time. In order for James to be able to rapidly leave his bed just moments after being asleep, which of the following events likely occurred? A. Release of epinephrine from the medulla oblongata B. Decreased substrate binding to beta-adrenergic receptors C. Increased stroke volume D. Increased permeability to Na+ and Ca2+ in the pacemaker cells of the SA node E. Decreased interaction between calcium and troponin

C. Increased stroke volume

Which of the following is not characteristic of the body’s capillaries? A. large total surface area B. small individual diameter C. high blood velocity D. thin walls E. highly branched

C. high blood velocity

Edema (or the accumulation of large amounts of interstitial fluid) is a primary symptom of the disease, elephantiasis (which is characterized by severe swelling of the arms and legs). What would be a likely cause of this disease? A. a lesion in the VRG B. obstruction of the lymphatic vessels C. skeletal muscle over-excitation (spasms) D. an increased rate and depth of breathing E. none of the above

B. obstruction of the lymphatic vessels

During the cardiac cycle, the atrial pressure A. Drops significantly (from about 80 to about 10mmHg) as the aorta begins to fill with blood B. Drops significantly (from about 120 to 80mmHg) as the ventricles begin to fill with blood C. Matches the aortic pressure throughout the course of the cardiac cycle D. Remains relatively low (below 20mmHg) throughout the course of the cardiac cycle E. Matches the ventricular pressure throughout the course of the cardiac cycle

D. Remains relatively low (below 20mmHg) throughout the course of the cardiac cycle

Varicose veins are veins that have become enlarged and twisted. They are usually found in the superficial veins of the legs, which are subject to high pressure when standing. Varicose veins can result from backwards blood flow which causes the veins to enlarge. Regarding the veins, _______ helps to return blood to the heart; and damage to _____ can lead to varicose veins. A. negative pressure, calcium channels B. gravity, M2 receptors C. the sphincter muscle, smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle; valves E. positive pressure; capillaries

D. skeletal muscle; valves

A patient with renal dysfunction (kidney disease) is found to have an abnormal amount of albumin in his urine. What effect is this likely to have within the capillaries? A. increased oncotic pressure B. increased hydrostatic pressure C. decreased oncotic pressure D. decreased hydrostatic pressure E. No likely effect

C. decreased oncotic pressure

Which of the following contains blood with the lowest oxygen content? A. aorta B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. pulmonary veins E. systemic arterioles

C. right ventricle

Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve fibers innervate the heart. Parasympathetic stimulation results in A. an increased Na+ and Ca2+ permeability B. a decreased Na+ and Ca2+ permeability C. a decreased potassium permeability D. Both A and B E. Both B and C

B. a decreased Na+ and Ca2+ permeability

If all other factors are equal, which of the following vessels would have the lowest resistance? A. length=1cm, radius=1cm B. length=4cm, radius=1cm C. length=8cm, radius=1cm D. length =1cm, radius =2cm E. length=0.5cm, radius=2cm

E. length=0.5cm, radius=2cm

In your heart calcium has a number of roles. Which of these is NOT a role of calcium in the heart? A. Calcium efflux results in repolarization which restores the membrane potential to the resting level. B. Inward flow of calcium contributes to pacemaker potentials in cells of SA node. C. High conductance to calcium contributes to long plateau (long duration) of cardiac muscle action potential. D. Inward flow of calcium into muscle cells triggers release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin to move tropomyosin away from cross-bridge binding sites.

A. Calcium efflux results in repolarization which restores the membrane potential to the resting level.

Why isn’t tetanus normally possible in cardiac muscle? A. The muscle cells are all electrically connected. B. The cross bridges are too slow to follow a high frequency of action potentials. C. The synapses are too slow to keep up with a high frequency of action potentials. D. The cardiac AP, and thus its refractory period, is nearly as long as the contraction. E. The supply of oxygen is limited, so the muscle fatigues with each contraction.

D. The cardiac AP, and thus its refractory period, is nearly as long as the contraction.

A patient is taking a drug that blocks β-adrenergic receptors. What changes in cardiac function would this drug likely cause? A. decreased heart rate B. decreased contractility C. inhibition of parasympathetic stimulation to the heart D. A and B E. A, B and C

D. A and B

Which is false about L-type calcium channels in cardiac ventricular muscle cells? A. They are open during the plateau of the action potential B. They allow calcium entry that triggers sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release C. They open in response to depolarization of the membrane D. They contribute to the pacemaker potential by opening and closing quickly E. They are important in sustaining an action potential

D. They contribute to the pacemaker potential by opening and closing quickly

In the ambulance, Tom’s EKG initially indicated he had a right bundle branch block (RBBB). Later that night, in the PICU, the EKG indicated that he had some premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). What is true of both of these conditions? A. Often a RBBB and PVCs are benign, and may even be found in otherwise healthy hearts. B. They are both characterized by the absence of the P wave C. They are both indicative of tachycardia, which is defined as an abnormally slow heart rate D. They are both characterized by the absence of the T wave E. They are both indicative of bradycardia, which is defined as an abnormally fast heart rate

A. Often a RBBB and PVCs are benign, and may even be found in otherwise healthy hearts.

The term white coat hypertension may be used if you have high blood pressure readings (i.e. readings that are consistently 140/90mmHg or above) only when you are in a medical setting. Your blood pressure is not fixed – it rises and falls throughout the day in response to what you are doing and what is happening around you. White coat effects will often happen because you are nervous about having your blood pressure tested by a doctor or nurse. Most of us tend to feel more tense in medical settings than we do in surroundings that are familiar to us, although we do not always notice it. Blood pressure___ A. Can drop rapidly in a person who is experiencing a condition known as cardiac tamponade B. Is defined as the systolic pressure/diastolic pressure C. Would be lower than normal if one’s stroke volume is lower than normal D. B and C only E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Occasionally, an area if the heart becomes overly excitable and depolarizes more rapidly than the SA node. This abnormally excitable area initiates an action potential that spreads through the rest of the heart before the SA node can initiate a normal action potential. An occasional abnormal impulse initiated in the ventricle produces a premature ventricular contraction (PVC). At a given heart rate, the interval between a PVC and the next normal beat is longer than the interval between two normal beats. What may this lead to? A. There would be a longer time (than normal) for the heart to fill B. The stroke volume ejected on the next heartbeat after a PVC would usually be larger than normal C. The end diastolic volume would be larger than normal D. The heart rate would decrease, which would cause the cardiac output to increase E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

In the course of their examination of their patient, a doctor performs an electrocardiogram (ECG). When looking at the results, the doctor noticed that there was no sign on the resulting graph of the atria repolarizing. What does this result tell the doctor? A. The patient has a block in their atrioventricular (AV) node B. The patient’s heart has stopped beating and they need urgent medical attention C. The Purkinje fibers of the patient are acting as pacemaker cells D. The patient has a block in one of their bundle branches E. Nothing – the repolarization of the atria is masked by the depolarization of the ventricles

E. Nothing – the repolarization of the atria is masked by the depolarization of the ventricles

What happened to Dr. Kuemerle’s youngest son when he was 11 years old? A. He got hit in the chest with a baseball and his heart stopped in an episode known as “commotio cordis” B. He attended a Big Sean concert C. He won 100 million dollars in the lottery D. He got a new puppy E. He received early admittance to CWRU

A. He got hit in the chest with a baseball and his heart stopped in an episode known as “commotio cordis”

Pneumothorax can cause the lungs to collapse. What is responsible for holding the lungs open under normal conditions? A. the rib cage B. a negative intra pleural pressure C. chest wall expansion D. cartilage that connects the lungs to the sternum E. lung compliance

B. a negative intra pleural pressure

During a normal expiration______ A. Palv (alveolar pressure) increases B. Pip (intrapelural pressure) increases C. Patm (atmospheric pressure)=Ptp (transpulmonary pressure) D. Both A and B E. Both B and C

D. Both A and B

E. A, B and C

. A cross country runner is in the final kilometer of a five kilometer race and begins to kick up the pace. Which of the following could be true of the runner? A. Positive pressure brings air into his lungs B. His residual volume momentarily reaches zero C. His tidal volume is at vital capacity D. His diaphragm and rib muscles contract when he exhales E. His lungs undergo an elastic recoil when he inhales.

C. His tidal volume is at vital capacity

What is the purpose of the Pleural Cavity? A. Pleural fluid allows exchange of gases between the air and the blood B. Creates a positive pressure to keep lungs from expanding into the chest wall C. Allows the lungs to completely empty during deep breathing D. Contains smooth muscle that controls the diameter of the alveoli E. Creates a negative pressure to keep lung surfaces near the chest wall

E. Creates a negative pressure to keep lung surfaces near the chest wall

A decrease in temperature and H+ concentration will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve ______such that at any given PO2 hemoglobin has a ____________for oxygen A. right; lesser affinity B. left; greater affinity C. right; greater affinity D. left, lesser affinity E. None of the above

B. left; greater affinity

Adaptations that enhance the function of a respiratory surface include A. increasing its surface area so more gases diffuse B. making the respiratory surface thin so gas diffusion is more rapid C. making the respiratory surface moist so gases diffuse across cells more readily D. A and B only E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

During physiological respiration, the lungs are____ when air is pulled into the lungs by a process of lung expansion and the lowering of pulmonary air pressure. This process is called________ A. perfused; positive pressure breathing B. ventilated; negative pressure breathing C. ventilated, positive pressure breathing D. invaginated, cellular respiration E. moistened, cellular gas exchange

B. ventilated; negative pressure breathing

Emily has an intense fear of public speaking. Recently, her boss told her to present a certain topic during the upcoming meeting. Shortly before the meeting began Emily began to breathe very quickly (hyperventilate) and after several minutes of this altered pattern of breathing, she began to feel lightheaded. What was happening in her blood to cause this lightheadedness? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory acidosis E. Nothing, she was just nervous because she didn’t practice her speech

B. Respiratory alkalosis

The body has many mechanisms for maintaining homeostasis when experiencing environmental changes. For example, scuba divers experience higher pressure when at deeper depths and must be careful when rising to the surface, otherwise they may get decompression sickness (the bends). Air is composed mainly of nitrogen and oxygen. Air under high pressure is compressed. Because oxygen is used continuously by the body, the oxygen molecules breathed under high pressure usually do not accumulate. However, the nitrogen molecules do accumulate in the blood and tissues. As outside pressure decreases during ascent from a dive, the accumulated nitrogen that cannot be exhaled immediately can form bubbles in the blood and tissues. These bubbles may expand and injure tissue or block blood vessels. This can cause pain, swelling and inflammation in muscles and joints, and stroke symptoms, such as sudden weakness on one side of the body, difficulty speaking, or dizziness. Under normal conditions in the body, which is a false statement? A. The partial pressure of oxygen in the start of the capillaries in body tissues (which can also be described as the systemic arterial pressure: PO2) is ~100mmHg B. The partial pressure of nitrogen can be calculated in accordance to Dalton’s Law, which states: The partial pressure of a gas in a mixture is independent of other gases in the mixture and is determined by its proportion in the mixture. C. At PO2 equal to ~40mmHg (which is the systemic venous partial pressure of O2) hemoglobin is still almost 80% saturated with oxygen. D. Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in arterial blood and may be stimulated by a decrease in PO2 (that can lead to a condition known as hypoxia). E. In the blood plasma in the lungs, most of the bicarbonate is transported into erythrocytes, where it combines with H+ to form CO2 and water.

D. Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in arterial blood and may be stimulated by a decrease in PO2 (that can lead to a condition known as hypoxia).

Arrange the following in order from highest to lowest PO2. (1) PO2 of pulmonary veins (2) PO2 of pulmonary artery (3) PO2 of alveolar air A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 2, 3, 1 D. 3, 1, 2 E. 3, 2, 1

D. 3, 1, 2

Which of the following statements about HCO3- (or bicarbonate) is true with regard to CO2 transfer in the lungs? A. Most of the HCO3- is transported into erythrocytes B. HCO3- reacts with H+ to form CO2 and H2O in the plasma C. HCO3- reacts with H+ to form CO2 and H2O in the erythrocytes D. A and C E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

Local controls can dilate arterioles leading to a capillary bed in specific tissues. Some examples of local controls include A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Active hyperemia C. Flow auto regulation D. Both A and B E. Both B and C

E. Both B and C

Match the part of the brainstem with its correct function in respiratory control: A. Pons: smooth respiratory movements by modulating signals from medulla B. Dorsal interneuron group: adds to rate and depth of breathing by stimulating forceful exhalation and by adding to signals stimulating inhalation C. Ventral interneuron group: primarily fire during inspiration D. Central chemoreceptors of medulla: monitor changes in O2 in ECF E. Medulla: sends impulses via the sciatic nerves to activate the muscles involved in inspiration

A. Pons: smooth respiratory movements by modulating signals from medulla

Which section of the nephron has a main function in concentrating the filtrate via water reabsorption by osmosis? What is the osmolarity of the fluid in the tubule approximately equal to at the end of this section? A. Proximal convoluted tubule; osmolarity of the blood plasma B. Ascending Loop of Henle; osmolarity of medulla fluid C. Descending Loop of Henle; osmolarity of fluid in the cortex of the kidney D. Descending Loop of Henle; osmolarity of medulla fluid E. Ascending Loop of Henle; osmolarity towards pelvis of kidney

D. Descending Loop of Henle; osmolarity of medulla fluid

Which of the following will lead to an increase in glomerular fluid filtration in the kidneys? A. an increase in the protein concentration in erythrocytes B. an increase in the fluid pressure in Bowman’s space C. an increase in the glomerular capillary blood pressure D. a decrease in the glomerular capillary blood pressure E. constriction of the afferent arteriole

C. an increase in the glomerular capillary blood pressure

. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea. A BUN test is done to see how well the kidneys are working. If the kidneys are not able to remove urea from the blood normally, the BUN level rises. Which of the following are true? A. In mammals, urea is made when protein is broken down in the body. B. Urea can be moved from the blood in the glomerular capsule and be taken into the Bowman’s capsule due to high pressure filtration C. Urea is excreted by birds and insects, which enables them to conserve water. D. Both A and B E. A, B and C

D. Both A and B

Which of the following is false? A. In mammals, the kidneys serve to keep urine isosmotic to the body fluids B. Glucose, amino acids, water are normally reabsorbed (unless they are needed to be excreted to maintain homeostasis) C. H+ is normally excreted (unless needed to maintain homeostasis) D. Juxtaglomerular nephrons extend into the medulla of the kidney E. The processes involved in producing urine include filtration, reabsorption and secretion

A. In mammals, the kidneys serve to keep urine isosmotic to the body fluids