practice tests Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

What is the difference between a fistula and a sinus?

A

Fistula: a track with open ends – communicating with two body areas or
An abnormal passage or communiction, usually between 2 internal organs or leading from an internal organ to the surface of the body

Sinus: Abnormal channel or drainage pathway from a deep focus of acute infection from within bones or other structures through tissue and/or bone to an opening on skin surface

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2
Q

Anastomosis is a connection made surgically between adjacent blood vessels, parts of the intestine or other channels of the body.

A

True

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3
Q

What does vesico mean?

A

What does vesico mean?

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4
Q

What type of joints are visualised in an arthrogram?

A

Synovial or Hinge joints

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5
Q

Name this fistula refer to practice test two power point question 5

A

This is a ‘vesico-vaginal fistula’

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6
Q

Is this a fistula or a sinus?

refer to practice test two power point question 6

A

Fistula – because the path comes from a structure (not within a structure)

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7
Q

Arteriovenous fistulas can be used for?

What part of the body would this be located?

A

Dialysis

Forearm

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8
Q
What joint is arthrography not performed on?
 TMJ														
  Shoulder
  Wrist
  Sternoclavicular
A

sternoclavicular

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9
Q

Air is used as a contrast media in a knee arthrogram?

A

True

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10
Q

Name 2 conditions regarding bone mineral density

A

Osteopenia and osteoporosis

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11
Q

In regards to ‘othoradiography’, what does ‘ortho’ mean?

A

Straight or Right angles

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12
Q

Mammography uses ____________technique.
DEXA
Macroradiography
Orthrography

A

Macroradiography

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13
Q

What does ‘SUFE’ stand for?

How can this cause LLD?

A

Slipped Upper Femoral Epihysis

It can reduce the growth of the bone

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14
Q

Why is a scoliosis stitching series done PA instead of AP?

A

Reduced dose to the thyroid and breast tissue

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15
Q

What T-score would be expected in an osteopenic patient?

A

-1 to -2.5

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16
Q

What would an OPG image look like if the chin was positioned too far forward?

A

Front teeth blurred

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17
Q

What is a common cause for mandible fractures?

A

Blunt trauma

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18
Q

Name 2 types of extra-oral imaging

A

OPG,
plain xray mandible,
cephalometrics

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19
Q

What are the 3 intra-oral techniques for dental imaging?

A

Bitewing,
occlusal,
peri-apical

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20
Q
One of these things is not like the other….which one?
Oral
Rectal															
Intra-venous
Intra-EAM
Intra-thecal
Intra-arterial
A

Intra EAM (intra-thecal is spinal canal)

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21
Q

How do you calculate/locate the bisecting angle for a peri-apical image?

A

Perpendicular to Midway between the angle of the film and angle of the tooth

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22
Q

What are 2 advantages of intra-oral imaging?

A

Less distortion,
less magnification
Less dose

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23
Q

Sialolithiasis is…

A

Stone in the salivary duct

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24
Q

What is OPG an acronym for?

A

Orthopantomogram

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25
List 2 indications for an OPG
? Fracture, ? Wisdom tooth impaction, ? cyst/abscess
26
What are the 3 salivary glands called?
Parotid, Submandibular, Sub-lingual
27
What is the most common mechanical problem indicated for a dacrocystogram?
Obstruction
28
What is a post care consideration | for a dacrocystogram?
Eye patch
29
Describe the radiographic appearance of reflux in an MCU procedure
Contrast will go back up the URETER towards the kidney during micturition. The VUJ is not functioning properly
30
Name the labelled anatomy on the diagram | refer to powerpoint revision quiz question 31
a) Pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ) b) Ureter c) Vesico-ureteric junction (VUJ) d) Urethra
31
Name 2 responsibilities of the MRT during a Urology procedure in theatre
``` Minimise dose, check pregnancy, obtain images, save images, record dose ```
32
List 3 complications that can happen after/during an HSG
Excessive bleeding, extravasation, CM reaction, perforation
33
``` The speculum opens the… Fallopian tube Cervix Ovary Vagina ```
d) vagina
34
``` When should an HSG appointment be made following the menstrual onset? 7 days 10 days 14 days Irrelevant depending on pt’s lifestyle ```
10 days
35
Describe one important post care instruction after an HSG
Wear pads, spotting, cramping feeling
36
What is a percutaneous entry?
through the skin
37
``` Which is an indication of an HSG? Bleeding Recurrent miscarriage Pain Perforation ```
recurrent miscarriage
38
Contrast Medium shows a radiographic contrast in body parts and organs to the surrounding tissues due to differences in… Atomic number and density Atomic number and darkness Thickness and colour Atomic mass and density
a) Atomic density and number
39
Name 2 common contraindications for using contrast media?
``` Hypersensitivity, prev reaction, renal failure, on certain meds, dehydrated ```
40
Name 4 of the ‘rights’ regarding contrast media use
``` Contrast type Amount (dose) Expiry date Patient Route (entry) ```
41
List 5 important properties/aspects for an ideal IV contrast media:
``` Non-ionic Low osmolality Low viscosity Water soluble Miscibility ```
42
Why is poor kidney function a contraindication to receiving contrast media?
Kidneys cannot tolerate processing CM. Can be nephrotoxic. Potential renal failure
43
Why is it important to tell your patient to drink plenty of fluid after a barium sulphate examination?
Ba sulphate is very ‘persistent’ and will get hard and constipate patient
44
What is the most suitable CM for a ‘? Perforated bowel’ study?
Gastrograffin
45
List 4 procedures that use omnipaque | Not including CT
``` HSG, Retrograde urology, dacrocystogram, sinogram, fistulogram, Sialogram, arthrogram, myelogram ```
46
What contrast media is commonly used for the majority of procedures discussed in 605 semester 2?
Omnipaque
47
go to powerpoint revision to look at pictures and complete answers
go to powerpoint revision to look at pictures and complete answers
48
1) What is a narrow TI?
When the dose for a drug’s benefit and risk are close (narrow)
49
2) You have a patient that has had a previous CM reaction and now requires a procedure that needs CM: a) How is this procedure justified?
If the benefit outweighs the risk
50
2) You have a patient that has had a previous CM reaction and now requires a procedure that needs CM b) What is the name of the professional body that provides the guidelines you would follow?
RANZCR – Royal Australia New Zealand College of Radiologists
51
You have a patient that has had a previous CM reaction and now requires a procedure that needs CM c) What are 3 actions you could do to minimise the possibility of another reaction?
Use different CM Pre hydration Pre antihistamines
52
3) What is the name of the ducts that connect the sublingual gland to the floor of the mouth?
Ducts of rivinus
53
4) What are the 3 parts of the uterine tube?
Ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum
54
5) An allergic reaction to a substance is caused by a __to the substance.
hypersensitivity______
55
7) Into what space is CM introduced for myelography?
Subarachnoid space
56
8) Which CM would you choose? (1 Mark) a) Hypaque b) Conray c) Iohexol
c) Iohexol
57
``` Stenson's duct connects to the: Select one: Parotid Gland Pituitary Gland Submandibular Gland Sublingual Gland ```
Parotid Gland
58
``` Hysterosalpingography is contraindicated for: Select one: Pelvic inflammatory disease Intermittent abnormal uterine bleeding Primary infertility Patency of fallopian tubes Secondary infertility ```
Pelvic inflammatory disease
59
``` What term is used to describe the 'degree of openess' of the fallopian tube? Select one: Atresia Stenosis Gauge Patency Paucity ```
Patency
60
``` What type of contrast media is recommended for routine upper GI tract studies? Select one: non-ionic iodine based Ionic iodine based Carbon dioxide barium sulphate Gastrograffin ```
barium sulphate
61
``` Cephalometrics is not used to: Select one: Plan orthodontic treatment Measure foetal head growth Study craniofacial growth Assess facial assymetry ```
Measure foetal head growth
62
``` In macroradiography, magnification factors greater than ________ are impracticable if a 0.3mm2 focus is used. Select one: 3.0x 2.0x 1.5x 0.5 ```
1.5x
63
``` If a patient's BMD result is in the yellow zone, what does this mean? Select one: osteoporosis osteomyelitis normal bone density osteopenia ```
osteopenia
64
``` During an IVU, what 45 degree oblique would best demonstrate the right ureter? Select one: LAO RAO RPO LPO ```
RPO
65
``` Regarding GCS, which is not one of the factors of response? Select one: Motor Verbal Pain Eyes ```
Pain
66
``` An OPG is an example of an: Select one: Intra-oral study Timed study Functional study Extra-oral study ```
Extra-oral study
67
Describe the difference (in a few words) between a fistula and a sinus:
Fistula is a track, pathway, communication between two body areas. A sinus is a drainage pathway from an infection source
68
Name a common fistula
Rectovaginal, Vesicovaginal, Tracheo-oesophageal, bronchopleural, ateriovenous
69
Other than magnification, what is the cause of increased Geometric unsharpness that occurs during macroradiography?
Penumbra
70
``` Some of the contraindications for an HSG are listed below: Match the appropriate reasoning for why the contraindication is relevant. Inappropriate stage of menstrual cycle Active Bleeding Known hypersensitivity Pelvic Inflammatory Disease ```
Inappropriate stage of menstrual cycle → Could not confirm/exclude possibility of pregnancy, Active Bleeding → The cause of bleeding could be increased, Known hypersensitivity → Increased chance of contrast reaction, Pelvic Inflammatory Disease → Can increase the infection and symptoms
71
A bicornate uterus is a possible complication after having an HSG Select one: True False
False
72
What t-score defines osteopenia?
-1 to -2.5
73
Describe (in one sentence) 'apparent leg length discrepancy'.
leg length appears different but the cause is from the hip, spine, or pelvis
74
Name 2 responsibilities of the MRT during a theatre retrograde urology procedure
Minimising Radiation Dose, Documentation
75
``` Match the correct descriptions to these terms Antegrade Retrograde against the flow With the flow ```
Antegrade-With the flow | Retrograde-against the flow
76
The osmolality refers to the concentration of the contrast media Select one: True False
True
77
Omnipaque is the recommended contrast media for a contrast swallow study post GI tract surgery because barium is too persistent. Select one: True False
True
78
To visualise the lacrimal duct system Visualise the salivary glands Visualise mandible free from surrounding tissue and less distorted Demonstrate teeth with less distortion and magnification
To visualise the lacrimal duct system: Dacrocystogram Visualise the salivary glands: Sialogram Visualise mandible free from surrounding tissue and less distorted: OPG Demonstrate teeth with less distortion and magnification: Periapical
79
The Dacrocystography procedure has no risk of damaging the eyes Select one: True False
True
80
Match the description with the appropriate study: Arthrography Bariography Myelography
Evaluate the condition of joints- Arthography Radiography of bariatric patients - Bariography Study of the spinal canal- Myelography
81
Define | Sinus and Fistula
Sinus → Abnormal channel or drainage pathway from a deep focus of acute infection, Fistula → track, passage or communication between to body areas or internal organs
82
Name one ideal property for an IV contrast media
non-ionic, low osmolality, low viscosity, miscibiliy
83
If a patient’s BMD result is in the yellow zone, what does this mean?
osteopenia
84
What is a benefit of DR stitching over a CT topogram for leg length imaging?
Addresses the challenges of obliquity of the diverging x-rays Measurements are accurate More costly Requires specialised equipment
85
What are the 2 main areas scanned for DEXA?
Spine and the Hip
86
What does ‘orthro’ mean?
straight or a right angles
87
What T-score value would you expect in an osteoporotic patient?
less or equal two -2.5
88
Explain how bed rest improves a patient’s BMD
Bed rest will reduce bone density by almost 50 percent
89
Select the option which is not a reason for a GCS score to be invalid. a. patient is under 4 years of age b. patient has consumed a large amount of alcohol c. patient has taken mind altering drugs d. None of these choices. e. patient  is in shock with a systolic BP < 80
d. None of these choices.
90
What is the common term for the diaphysis?
The shaft of a long bone, between the ends (epiphysis).
91
What term is used to describe the ‘degree of openness’ of the fallopian tube? a. Stenosis b. Patency c. Atresia d. Gauge e. Paucity
b. Patency
92
When is the ideal time to schedule an HSG relative to the patient’s menstrual cycle?
10 days after menstrual cycle
93
Give an equation for calculating the Magnification factor
M = SID / SOD
94
What is peritonitis?
Inflammation of the membrane lining the abdominal wall
95
What is the name of the ruler used in orthrography?
Bell thompson ruler
96
True or False – SUFE can cause apparent leg length discrepancy
True
97
A Z-score is…
The z-score compares a patient’s BMD with that of other people of your age, gender and race.
98
Is pelvic inflammatory disease a contraindication or a complication of an HSG?
Contraindications
99
What are the 3 categories of response for the GCS?
verbal Motor Eye
100
For orthrography, is the SID for scoliosis larger, smaller, or the same as for leg length imaging?
Same
101
The major benefit of using a high and low kVp xray source with a DXA system is : a. Significantly reduces post processing time of the digital imaging b. Demonstrates attenuation differences between bone and soft tissue c. Reduces patient dose significantly d. Reduces wear and tear on xray tube significantly
b. Demonstrates attenuation differences between bone and soft tissue
102
If the Image size is 21cm and a Magnification factor of 1.5 is used. The true size of the object is
14cm
103
What is NOT considered a common cause of leg length discrepancy? a. Hemihypertrophy b. Epiphysiodeses c. Polio d. Osgood-Schlatters’s disease e. Legg-Perthes
d. Osgood-Schlatters’s disease
104
What age range is the GCS not an accurate measurement?
4 years and under
105
What is ‘UM’ ?
movement unsharpness
106
Is an HSG primarily therapeutic?
NO
107
What is the congenital condition when the uterus has two horns?
Bicornuate Uterus
108
What is primary infertility?
woman has never conceived and despite cohabitation and exposure to pregnancy for a period of 2 years
109
``` Which is not a complication of an HSG? Bleeding infection venous extravasation secondary infertility ```
secondary infertility
110
an average DEXA scan has the equivalent radiation dose of one CXR
False
111
A GCS of 9-12 is…
Moderate
112
True or false – A 0.3mm2 focal spot size is appropriate for macroradiography with a mag factor or 2
False
113
Is GCS the only accurate way to assess and measure a patient’s state of consciousness?
True
114
What is EPIPHYSIODESIS ?
a premature union of the epiphysis with diaphysis, resulting in cessation of the growth of that limb
115
What type of medical imaging technique still uses macroradiography?
mammography
116
What can the MRT do to minimize the Geometric unsharpness ?
use fine focus