Practice Tests (All Areas) Flashcards by Bella Tangerine

What term is used to describe a color that is next to each other in a color wheel?
A. Monochromatic
B. Complementary
C. Analogous
D. Triadic

C. Analogous

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What is meant of art depicts the representation of a version of reality?
Aristotelian philosophy holds that art has two distinct purposes: it allows for the
enjoyment of pleasure, and it has the power to be instructional, teaching its audience
valuable lessons about life and its surroundings.
A. Art as a means of communication.
B. Art as a means of conveying emotional content
C. Arts means I love You
D. Art means contentment and happy life.

A. Art as a means of communication.

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Which of these Filipino “Marching Bands makes use of bamboo aerophones and
other instruments?
A. Musikong Bumbong
B. Pangkat Kawayan
C. Malabon Band
D. Tunog Magsambok

A. Musikong Bumbong

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Painting, Sculptures, and Theater Artworks are easily recognized subjects
because of its clarity and identification. Which subject of artist being referred to?
A. Subjectivity
B. Non- representational
C. Abstract
D. Representational

D. Representational

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Which of the following musical elements is known as the loudness or softness of
sound?
A. Beat
B. Tune
C. Melody
D. Dynamics

D. Dynamics

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What does technique mean?
A. The process in which the artist manipulates materials to achieve the desired
formal effect.
B. The framework in which the artist manipulates materials to achieve the desired
formal effect
C. The method in which the artist manipulates materials to achieve the desired
formal effect
D. The manner in which artists use and manipulate materials to achieve the desired
formal effect

D. The manner in which artists use and manipulate materials to achieve the desired
formal effect

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What art principle uses line, form, color, texture, or pattern repeatedly?
A. Unity
B. Harmony
C. Rhythm
D. Variety

C. Rhythm

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When in art history will the painting be recognized as being in proportion with
naturalistic representation, where aft can be found in vases, panels, or tombs?
A. Ancient Art
B. Baroque Art
C. Classical Art
D. Contemporary Art

C. Classical Art

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How will you define medium?
A. It is a material used in making art work.
B. It is the nature of the art form.
C. It is the meaning of the art
D. It is the size of the work of art.

A. It is a material used in making art work.

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How did Maestro respond to the rigidity repetitive and highly mind-numbing tasks
in most mechanized factories?
A. Maestro decided to build a see-through bridge that poetically took people out to a
liminal point a
B. Maestro created a sketch for the proposed new building.
C. Maestro decided to draw a design for the new project.
D. Maestro decided to paint an abstraction of the mechanized factories in the
manner of the contemporary

A. Maestro decided to build a see-through bridge that poetically took people out to a
liminal point a

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Art is considered as an ________________ when it is experienced and
perceived.
A. interactive
B. Integration
C. Subjective
D. Objective

A. interactive

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Who among the following artists created the painting “The Making of the
Philippine Flag?”
A. Josef Luciano Dans
B. Carlos. “Botong” Francisco
C. Juan Luna
D. Napoleon Abueva

B. Carlos. “Botong” Francisco

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What do you call the application of paint, pigment, color, or another medium to a
solid surface?
A. Painting
B. Sculpture
C. Architecture
D. Assemblage

A. Painting

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The ka-in originated in southern Kalinga. What does the red in this fabric
represent?
A. Love
B. Hope
C. War
D. Bravery

D. Bravery

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Which of the following is not a dominance of blue colors?
A. Purple
B. Indigo
C. Green
D. Yellow

D. Yellow

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Where in the Philippines can you find “Barong” and “Balisong” as common
functional arts?
A. Angono, Rizal
B. Taal, Batangas
C. Malaybalay, Bukidnon
D. Lucena, Quezon

B. Taal, Batangas

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A 2-dimensional area enclosed by a line that establishes contour is:
A. Shape
B. Space
C. Texture
D. Form

A. Shape

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What is the name of a sacred musical composition from the Renaissance period
that sets texts from the Eucharistic liturgy to music?
A. Mass
B. Troubadour Music
C. Oratory
D. Psalm

A. Mass

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Which practice of art used Philippine identity as the theme of their artworks?
A. Baroque Art
B. Renaissance Art
C. Contemporary Art
D. Modern Art

D. Modern Art

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What is added to length and width to form a 3-Dimensional art?
A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Line
D. Volume

D. Volume

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Which of the following are combined arts?
A. Film
B. Essay
C. Short Story
D. Architecture

A. Film

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Which of the following can be classified into the practical arts?
A. Printmaking
B. Furniture
C. Paintings
D. Drawings

B. Furniture

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What are the characteristics of visual arts in the Philippines?
I. Has a wide array of cultural influence to the country.
II. Has a social and communal function.
III. Has expensive materials and favorable to elite families.
IV. Has marked by how it rebels against the rules of form.

A. I and III
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, II and III

D. I, II and III

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Which among the forms of arts is perceived by the eyes?
A. Graphic Arts
B. Abstract Art
C. Performing Art
D. Visual Arts

D. Visual Arts

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What do you call a large-scale musical composition for orchestra and voice that includes religious narratives? A. Concerto B. Sonata C. Mass D. Oratorio

D. Oratorio

What is this musical ensemble playing in the streets and generally consists of brass and woodwind instruments? A. Rondalla B. Orchestra C. Brass Band D. Choir

C. Brass Band

Which of the following is the international instrument classification which instruments are classified based on how they produce sounded A. Hornbostel-Sachs B. Hombostel-Sachs C. Hornbell-Sachs D. Hombestel-Sachs

A. Hornbostel-Sachs

_____________ has an immediate and significant impact on the design of a piece of artwork. Also, can influence how individuals feel and behave. A. Line B. Color C. Texture D. Shape

B. Color

What term is used to describe a different shade of one color? A. Monochromatic B. Complementary C. Analogous D. Triadic

A. Monochromatic

This art making is the process of creating and deriving meaning through art. For a person to make sense of language and draw meaning from words, it is necessary to take into consideration semantic and grammatical principles. A. Print Making B. Painting C. Conceptual Art D. Soul Making

D. Soul Making

Leonardo Da Vinci: Monalisa, Vincent Van Gogh: A. The Last Supper B. Monalisa C. School of Athens D. The Starry Night

D. The Starry Night

This line suggests strength, power and authority. A. Curve B. Diagonal C. Vertical D. Horizontal

C. Vertical

What is the type of balance where both sides of a composition are balanced yet different? A. Asymmetrical B. Symmetrical C. Radial D. Proportion

A. Asymmetrical

What do you call the choice of colors used in a design plan? A. Color Mix B. Color Scheme C. Color Wheel D. Color Pigments

B. Color Scheme

What is said of colors that are different in lightness and darkness? A. Dark in value B. Light in value C. Intensity D. Hue

A. Dark in value

What two colors may be mixed to obtain secondary colors? A. Intermediate Colors B. Monochromatic Colors C. Primary colors D. Neutral colors

C. Primary colors

In which process is white added to a color? A. Contrasting B. Highlighting C. Tinting D. Shading

C. Tinting

What do you call a line that shows graceful motion? A. Horizontal B. Diagonal C. Vertical D. Curved

D. Curved

What is one way to show overlapping? A. Shapes B. Lines C. Color D. Texture

A. Shapes

In art, the sense of stability achieved through the weight of an object is called A. Proportion B. Harmony C. Unity D. Balance

D. Balance

In art, what do pattern and repetition create? A. Rhythm B. Movement C. Variety D. Unity

A. Rhythm

Which is the ratio of one art element to another? A. Harmony B. Balance C. Proportion D. Unity

C. Proportion

It is an artwork created by Leonardo da Vinci. A. Starry Night B. Birth of Venus C. School of Athens D. Mona Lisa

D. Mona Lisa

Which painting was painted by Juan Luna and is the most prized painting of the Philippines? A. Apolario B. Spolarium C. Our Lady of Light D. Creation of Adam

B. Spolarium

He created the sculpture of Bonifacio monument and UP oblation. A. Guillermo Tolentino B. Roberto Feleo C. Carlos Francisco D. Napoleon Abueva

A. Guillermo Tolentino

According to Psychology of colors, which of the following best describes the positive remarks for white? A. Substance B. Hope C. Royalty D. Hygiene

D. Hygiene

What type of textile is characterized by dominant red stripes and motifs of geometric patferns as well as nature symbols interlaced with white yellow and black fibers? A. Ginamat B. Kabayao C. Kalinga D. Botong

C. Kalinga

What are these brightly colored beads used for weddings and other important occasions in the province of Ifugao? A. Bongol B. Bul-ul C. Gansa D. T’nalak

A. Bongol

Which of the following musical composition styles is similar to a harmonized version of a Protestant Church? A. Chorale B. Oratorio C. Mass D. Psalm

A. Chorale

Which of the following art styles refers to a wax-based painting technique? A. Fresco B. Cave Painting C. Graffiti D. Encaustic

D. Encaustic

Which among the following allow the viewers to participate in the experience and urges them to validate their own beliefs? a. Traditional Art b. Photography and Digital Art c. Contemporary Arts d. Visual Arts

c. Contemporary Arts

Which of the following crafts is applied in the Higantes Festival? a. Batik Making b. Tattooing c. Wood Carving d. Paper Mache

d. Paper Mache

“Pit Señor” is a phrase you will hear a lot during the celebration ofSinulog festival in Cebu City. What is meant by the phrase? a. PanangpitsaSeñor b. BulahankaSeñor c. Kaloy-i mi Señor d. SalamatsatananggrasyaSeñor

a. PanangpitsaSeñor

In what city in Cordillera Region does Panagbenga is celebrated? a. Baguio b. Ifugao c. Ilocos d. Pampanga

a. Baguio

Which of the following are considered as techniques and performance practices applied in Contemporary Arts? a. Painting b. Wood Carving c. Tattooing d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Who among the scientists paved the way in discovering new elements using the concept of X-rays? A. Dmitri Mendeleev B. Henry Moseley C. Ernest Rutherford D. Ernest Lawrence

B. Henry Moseley

What is the first man-made element discovered in 1937? A. Uranium B. Plutonium C. Astatine D. Technetium

D. Technetium

What determines in identifying of a new synthesized element? A. atomic number B. atomic mass C. number of neutrons D. radiation type

A. atomic number

What device is used by scientists to synthesize the elements Technetium and Astatine with atomic numbers 43 and 85, respectively? A. nuclear reactor B. particle accelerator C. nuclear transmitter D. alpha particles

B. particle accelerator

What atomic number marks the start of transuranium elements of the Periodic Table of Elements? A. 91 B. 92 C. 93 D. 94

C. 93

Hydrogen has an atomic number of 1. What does atomic number mean in an element? A. number of particles B. number of neutrons C. number of protons D. number of atoms

C. number of protons

Which of the following statements best explains why oil-based paints are best cleaned by using paint thinner? A. The oil in the paint is diluted by the paint thinner B. The molecules of oil and thinner are both polar molecules C. Oil is non-polar which can be dissolved by polar substances like thinner D. Oil is non-polar which can be dissolved by non-polar substances like thinner

D. Oil is non-polar which can be dissolved by non-polar substances like thinner

Which of the following properties describe a non-polar molecule? A. High melting point B. High boiling point C. Gaseous in room temperature D. Readily mixes with water in a solution

C. Gaseous in room temperature

Each of the following properties is related to the polarity of the molecule EXCEPT? A. Physical states it manifests B. Its melting and boiling point C. Its solubility compared to other materials D. Difference in atomic masses of each element in the molecule.

D. Difference in atomic masses of each element in the molecule.

Anna is trying to dissolve a non-polar substance in her experiment, which of the following solvents should she use? A. A non-polar solvent C. Either a polar or non-polar solvent B. A polar covalent solvent D. She should use water, the universal solvent

A. A non-polar solvent

Which of the following are the reasons why strong acids conduct electricity when dissolved in water? A. They disassociate into ions allowing electricity to flow B. They make the water have higher PH to allow conduction C. They are made up of very reactive elements which react with the water D. Strong acids are non-polar which does not dissolve in water when mixed

A. They disassociate into ions allowing electricity to flow

Which statement best support carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is non- polar? A. Carbon tetrachloride is an organic compound B. Carbon tetrachloride is insoluble in water C. Carbon tetrachloride is colorless D. Carbon tetrachloride is volatile

B. Carbon tetrachloride is insoluble in water

Which of the following statements best explains why non-polar molecules easily evaporate and have low melting points compared to polar molecules? A. Non-polar molecules are smaller than polar ones B. Non-polar molecules are not electrically conductive C. Non-polar molecules have weak intermolecular forces D. Non-polar molecules are less common than polar ones.

C. Non-polar molecules have weak intermolecular forces

When you mix-up a salad dressing with some vinegar and olive oil you can observe that over time the oil separates from the vinegar, what could be the cause of this phenomenon? A. Vinegar is acidic that is why oil separates from it B. Vinegar and oil have different polarities C. Oil is less dense than vinegar D. Oil molecules are very heavy

B. Vinegar and oil have different polarities

In a lab setup, three beakers are filled with unknown liquids. The following observations have been made. i. Liquid A mixes with liquid B ii. Liquid C does not mix with A and B iii. Liquid C easily evaporates Which among these is most likely a non-polar liquid? A. Liquid A B. Liquid B C. Liquid C D. All are polar liquids

C. Liquid C

What inference can we make from the observations? A. Liquids A and B are polar B. Liquids A and B are non-polar C. Liquids A, B and C are non-polar D. Liquids A, B and C are polar

A. Liquids A and B are polar

Which statement best explains why Liquid C is most likely a non- polar liquid? A. It easily evaporates B. It does not mix with liquids A and B C. It is in liquid state at room temperature D. It cannot be determined from the data given

A. It easily evaporates

If all three liquids were to be dissolved in gasoline, which of the following would most likely be the result? A. Liquid A would fully dissolve B. Liquid B would fully dissolve C. Liquid C would fully dissolve D. All liquids would fully dissolve

C. Liquid C would fully dissolve

In normal room temperature, which statement is true about non-polar substances? A. Most non-polar substances are solid. B. Most non-polar substances are liquids. C. Most non-polar substances are gases. D. None of these

C. Most non-polar substances are gases.

Three beakers are filled with three unknown liquids, one of them is a polar substance. How would you identify which substance is polar? A. Mix the samples with CCl4, the polar substance should dissolve fully B. Mix the samples with water, the polar substance should dissolve fully C. Boil the samples with the same setup, the non-polar substance should take most time to boil D. Boil the samples with the same setup, the polar substance should be the least time to boil

B. Mix the samples with water, the polar substance should dissolve fully

Which of the following substances is most likely a polar molecule? A. Substance A, a gas at room temperature B. Substance B, a paint thinner for oil paints C. Substance C, a paint thinner for water-based paints D. Substance D, a volatile liquid that easily evaporates

C. Substance C, a paint thinner for water-based paints

Which of the following show/s how intermolecular forces affect properties of different substances? A. Soaps and detergents help lessen the surface tension of water to increase water absorption. B. Leaf cuticles store water in the leaf surface. C. Oil floats on water. D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

How does intermolecular forces affect the melting/boiling point of a substance? A. It takes longer for a substance to reach its melting point when the intermolecular forces are weak. B. It takes longer for a substance to reach its melting point when the intermolecular forces are strong. C. It takes longer for a substance to reach its boiling point when the intermolecular forces are weak. D. It takes longer for a substance to reach its melting and boiling point when the intermolecular forces are strong.

D. It takes longer for a substance to reach its melting and boiling point when the intermolecular forces are strong.

What happens to the vapor pressure as you increase the strength of intermolecular forces of attraction? The vapor pressure _________________. A. decreases B. remains the same C. increases D. cannot be determined

A. decreases

Which of the following IS NOT influenced by the type of intermolecular forces? A. Viscosity B. Solubility C. Density D. Weight

D. Weight

GeckskinTM is a new super-adhesive based on the mechanics of gecko feet. It is so powerful that can easily attach and detach everyday objects yet can be easily released without leaving any residue. What effect of intermolecular forces explains the mechanism of this product? A. Vapor pressure B. Surface tension C. Solubility D. Viscosity

B. Surface tension

Which of the following is not a phase transition? A. Melting B. Condensation C. Boiling D. Transforming

A. Melting

What happens to the boiling point as you increase the strength of intermolecular forces of attraction? The boiling point _________________. A. decreases B. remains the same C. increases D. cannot be determined

C. increases

Like dissolve like refers to which properties of substance? A. Viscosity B. Solubility C. Boiling point D. Vapor pressure

D. Vapor pressure

The more structurally complex the molecules in a liquid the stronger the intermolecular forces present. Which of the following explains the effect of IMFA on properties of substance? A. Viscosity B. Solubility C. Boiling point D. Melting point

A. Viscosity

What property of a substance explains the effect of IMFA on the temperature at which the vapor pressure becomes equal to the pressure exerted on the surface of the liquid? A. Surface tension B. Solubility C. Boiling point D. Melting point

D. Melting point

Which phase of matter has the strongest intermolecular force of attraction? A. Solid B. Gas C. Liquid D. Steam

D. Steam

Which of the following describes the tendency of a liquid to attain the smallest possible surface area? A. Fluidity B. Solubility C. Viscosity D. Surface tension

B. Solubility

Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s resistance to flow? A. Solubility B. Density C. Viscosity D. Evaporation

C. Viscosity

Which of the following describes the amount of pressure (force per unit area) applied by a gas above any liquid in a sealed container? A. Vapor pressure B. Melting point C. Boiling point D. Density

A. Vapor pressure

Which of the following is a measure of the mass in a unit volume? A. Surface Tension B. Viscosity C. Boiling point D. Density

C. Boiling point

A carbohydrate is a biomolecule consisting of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms, usually with a hydrogen–oxygen atom ratio of 2:1 and typically can be broken down to release energy in the animal body. Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate? A. Cellulose B. Glucose C. Glycine D. Sucrose

C. Glycine

Amino acids have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. Which one of the following is an amino acid? A. Formic acid B. Glycolic Acid C. Glycerol D. Glycine

D. Glycine

Biomolecules are organic molecule that includes carbohydrates, protein, lipids, and nucleic acids. They are important for the survival of living cells. Which of the following is a byproduct of a chemical union of the basic units of carbohydrates, lipids, or proteins? A. acid B. carbon C. energy D. water

C. energy

Adjacent nucleotides in a nucleic acid are joined by a phosphodiesterase bond. This bond links the phosphate group of one nucleotide to which one of the following components of a neighboring nucleotide? A. base B. Phosphate group C. peptide D. Sugar

B. Phosphate group

Lipids organic compounds that are fatty acids or their derivatives are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. Which of the following explains why sterols (or steroids) are considered to be lipids? A. They contain fatty acids. B. They are used as storage fats. C. They are lipid soluble. D. They are rich in hydrogen.

B. They are used as storage fats.

A macromolecule is a very large molecule, commonly composed of the polymerization of smaller subunits called monomers. Which of the following would most likely qualify as a macromolecule? A. amino acid B. DNA C. Protein D. glucose

B. DNA

Glucose and fructose both have the formula C6H12O6, but the atoms in these two compounds are arranged differently. Which of the following are glucose and fructose known for? A. isomers B. polysaccharides C. oligosaccharides D. pentoses

B. polysaccharides

Lipids are energy-rich organic, non-polar molecules. These organic compounds contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms that form a framework for the structure and function of living cells. They are insoluble in water and only soluble in nonpolar solvents as water is a polar molecule. Which of the following IS NOT a lipid? A. Fats B. Oils C. Proteins D. Waxes

C. Proteins

When a carbohydrate is broken into its component sugar molecules by hydrolysis (e.g. sucrose being broken down into glucose and fructose), this is recognized as saccharification. When disaccharides are changed to monosaccharides, the common chemical process involved is ______________. A. activation. B. digestion. C. hydration. D. synthesis.

D. synthesis.

Nucleic acids are large biomolecules, essential to and life and are composed of nucleotides, a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. Which of the following is a major function of nucleic acids? A. catalysis of virtually all biochemical reactions. B. structural support in both plants and animals C. storage and intracellular transfer of energy D. storage and transfer of genetic information

D. storage and transfer of genetic information

Cholesterol is an example of lipids. Which of the following best describes cholesterol as essential for normal membrane functions? A. It cannot be made by higher organisms such as mammals. B. It catalyzes lipid flip-flop in the bilayer. C. It spans the thickness of the bilayer. D. It keeps membranes fluid.

D. It keeps membranes fluid.

Proteins perform many physiological functions like enzymes. Which of the following represents an additional function of some protein discharge? A. Antibiotics B. Hormones C. Pigment conferring color to skin D. Pigments making colors of flowers

C. Pigment conferring color to skin

Proteins are large biomolecules, or macromolecules, consisting of one or more long chains of amino acid residues. Which of the following do tremendously complex molecules use as their basic units or building blocks? A. activation. B. digestion. C. hydration. D. synthesis.

D. synthesis.

Assume that DNA molecules are studied in a variety of organisms and found to have the following properties. Which property would be consistent with the hypothesis that genetic material is composed of DNA? A. DNA is composed of the same nucleotides in all organisms. B. DNA is different in two different cells of the same organism C. DNA in an organism remains constant as the organism ages. D. DNA from two different organisms has the same base composition.

B. DNA is different in two different cells of the same organism

When a protein is boiled, it loses all levels of organization besides the primary level. Which of the following will happen to protein? A. It will be denatured. B. It will be dehydrated. C. It will be hydrolyzed. D. It will be paralyzed.

A. It will be denatured.

What will happen to the kinetic energy of the particles enclosed in a container when the temperature of the container increases? A. decrease of kinetic B. increase of kinetic energy C. kinetic energy is constant D. kinetic energy will stay longer

A. decrease of kinetic

Which of the following is the result when there is a decrease in temperature of the reactants? A. particles to lose speed B. slow collision frequency C. allow less effective collision between the particles D. increase collision between the particles thus increasing the rate.

C. allow less effective collision between the particles

Which of the following best describes activation energy? A. The energy added by a catalyst B. The energy possessed by the products C. The energy needed for a reaction to occur D. The minimum amount of energy needed for a reaction to potentially occur

A. The energy added by a catalyst

Which factor increases the rate of reaction? A. increasing temperature B. increasing concentration C. increasing surface area D. same reaction rate

D. same reaction rate

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of reaction? A. it increases both the frequency and energy of particle collisions B. it only increases the frequency of particle collisions C. it only increases the energy of particle collisions D. it reduces the activation energy of the reaction

A. it increases both the frequency and energy of particle collisions

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction? A. it lowers the activation energy B. it increases the amount of reactants C. it increases the energy of particle collisions D. it increases the frequency of particle collisions

D. it increases the frequency of particle collisions

Which of the following is the result of more collisions? A. faster reaction rate B. slower reaction rate C. varying reaction rate D. same reaction rate

A. faster reaction rate

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction? A. the reactants must be vaporized B. chemical bonds must be destroyed C. the temperature must be above 0oC D. collisions must occur between reactant particles

D. collisions must occur between reactant particles

Which is the effect of faster product formation? A. temperature is decreased B. the reaction is not stirred C. the particle size of the reactants is larger D. c concentration of the reactants is increased

C. the particle size of the reactants is larger

Which of the collisions is brought about by a chemical reaction? A. consistent collisions B. normal collisions C. effective collisions D. same reaction rate

A. consistent collisions

Which will happen most likely happen when there are more collisions? A. faster reaction rate B. constant reaction rate C. slower reaction rate D. same reaction rate

A. faster reaction rate

Which of the following is/are the fundamental idea/s of collision theory? A. Molecules react by colliding together B. The effective collisions must occur with certain minimum amounts of energy C. The effective collisions must occur with certain maximum amounts of energy D. In a large sample, the greater the number of effective collisions, and the faster the rate of reaction.

A. Molecules react by colliding together

What two factors govern whether a collision between reacting particles will be effective? A. orientation and potential energy B. kinetic energy and temperature C. kinetic energy and orientation D. potential energy and kinetic energy

C. kinetic energy and orientation

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction? A. it reduces the activation energy of the reaction B. it only increases the energy of particle collisions C. it only increases the frequency of particle collisions D. it increases both the frequency and energy of particle collisions.

B. it only increases the energy of particle collisions

According to the collision theory, the particles must collide with ____ and ____ for a reaction to occur. A. sufficient rate; sufficient energy B. sufficient surface area; correct orientation C. sufficient catalyst; sufficient energy D. sufficient energy; correct orientation

D. sufficient energy; correct orientation

Written literature is defined as: a. self- expression of thought b. ancient form of literature c. use of pen by literary intellect d. word of mouth

c. use of pen by literary intellect

Linguistically identified, these are ethnic groups that share centuries of residence in Cagayan River at Northern Luzon: a. Tagalog b. Ilocano c. Bisaya d. Gaddang

d. Gaddang

_____ is a traditional type of Filipino poem, that is used traditionally in the Tagalog language. a. Pasyon b. Tanaga c. Dalit d. Folklore

b. Tanaga

What was the epic recently featured for the Ballet Philippines and the cultural center of the Philippines as four National Artists come together in one of the most spectacular shows in the Philippine theater? a. Likhang Dila b. Rama Hari c. The Child of Sorrow d. Rak of Aegis

b. Rama Hari

Who was the author of “Don’t Take a Bath on a Friday: Philippine Superstitions and Folk Beliefs” and “Ngalang Pinoy: A Primer on Filipino Wordplay” who was also received the 1993 National Book Award for Children’s Literature and National Book Award citation for Excellence in 1992? a. “Neni” Sta. Romana Cruz b. Bienvenido Lumbera c. Manuel Arguilla d. Bj Patino

a. “Neni” Sta. Romana Cruz

Who was the writer of the poem Apo on the Wall? a. BJ patino b. Merlinda Bobis c. Resil Mojares d. Ernesto Lariosa

a. BJ patino

What was the father’s work? a. a writer b. a teacher c. a soldier d. a cook

c. a soldier

What does lengua mean in Spanish? a. beef b. tongue c. ears d. mask

a. beef

Lengua Estofada is a Filipino dish made out of: a. beef tongue b. pig ears c. chicken meat d. fish sauce

a. beef tongue

In 1972, the entire Philippines was put under Martial Law, who was the president at that time? a. Ferdinand Marcos b. Ninoy Aquino c. Rodrigo Duterte d. Fidel Ramos

a. Ferdinand Marcos

Visayas is home of many cultural heritages and anticipated religious ________. A. shows B. products C. festivals D. rituals

C. festivals

Which is not one of Visayas’ common literary themes? A. struggles and defeats in life B. family life and relationship C. triumph over adversities D. fads and fashion

D. fads and fashion

Which is not true about contemporary Cebuano poetry? A. experimental and short B. use classical images C. repetitive and free verse D. return to concretion

C. repetitive and free verse

What tone is common in the poem Litratong Kuspaw and the song Azucena? A. serious and conversational B. comical yet conversational C. sarcastic yet conversational D. serious and sympathetic

A. serious and conversational

What does it mean by a queer writing of Cebuano fiction? A. It is adventurous. B. It is peculiar. C. It is sentimental. D. It is factual.

B. It is peculiar.

What is the meaning of the underlined phrase “Visayas is the cradle of Filipino life experience”? A. The foundation of civilization B. The product of knowledge C. The pride of the region D. The root of history

A. The foundation of civilization

Which critical approach is best used when you want to examine cultural, economic, and political context? A. Gender Criticism B. Psychological Criticism C. Society Criticism D. Sociological Criticism

D. Sociological Criticism

Which of the following is the basic and direct question for psychological criticism? A. What happened? B. Where have you been? C. What did you do? D. Why did you do that?

D. Why did you do that?

In gender criticism, power can be explored through A. Author B. Content C. POV D. Social relationships

D. Social relationships

What do you call when a memory is too painful, the person pushes the information out of his consciousness and becomes unaware of its existence? A. denial B. displacement C. projection D. repression

D. repression

Agua de Viuda is a poem about A. a woman who cries for her husband. B. a woman who wants to cheat. C. a woman whose spouse has died. D. a woman whose spouse has died and hopes for another chance of love.

D. a woman whose spouse has died and hopes for another chance of love.

What literary criticism will likely be used in the literary text below: “She had taken care of their three children while he spent most of his time making sure the cocks were fed well” A. Gender criticism B. Psychological criticism C. Theoretical criticism D. Physical criticism

A. Gender criticism

Which of the following is not considered in gender criticism? A. Oppression B. Reasons C. Stereotypes D. Social expectations

B. Reasons

Using sociological criticism, which among the line depicts the economic status of the family in the story “All these fighting cocks”? A. Cocks were fed well, their food way more expensive than the kids. B. The anthurium in her garden, tearing their red leaves into pieces. C. She decided to cook them into delicacies her children had never tried: tinolang manok, adobong manok, pritong manok, ginataang manok. D. He was tired of going to all those stupid cockfights.

C. She decided to cook them into delicacies her children had never tried: tinolang manok, adobong manok, pritong manok, ginataang manok.

Using psychological criticism, why would the wife tie her husband? A. She was tired because they do not have enough food. B. The husband does not have a decent job. C. The husband is addicted to cock fighting. D. The fighting cocks had started pecking at the anthurium in her garden.

D. The fighting cocks had started pecking at the anthurium in her garden.

Power, perspective and gender relations are components of ______ A. Gender Criticism B. Psychological Criticism C. Marxism D. Sociological Criticism

A. Gender Criticism

Which of the following critical approach focuses not just on women but on the construction of gender, and sexuality? A. Gender Criticism B. Psychological Criticism C. Feminism D. Sociological Criticism

A. Gender Criticism

Psychological Criticism has an assumption that literature comes from A. the authors reading ability. B. the unconscious of the author. C. the authors knowledge on society’s issue. D. the authors favorite experience.

B. the unconscious of the author.

Which of the following is less/not used in gender criticism? A. How is the relationship between men and women portrayed? B. What does the work imply about the possibilities of sisterhood? C. What does the work say about men’s strength? D. What made him do it?

D. What made him do it?

Which of the following is not a checklist for psychological critical questions? A. What connections can you make between your knowledge of an author’s life? B. To what extent can you employ the concept of Freud? C. How does a particular literary work reveal psychological motivation? D. What does the work say about women’s creativity at home?

D. What does the work say about women’s creativity at home?

Which of the following terms does not belong to sociological criticism? A. culture B. economic C. feelings D. political

C. feelings

It is a literary presentation where the author incorporates doodle writing and drawings and handwritten graphics in place of the traditional font Spanish period. A. Digi-Fiction B. Science Fiction C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

C. Doodle Fiction

It is a digital literature that uses links and includes parts that move or mutate. A. Blog B. Hyper Poetry C. Flash Fiction D. Digi-Fiction

B. Hyper Poetry

It is a genre of speculative fiction dealing with imaginative concepts such as futuristic science and technology, space travel, time travel, faster than light travel, a parallel universe, and extra-terrestrial life. A. Digi-Fiction B. Science Fiction C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

B. Science Fiction

It is a comic book or book series published in Japan. A. Manga B. Illustrated Novel C. Doodle Fiction D. Digi-Fiction

A. Manga

They are stories characterized by their brevity. It could range from a word to a thousand. A. Creative nonfiction B. Blog C. Hyper Poetry D. Flash Fiction

D. Flash Fiction

It is a narrative work in which a story is told using a comic form. A. Manga B. Graphic Novel C. Digi-Fiction D. Illustrated Novel

A. Manga

The 39 Clues book series by Scholastic, where stories are told using the combination of book, video, and website, is an example of this literary genre. A. Digi-Fiction B. Science Fiction C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

A. Digi-Fiction

It is a story that develops through a screenshot of SMS conversation like Vince and Kath by Jenny Ruth Almocera is an example of this literary genre. A. Chick Lit B. Hyper Poetry C. Digi-Fiction D. Text-Talk Novel

D. Text-Talk Novel

It is a story that uses literary techniques to create accurate narratives like travel and nature stories in Robert Macfarlane’s The Wild Places is an example of this literary genre. A. Digi-Fiction B. Science Fiction C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

D. Creative Non-Fiction

It is a site of collected posts or articles written by one or more people and updated regularly. A. Blog B. Hyper Poetry C. Flash Fiction D. Digi-Fiction

A. Blog

They are tales are written and presented using dialogues in social media applications. A. Chick Lit B. Hyper Poetry C. Digi-Fiction D. Text-Talk Novel

D. Text-Talk Novel

It is a genre where drawings, illustrations, and handwritten graphics incorporated. A. Digi-Fiction B. Illustrated Novel C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

C. Doodle Fiction

Before it was adapted into an anime, Yoshihiro Togashi’s Hunter x Hunter is a comic book series from Japan that falls under this literary genre. A. Manga B. Graphic Novel C. Digi-Fiction D. Illustrated Novel

A. Manga

Christopher Ford’s Stickman Odyssey, which tells the story through text and handwritten graphics, is an example of this literary genre. A. Digi-Fiction B. Illustrated Novel C. Doodle Fiction D. Creative Non-Fiction

C. Doodle Fiction

Sophie Kinsella’s Confessions of a Shopaholic, which revolves around a woman’s shopping addiction and her journey to overcoming it, is an example of this literary genre. A. Chick Lit B. Hyper Poetry C. Digi-Fiction D. Text-Talk Novel

A. Chick Lit

Maraming karamdaman ang dala ng virus. Ang sumusunod ay ukol sa salitang may salunggguhit maliban sa: A. isang uri ng mikrobyo B. sanhi ng maraming sakit C. nakikita gamit ang mga mata lamang D. maliit at di-nakikita ng mga mata

C. nakikita gamit ang mga mata lamang

Natatamnan ng mga niyog, mangga at kakaw ang malawak na lupain ng mga Olivarez. A. pangunahing produktong pang-agrikultura ng Pilipinas B. Maraming lupain sa Pilipinas ang natatamnan ng mga niyog, mangga at kakaw. C. Maraming produktong nagagawa mula niyog, mangga at kakaw. D. Lahat sa Nabanggit

D. Lahat sa Nabanggit

Kailangan nating magmatyag upang hindi makapasok sa ating nasasakupan ang mga dayuhan. A. magtika B. magbantay C. magliwaliw D. makipag-ugnayan

B. magbantay

Maraming namumuhunan ang pumasok sa bansa. A. mamimili B. turista C. dayuhan D. Kapitalista

D. Kapitalista

Nitong nagdaang mga buwan, napapansing tumaas ang antas ng kahirapan sa bansa. A. Ito ay kakayahan ng taong bilhin ang kaniyang mga pangangailangan at mga gusto. B. Ito ay antas ng mahihirap at mayayaman sa lipunan. C. Ito ay panukatang pang-ekonomiks hinggil sa kakayahan ng pamilyang tustusan ang kanilang pangunahing pangangailangan. D. Wala sa Nabanggit

C. Ito ay panukatang pang-ekonomiks hinggil sa kakayahan ng pamilyang tustusan ang kanilang pangunahing pangangailangan.

Ang buhay ay mahiwaga kaya _____________ ay mahirap ipaliwanag. A. ito - katapora B. ito - referent C. ito - anapora D. ito – panghalip

A. ito - katapora

Magulo raw ang buhay, kaya’t nais na ni Tasyang wakasan ang _________ buhay. A. kaniyang -referent B. kaniyang -katapora C. kaniyang - panghalip D. kaniyang – anaphora

B. kaniyang -katapora

Kapag umuulan, natutuwa si Lora kasi nadidiligan daw ang mga halamang alaga ____________. A. niya- katapora B. niya- referent C. niya - anapora D. niya – panghalip

C. niya - anapora

____________ ay magsikap sapagkat ang mga mag-aaral na tulad mo ay kailangang magtagumpay sa buhay. A. Ikaw - anapora B. Ikaw - referent C. Ikaw - katapora D. Ikaw – panghalip

C. Ikaw - katapora

Umani ____________ ng gulay at prutas kaya’t masaya na ang mga magsasaka. A. sila - panghalip B. sila - anapora C. sila - referent D. sila – katapora

D. sila – katapora

Produktibo ang yamang lupa sa Pilipinas kaya’t mainam na ___________ ay pagyamanin. A. ito - anapora B. ito - panghalip C. ito - referent D. ito – katapora

A. ito - anapora

Isa lang __________ dukha, subalit ang taong tulad ko ay may karapatan ding magmahal. A. ako - panghalip B. ako - anapora C. ako - katapora D. ako – referent

D. ako – referent

___________ ang pag-asa ng ating bayan, sapagkat ang mga kabataan ay may taglay pang lakas. A. Tayo - referent B. Tayo - katapora C. Tayo - panghalip D. Tayo – anaphora

B. Tayo - katapora

______________ ay isang magaling na manggagamot kaya maraming humahanga sa kanya. A. Siya - panghalip B. Siya - anapora C. Siya - katapora D. Siya – referent

C. Siya - katapora

Ang bata ay masayahin kaya naman ang mga magulang ________ ay tuwang-tuwa. A. niya - anapora B. niya - panghalip C. niya - referent D. niya – katapora

A. niya - anapora

What is the purpose of a compare/contrast essay? A. tell a story B. inform or explain a subject to the reader C. talk about the similarities and differences of two subjects D. use the five senses to paint a picture for the reader, incorporating imagery and specific details

C. talk about the similarities and differences of two subjects

What function does an opening statement or hook do in an essay? A. engages the reader B. can be a short story about a new age Cinderella C. engages the reader and introduces BOTH subjects D. introduces what you are going to prove for the rest of the essay

A. engages the reader

Which statement defines a thesis statement? A. the evidence used to back up claims B. a statement of the main claims of the essay C. the judgement that appears at the end of an essay D. a device used to pull readers into your essay

D. a device used to pull readers into your essay

Which two things should a conclusion paragraph include? A. a final point of comparison and a salutation B. a new idea and a concluding statement C. a summary of the main points and a final opinion D. the most important piece of evidence and a restatement of the thesis

D. the most important piece of evidence and a restatement of the thesis

What should be the last sentence in the introduction paragraph? A. thesis statement B. topic sentence C. closing sentence D. transition sentence

A. thesis statement

Which of the following words or phrases can be used to show a comparison? A. While B. Similarly C. In contrast D. On the other hand

D. On the other hand

Which of the following words or phrases could be used when contrasting? A. Similarly B. Nonetheless C. In conclusion D. On the other hand

D. On the other hand

What is the difference between subject by subject and point by point method of development? A. The thesis statement B. The opening statement C. The object being discussed D. The way in arranging the ideas

D. The way in arranging the ideas

Which part of a paragraph introduces the readers to the purpose of the text? a. middle b. conclusion c. beginning d. topic sentence

c. beginning

Which of the following is not a technique in text organization? a. arrangement b. text structure c. signal words d. physical format

a. arrangement

Which of the cohesion and coherence techniques refers to words that connect readers to the original word that they replace. a. transition b. repetition c. pronoun d. parallel structure

c. pronoun

Which of the following best describes a well-written text? a. It refers to the writer’s knowledge of the fundamental properties of grammar. b. It constitutes proper paragraphing and logical order of presentation of ideas. c. It is built around effective paragraphing, coherence and established conventions. d. It involves the properties that show the interplay of both the physical aspects of organization and deeper textual aspects.

c. It is built around effective paragraphing, coherence and established conventions.

What type of transition word is used in the sentence below? Ben refused to submit his credentials. As a result, he was sanctioned by the school. a. contrast b. example c. causation d. comparison

c. causation

Which of the sentences below uses correct punctuation? a. She said she loved the book, so I gave it to her. b. She said: she loved the book, so I gave it to her. c. She said she loved the book; so, I gave it to her. d. She said she loved the book: so, I gave it to her.

a. She said she loved the book, so I gave it to her.

Which of the statements below uses a formal language? a. He’s gonna be angry. b. We hafta leave now. c. Hey buddy! Wanna go to the dance? d. We cordially invite you to attend the wedding ceremony.

d. We cordially invite you to attend the wedding ceremony.

What punctuation mark is lacking in the statement below? The weak tottery patient fell in his hospital room. a. comma b. semicolon c. apostrophe d. quotation marks

a. comma

Which one of the following sentences observes correct capitalization? a. The notice was already forwarded to lisa. b. His limousine was sold at a cheaper price. c. The Judges’ decision was final and irrevocable. d. The Malaysian student made an outstanding performance.

d. The Malaysian student made an outstanding performance.

Which property of well-written text is applied in the text below? During the early twentieth century, in addition to industrialization, urban growth, and technological development, Australian society was experiencing a transformation of the domestic ideal. a. organization b. paragraphing c. writing mechanics d. coherence and cohesion

c. writing mechanics

Which coherence and cohesion technique is applied in the statement below? If you think you can do it, you can do it. a. transition b. repetition c. use of pronoun d. parallel structure

b. repetition

What transitional word is appropriate to connect the statements below? The characters in Movie A face a moral dilemma. ______, the characters in Movie B face a similar problem. a. for instance b.nevertheless c. in spite of d. in the same way

d. in the same way

Which coherence and cohesion technique is applied in the statement below? President Rodrigo Duterte was the 16 th President of the Republic of the Philippines. He is also the former Mayor of Davao City for a long time. a. transition b. repetition c. use of pronoun d. parallel structure

c. use of pronoun

Which of the sentences below uses correct punctuation? a. You asked forgiveness, he granted it to you. b. You asked forgiveness; he granted it to you. c. You asked: forgiveness. He granted it to you. d. You asked forgiveness he granted it to you.

b. You asked forgiveness; he granted it to you.

Suppose you toss a fair coin two times; how many possible outcomes are there? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8

c. 4

A die is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number that is greater than 6? a. 0/ 6 or 0 b. 1/ 6 c. 5 /6 d. 6/ 6 or 1

a. 0/ 6 or 0

In a family of three children, what is the probability that the middle child is a girl? a. 1/ 8 b. 1 / 4 c. 1 / d. 1/ 2

d. 1/ 2

A coin is tossed thrice. What is the probability of having two heads and a tail? a. 1/ 8 b. 1/ 2 c. 3/ 8 d. 1

c. 3/ 8

It is a table showing all the possible value of a discrete random variable together with their corresponding probabilities. a. Discrete Probability Distribution b. Continuous Probability Distribution c. Probability d. All of the above

a. Discrete Probability Distribution

It is a variable that cannot be represented by a whole number. a. Probability variable b. Random variable c. Discrete random variable d. Continuous random variable

d. Continuous random variable

Y = dropout rate (%) in a certain high school. What are the possible values of each random variable? a. Y = {x│0 ≤ x ≤ 10} b. Y = {x│0 ≤ x ≤ 20} c. Y = {x│0 ≤ x ≤ 30} d. Y = {x│0 ≤ x ≤ 100}

d. Y = {x│0 ≤ x ≤ 100}

X = number of heads in tossing a coin thrice. What are the possible values of each random variable? a. X={0,1,2,3} b. X={1,2,3} c. X={0,2,3} d.X={1,2,4}

a. X={0,1,2,3}

A glass of jar contains 40 red, green, blue, and yellow marbles. The probability of drawing a single green marble at random is 1/5. What does this mean? a. There are 5 green marbles in the glass jar. b. There are 8 green marbles in the glass jar. c. There are more green marbles than the others. d. There is only one green marble in the glass jar.

b. There are 8 green marbles in the glass jar.

Apple got coins from his pocket which accidentally rolled on the floor. If there were 16 probable outcomes, how many coins fell on the floor? a. 3 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

b. 4

What is the shape of a normal curve distribution? a. Circle b. Square c. Rectangle d. Bell-shaped

d. Bell-shaped

What is the total area under the normal curve? a. 1 b. 0.997 c. 0.95 d. 0.68

a. 1

What is the area that falls within 2 standard deviations from the mean? a. 1 b. 0.997 c. 0.95 d. 0.68

c. 0.95

Which of the following is TRUE about the characteristics of a normal curve distribution? a. The curve divides into 4 regions. b. The curve is asymmetrical about the mean. c. The curve extends indefinitely to the right side only. d. The total area under the normal curve is 100%.

d. The total area under the normal curve is 100%.

Suppose that the mean is 40 and the standard deviation is 3. Which of the following statement is correct? a. About 68% of the area under the normal curve is within 34 and 43. b. About 95% of the area under the normal curve is within 34 and 46. c. About99.7%oftheareaunderthenormalcurveiswithin31and 46. d. About 100% of the area under the normal curve is within 31 and 49.

b. About 95% of the area under the normal curve is within 34 and 46.

Which of the following is TRUE about standard normal distribution? a. 𝜇=0𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=0 b. 𝜇=1𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=1 c. 𝜇=0𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=1 d. 𝜇=1𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=0

c. 𝜇=0𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=1

It is a procedure when a raw score is converted to a z-score. a. Concluding a raw score b. Normalizing a raw score c. Summarizing a raw score d. Standardizing a raw score

d. Standardizing a raw score

How will you find the area if both z-scores are in the right side of the mean? a. Subtract the two areas b. Multiply the two areas c. Divide the two areas d. Add the two areas

a. Subtract the two areas

What is the equivalent z-score of x=13 if 𝜇=10𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜎=2? a. 2.5 b. 1.5 c. -1.5 d. -2.5

c. -1.5

Suppose that the score in Mathematics exam is normally distributed with a mean of 20 and a standard deviation of 4. What percentage of the scores fall between 18 and 26? a. 64.27% b. 64.72% c. 62.74% d. 62.47%

d. 62.47%

62.47% 1. Which of the following refers to a chance sampling method? a. Random sample b. Random sampling c. Systematic sample d. Systematic sampling

b. Random sampling

What do you call a numerical value calculated by using all the data in a population? a. Parameter b. Random Sample c. Statistic d. Variance

a. Parameter

What refers to a numerical value calculated by using only the data from a sample? a. Parameter b. Random Sample c. Statistic d. Variance

c. Statistic

What is commonly known as average and could be calculated by adding all values in a data and dividing the sum with the number of values? a. Parameter b. Mean c. Median d. Variance

b. Mean

What refers to the degree of spread or variability of a data? a. Parameter b. Mean c. Median d. Variance

d. Variance

A type of eating habit before heavy training, an athlete needs the right kind of food that can provide the proper fuel for his or her energy requirement. A. Fueling for Performance b. Emotional Eating c. Social Eating

A. Fueling for Performance

The practice of consuming large amounts of food in response to emotions instead of hunger. A. Distracted Eating b. Emotional Eating c. Social Eating

b. Emotional Eating

The type of eating habit done while watching tv or recreation events for extended periods of time possess serious risk to one’s health. A. Distracted Eating B. Fueling for Performance C. Emotional Eating

A. Distracted Eating

A person who indulges food even if they are not hungry for the sake of being sociable and not to offend the host or the group. A. Distracted Eating b. Emotional Eating c. Social Eating

c. Social Eating

Refers to why and how people eat, which foods they eat, and with whom they eat, as well as the ways people obtain, store, use, and discard food. A. Fueling for Performance B. Types of Eating C. Eating Habit

C. Eating Habit

What is considered things in your life that may increase your chances of developing a certain condition or disease? A. Lifestyle B. Attitude C. Risks Factors D. Life’s Choices

C. Risks Factors

What are some of the risks factors that you have little or no control over it are listed below except one. A. Family history of a disease B. Sex/Gender C. Ancestry D. Balance diet

D. Balance diet

Which of the following is considered a risk factor that you have in control with? A. Sex/Gender B. Physical Activity C. Family History of a Disease D. Ancestry

B. Physical Activity

Which of the following is a type of a risk factor? A. Environmental B. Health services C. Social Factors D. Economic Status

A. Environmental

What is said to be the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity? A. Lifestyle B. Fitness C. Health D. All of these

C. Health

When does the Earth cast a round shadow on the surface of the Moon? A. During solar eclipse B. During lunar eclipse C. During winter solstice D. During summer solstice

B. During lunar eclipse

What was not important in Eratosthenes's measurement of Earth's circumference? A. The enormous size of the Sun B. The number of degrees in a circle C. The distance from Syene to Alexandria D. The angle of a shadow cast by a vertical pole

A. The enormous size of the Sun

Which of these pieces of evidences does not support the Greek's idea of a spherical Earth? A. The North Star (Polaris) cannot be seen in the South Pole. B. The sail disappears last when a ship sails away over the ocean. C. The curvature of the Earth's surface causes the light rays to bend. D. The Earth's shadow cast on the surface of the Moon is round during a lunar eclipse.

C. The curvature of the Earth's surface causes the light rays to bend.

When did Eratosthenes observe a shadow cast by a vertical pole in Alexandria? A. At noon during the winter solstice B. At noon during the summer solstice C. In the morning during the winter solstice D. In the morning during the summer solstice

B. At noon during the summer solstice

Where is Polaris located in the night sky when you are standing at the equator? A. It’s closer to the horizon. B. It's 30 degrees above the ground. C. It's in the middle of the sky or overhead. D. It stays in its position wherever you observe it in the night sky.

A. It’s closer to the horizon.

Which of the following describes the position of Polaris if you travel closer to the North Pole? A. It gradually disappears. B. It stays closer to the horizon. C. It doesn’t change its position in the night sky. D. It seems to rise higher and higher in the night sky

D. It seems to rise higher and higher in the night sky

What is the equivalent value of Eratosthenes calculation of the Earth's circumference in kilometers? A. 30 000 kilometers B. 40 000 kilometers C. 50 000 kilometers D. 60 000 kilometers

B. 40 000 kilometers

What is the shape of the Earth according to modern astronomy? A. ellipsoid B. rhomboid C. oblate spheroid D. hyperbolic paraboloid

C. oblate spheroid

Which of the following can be observed of a cruising ship sailing from the port to the open sea? A. It will not change its size. B. It will become bigger and bigger. C. It will become smaller and smaller until it disappears. D. It will appear to sink then only the sail will be visible until it completely disappears.

D. It will appear to sink then only the sail will be visible until it completely disappears.

Who believed that spheres were the most perfect shapes and therefore all the heavenly objects including Earth must be spherical? A. Aristotle B. Pythagoras C. Anaxagoras D. Eratosthenes

B. Pythagoras

What is the measurement of the angle of a shadow cast by a vertical pole in Alexandria? A. 5.1o B. 6.1o C. 7.1o D. 8.1o

C. 7.1o

Why is it that Eratosthenes’s calculation of the Earth’s circumference solidifies ancient Greeks’ belief of a spherical Earth? A. It is because he used vertical poles to observe the shadow cast on two different cities. B. It is because he assumed that the light rays from the Sun are parallel when they reach Earth. C. It is because he observed the shadows cast on two different cities during the summer solstice. D. It is because he determined the value of the distance between the two cities from a complete circle.

D. It is because he determined the value of the distance between the two cities from a complete circle.

What is the distance between Syene and Alexandria? A. 3,000 stadia B. 4,000 stadia C. 5,000 stadia D. 6,000 stadia

C. 5,000 stadia

What causes the difference in the angle of shadows cast in Syene and Alexandria at noon during a summer solstice according to Eratosthenes? A. The depth of the well in Syene B. The curvature of the Earth surface C. The distance between Syene and Alexandria D. The height of the vertical pole in Alexandria

B. The curvature of the Earth surface

What causes the change of constellations in the sky? A. This is due to the rotation of Earth on its axis. B. This is due to the motion of stars in the universe. C. This is due to the motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun. D. This is due to the motion of the Sun along the line of the ecliptic.

C. This is due to the motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun.

How did ancient people make use of their observations in the sky? A. They used it to plan for war and conquer new lands. B. They used it to entertain themselves during the night. C. They used it to predict their future and make stories of heroes. D. They used it for telling time, navigation, agriculture, and religious practices.

D. They used it for telling time, navigation, agriculture, and religious practices.

Which of the following planets canWhich of the following planets cannot be seen through the naked eye? A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Neptune D. Mercury C. Neptune D. Mercury

C. Neptune

What would you expect to see if the Moon passes directly between the Sun and Earth? A. Solar eclipse B. Lunar eclipse C. Phases of the Moon D. Motion of planets

A. Solar eclipse

How many days does the Moon complete its phases? A. 26.5 days B. 27.5 days C. 28.5 days D. 29.5 days

D. 29.5 days

Which constellation does NOT belong to the group? A. Leo B. Virgo C. Aries D. Orion

D. Orion

Which astronomical phenomena was used as the basis of creating ancient calendars? A. Phases of the Moon B. Occurrence of comets C. Appearance of eclipses D. Changing positions of the constellations

A. Phases of the Moon

Which astronomical phenomena was used to mark the onset of seasons? A. Motion of planets B. Appearance of comets C. Occurrence of eclipses D. Changing positions of the constellations

D. Changing positions of the constellations

What would you expect to see when the Earth passes directly between the Sun and the Moon? A. Solar eclipse B. Lunar eclipse C. Phases of the Moon D. Motion of planets

B. Lunar eclipse

Which astronomical phenomena is considered to foretell the future of the Emperor in ancient China? A. Motion of planets B. Phases of the Moon C. Occurrence of eclipses D. Appearance of comets

C. Occurrence of eclipses

Which astronomical phenomena signifies incoming catastrophes for ancient people? A. Motion of planets B. Appearance of comets C. Occurrence of eclipses D. Phases of the Moon

B. Appearance of comets

What celestial bodies are moving along or near the ecliptic aside from the five visible planets? A. Sun, Moon, and Earth B. Sun, Moon, and comets C. Sun, Moon, and meteors D. Sun, Moon, and zodiac constellations

D. Sun, Moon, and zodiac constellations

What is the direction of the motion of planets along the ecliptic against the background of fixed stars? A. northward B. southward C. eastward D. westward

C. eastward

Which planet is the brightest among the others that can be seen in the night sky? A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Neptune D. Mercury

A. Venus

What kind of motion is exhibited by planets that puzzled ancient astronomers for centuries? A. eastward motion B. retrograde motion C. fixed motion D. seasonal motion

B. retrograde motion

Why did Brahe hire Kepler as his research assistant? A. Because Brahe did not know how to interpret his data. B. Because Brahe had not enough time in proving his theory. C. Because Brahe is a close friend of Kepler and needed a companion. D. Because Brahe needed Kepler to do mathematical calculations to prove his theory.

D. Because Brahe needed Kepler to do mathematical calculations to prove his theory.

Which of the following is NOT a contribution of Brahe in the field of astronomy? A. He devised the first-ever telescope. B. He revolutionized astronomical instrumentation. C. He changed the observational practice profoundly. D. He designed, built, and calibrated astronomical instruments precisely.

A. He devised the first-ever telescope.

Which among the following statements is CORRECT about the law of ellipses? A. Planets move in a circular orbit with the sun at the center. B. Planets move in an elliptical orbit with the sun as one of the foci. C. The period and the average distance are related by two-thirds power. D. The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps equal areas in equal times as the planet revolves around the sun.

B. Planets move in an elliptical orbit with the sun as one of the foci.

Which law of planetary motion states that planets sweep equal areas of their orbit over equal time intervals? A. Law of ellipses B. Law of equal areas C. Law of periods D. Law of gravity

B. Law of equal areas

That the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the mean distance from the sun is the statement of which law of planetary motion? A. Law of ellipses B. Law of equal areas C. Law of periods D. Law of gravity

C. Law of periods

Which of the following is NOT Brahe’s contribution? A. He made observations of a supernova in 1572. B. He made careful observation of a comet in 1577. C. He formulated the three laws of planetary motion. D. He designed and built astronomical instruments precisely.

C. He formulated the three laws of planetary motion.

Which of the following views of the universe was supported by the laws of planetary motion? A. Geocentric view B. Heliocentric view C. Tychonic view D. Geoheliocentric view

B. Heliocentric view

Which among Brahe’s contributions in astronomy paved the way for the formulation of Kepler’s Law of Ellipses? A. He made observations of a supernova in 1572. B. He made careful observation of a comet in 1577. C. He designed and built astronomical instruments precisely. D. He made observations of planetary motion, particularly that of planet Mars.

D. He made observations of planetary motion, particularly that of planet Mars.

Based on the first law of planetary motion, what is the shape of the planetary orbits? A. Cone B. Circle C. Ellipse D. Rectangle

C. Ellipse

Which law of planetary motion is also known as the Law of Harmony that marked the conclusion that there is a certain kind of harmony in the universe? A. Law of ellipses B. Law of equal areas C. Law of periods D. Law of gravity

B. Law of equal areas

Which of the instruments below is not yet invented during Brahe’s time? A. Quadrant B. Telescope C. Compass D. Astrolabe

B. Telescope

A planet travels faster as it gets closer to the sun and travels slower as it moves away from the sun. Which law of planetary motion best explains this statement? A. Law of ellipses B. Law of equal areas C. Law of periods D. Law of gravity

B. Law of equal areas

Which of the following astronomical instruments is NOT depicted and described in Brahe’s 1598 book Astronomiae instauratae mechanica? A. Astrolabe B. Armillary globe C. Great Globe D. Triangular sextant

A. Astrolabe

Which astronomical laboratory was first established by Brahe and became the finest observatory in Europe? A. Uraniborg B. Stellaeburgum C. Leiden D. Rundetaarn

A. Uraniborg

Which of the following astronomers is credited with the discovery of the three laws of planetary motion? A. Brahe B. Kepler C. Ptolemy D. Copernicus

B. Kepler

What is the tendency of an object to resist change in its motion? A. Gravity B. Force C. Inertia D. Mass

C. Inertia

Which law states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force? A. Law of Inertia B. Law of Interaction C. Law of Acceleration D. Law of Gravitation

A. Law of Inertia

What is the subtle difference between Newton’s first law of motion and Galileo’s assertion that force is not necessary to sustain horizontal motion? A. There should be no unbalanced forces acting on an object in horizontal motion. B. The net external force acting on an object in horizontal motions must be equal to zero. C. Should there be friction acting on an object in horizontal motion, another force is needed to balance it out. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to Galileo, what would happen to the height of the ball as it rolls down the inclined plane if the external force is removed? A. Original height is equal to the initial height. B. Original height is lesser than the initial height. C. Original height is greater than the initial height. D. Original and final height cannot be determined.

A. Original height is equal to the initial height.

Who postulated the Law of Inertia? A. Galileo B. Newton C. Aristotle D. Copernicus

B. Newton

When a car driver suddenly makes a sharp turn, the passenger slides to the side of the car. Which of the following best describes the situation? A. acceleration B. inertia C. gravity D. friction

B. inertia

Inertia is directly related to the mass of an object. Using this concept, which of the following objects has the greatest inertia given their respective masses? A. 500 g book B. 500 mg tablet C. 500 kg rock D. 500 tons ship

D. 500 tons ship

According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, what will happen to a moving object if there is no unbalanced force acting on it? A. It will continue in motion. B. It will eventually come to stop. C. It will transfer energy to another object. D. It will accelerate in the absence of friction.

A. It will continue in motion.

Which of the following objects found inside a car is NOT an application of the law of inertia? A. seatbelt B. airbag C. headrest D. windshield

D. windshield

Which of the following is a vector quantity that is measured in Newton- units and is the result of push or pull between interacting objects? A. velocity B. acceleration C. force D. motion

C. force

Which of the following is directly related to the inertia of an object? A. motion B. force C. gravity D. mass

D. mass

According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, what will happen to an object if there is no force acting on it? A. at rest, it would remain at rest B. in motion, it would remain in motion C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

C. both A and B

Suppose you are riding in a car. When the car suddenly stops, your body tends to keep moving in which direction? A. forward B. to the right C. to the left D. backward

A. forward

A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses without disturbing them. Which of the following concepts best explain this phenomenon? A. Inertia B. Acceleration C. Interaction D. Gravitation

A. Inertia

Who was the first scientist to conceptualized inertia? A. Galileo B. Newton C. Ptolemy D. Copernicus

A. Galileo

Which of the following idea about light was proposed by Newton? A. light is made of waves B. light is made of particles C. light is made of energy D. light is made of wave and particles

B. light is made of particles

Who was the first to perform an experiment that shows that light may be made of made of tiny particles? A. Einstein B. Maxwell C. Newton D. Young

A. Einstein

According to Newton, which of the following explains how particles of light propagate? A. Light travels very fast that it follows a straight path. B. Light particles hit a hard surface and is bounced back. C. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become faster in water. D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected while the others are refracted.

A. Light travels very fast that it follows a straight path.

Which of the following is Newton’s explanation on refraction of light? A. Light travels very fast that it follows a straight path. B. Light particles hit a hard surface and is bounced back. C. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become faster in water. D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected

C. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become faster in water.

Which of the following phenomenon was NOT thoroughly explained well by Newton’s model of light? A. propagation of light B. reflection of light C. refraction of light D. partial refraction of light

D. partial refraction of light

Which of the following explains how light is refracted according to the wave model? A. when light hits a surface, it bounces off at the same speed and angle. B. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become faster in water. C. When light wave travels at two different speeds, it will bend into the second medium. D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected while the others are refracted.

C. When light wave travels at two different speeds, it will bend into the second medium.

Which of the following models of light supports Einstein’s photoelectric effect? A. Wave model B. Energy model C. Particle model D. Dual nature model

D. Dual nature model

What will happen when light passes from one medium to another? A. Light accelerates B. Light bounces off C. Light changes direction D. Light scatters around

C. Light changes direction

Which model of light explains that light bounces off a surface just like a hard sphere hitting a hard surface? A. Wave model B. Particle model C. Dual nature model D. Both A and B

B. Particle model

Which model of light explains that when EM radiation encounter a surface that does not absorb the energy, it is bounces away from the surface? A. Wave model B. Particle model C. Dual nature model D. Both A and B

A. Wave model

This model explains that light is made of particles called photons which has wave like properties. A. Wave model B. Particle model C. Dual nature model D. Both A and B

C. Dual nature model

Which model of light was proposed after the photoelectric effect experiment? A. Wave model B. Particle model C. Dual nature model D. Both A and B

C. Dual nature model

According to Huygens, how is light propagated? A. Light is like a particle that travels very fast. B. Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties. C. Light is like a ball thrown upward which follows a curve path. D. Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

D. Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

According to the particle model of light, what happens to light when it passes from air to water? A. Water molecules attracts light so light travels faster. B. Water molecules hinder light so light travels slower. C. Water molecules attracts light so light travels slower. D. Water molecules acts as barriers thus bouncing it off.

A. Water molecules attracts light so light travels faster.

How does Einstein describe light? A. Light is like a particle that travels very fast. B. Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties. C. Light is like a ball thrown upward which follows a curve path. D. Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

B. Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties.

Which of the following EM radiation is made of photons? A. Infrared B. Light C. Ultraviolet ray D. All of the choices

D. All of the choices

Which of the following EM radiation carries most energy? A. Gamma ray B. Infrared C. Microwave D. Radio wave

A. Gamma ray

Which of the following frequencies of light carries most energy? A. 4.24x1014Hz B. 5.47x1014Hz C. 6.38x1014Hz D. 7.21x1014Hz

D. 7.21x1014Hz

What is the relationship between the wavelength of light and the energy it carries? A. As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries increases. B. As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries increases. C. As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries decreases. D. As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries remains the same.

B. As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries increases.

What is the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of light? A. The frequency of light increases as its wavelength increases. B. The frequency of light decreases as its wavelength decreases. C. The frequency of light increases as its wavelength decreases. D. The frequency of light is not related to the change in its wavelength.

C. The frequency of light increases as its wavelength decreases.

Which of the following will most likely occur to the electrons on the surface of a metal if the incident light has a photon energy less than the work function? A. The electrons will stay on the metal. B. The electrons will eject from the metal surface. C. The electrons will lose the kinetic energy. D. The electrons will obtain sufficient energy to eject over time.

A. The electrons will stay on the metal.

Which of the following will most likely occur to the electrons on the metal surface if the incident light has a photon energy greater than the work function? A. The electrons will heat up the metal. B. The electrons will eject from the metal surface. C. The electrons will obtain sufficient energy to eject over time. D. The electrons will be excited but it will remain on the metal surface.

B. The electrons will eject from the metal surface.

Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the EM radiation below according to increasing energy? 1. Infrared wave 2. Light 3. Gamma ray 4. Microwave 5. Radio A. 12345 B. 54123 C. 13452 D. 23541

B. 54123

What color of light is used in developing photographic film? A. blue B. green C. red D. violet

C. red

Which type/s of UV radiation is/are thought to cause skin cancer? A. UVA B. UVB C. UVC D. Both UVA and UVB

D. Both UVA and UVB

How much energy does an EM wave contain if it has a frequency of 4.96 x 1018 Hz? Remember that the Planck’s constant is equal to 6.63 x 10-34 J.s.0 A. 2.47x1015J B. 3.29x10-15J C. 6.27x1015J D. 7.48x10-15J

B. 3.29x10-15J

Why are your eyes not able to see UV radiations, like bees do? A. Because the cornea of the eyes scatters the UV radiations. B. Because the retina of the eyes reacts only to UV radiations. C. Because the retina of the eyes is only sensitive to the frequency of light. D. Because the cornea of the eyes blocks the UV radiations from hitting the retina.

C. Because the retina of the eyes is only sensitive to the frequency of light.

Which of the following phenomena can diffraction of light be observed? A. air trapped between two pieces of clear plastic produces rainbow-colored patterns B. sun radiates light to the clouds and creates silver lining C. colors and patterns in the soap film bubbles D. oil spill in water produces thin oil films

B. sun radiates light to the clouds and creates silver lining

Why is red light used in dark rooms instead of white light? A. Because red light enhances the color of the photographs. B. Because red light is the only color that the films react with. C. Because red light has inadequate energy to expose the films. D. Because red light has very high energy needed for developing films.

C. Because red light has inadequate energy to expose the films.

Which of the following refers to the separation of white light into its component colors when refracted? A. Diffraction B. Dispersion C. Interference D. Scattering

B. Dispersion

What happens to the energy that an EM radiation carries, when its wavelength increases? A. The energy of the EM radiation increases. B. The energy of the EM radiation decreases. C. The energy of the EM radiation remains the same. D. The energy is only related to frequency and not on the wavelength.

B. The energy of the EM radiation decreases.

Why do you get sunburn after taking a swim at the beach on a sunny day? A. Because the heat from the sun damages the skin. B. Because the ultraviolet rays from the sun damage the skin. C. Because the light from the sun is too bright that it damages the skin. D. Because the salt from the sea reacts with sunlight and damages the skin

B. Because the ultraviolet rays from the sun damage the skin.

Which of the following must occur in order to produce a wave that has the same wavelength but twice the amplitude of the two waves that meet? I. when two identical parts of two waves meet such as a crest of one wave meets the crest of another wave of the same wavelength II. when two opposite parts of two waves meet, for example, a crest of one wave meets the trough of another wave III. when a superposing of waves from different sources is observed A. I and II B. III C. II D. I

D. I

Which statement is the correct differentiation of diffraction and interference of light? A. Diffraction is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle or an opening, while interference is the result of the superposing of waves from different sources. B. Interference is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle or an opening, while diffraction is the result of the superposing of waves from different sources. C. Diffraction is the absorbing and scattering of light in all directions, while interference is the meeting of waves from different sources. D. Both A and B

C. Diffraction is the absorbing and scattering of light in all directions, while interference is the meeting of waves from different sources.

Which of the following explains the series of bright and dark lines on the screen as light passes through two narrow slits? A. wave-interference B. wave-refraction C. wave-reflection D. wave-scattering

A. wave-interference

Which does NOT correctly describe dispersion and scattering of light? A. Dispersion occurs when a beam of white light passes through a prism, and splits white light into different components, while scattering is the process in which light gets deflected by the tiny particles in the medium through which light passes. B. Dispersion is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a refraction or bending of light occurs, while scattering is the ability of particles to absorb light and scatter it in all directions. C. Scattering is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a refraction or bending of light occurs, while dispersion is the ability of particles to absorb light and scatter it in all directions.

C. Scattering is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a refraction or bending of light occurs, while dispersion is the ability of particles to absorb light and scatter it in all directions.

Which color/s of the visible spectrum is/are scattered most by the molecules of air and other fine particles? A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Blue and Red

A. Blue

Which of the following scenarios is true when color spectrum moves out from a prism? A. Red and orange are bent the most among the colors of the visible spectrum. B. Orange light is bent the most, while blue light is bent the least. C. Violet light is bent the most, while red light is bent the least. D. Red light is bent the most, while violet light is bent the least.

C. Violet light is bent the most, while red light is bent the least.

In an interference pattern, what do the white bands and dark bands of light represent? A. The white bands are the results of constructive interference, while the dark bands are the results of destructive interference. B. The white bands are the results of destructive interference, while the dark bands are the results of constructive interference. C. The white and dark bands are the results of combining both constructive and destructive interferences. D. The white and dark bands are the results of constructive interference.

A. The white bands are the results of constructive interference, while the dark bands are the results of destructive interference.

Which of the following sets of colors are arranged in decreasing frequency? A. yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet, red, orange B. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet C. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red D. blue, indigo, violet, red, orange, yellow, green

C. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red

On a rainy day, small oily films on water show brilliant colors. Which property of light explains this observation? A. Interference B. Polarization C. Refraction D. Scattering

A. Interference

Which of the following phenomena is an example of diffraction? A. light coming through a keyhole and spreading out in a dark room B. light entering a prism and emerging as a rainbow C. light bending as it enters a new medium D. light scattering in the atmosphere

A. light coming through a keyhole and spreading out in a dark room

What happens to the light when it strikes through a colloidal solution? A. It will pass unchanged. B. It will be scattered. C. It will be absorbed. D. It will be reflected.

B. It will be scattered.

Among the scientists, who discovered first the diffraction pattern produced by the double-slit experiment? A. Christian Huygens B. Thomas Young C. Albert Einstein D. Isaac Newton

B. Thomas Young

Which of the following properties of light describes the tendency for a narrow beam of light to spread or flare out? A. Diffraction B. Dispersion C. Reflection D. Refraction

A. Diffraction

What part of the book review critics the books and point out the strengths and weaknesses? a. Body b. Conclusion c. Introduction d. Reference

b. Conclusion

What part of the research report gives suggestion to the best course of action in the study? a. Discussion b. Conclusion c. Methods d. Recommendations

d. Recommendations

Who helped the researcher in analyzing numerical data? a. researcher b. respondents c. grammarian d. statistician

d. statistician

Which among the options help the readers to decide whether the book is worth reading or not? a. Book Review b. Position Paper c. Literature Review d. Research Report

c. Literature Review

What part of the literature review do you write the scope of the study? a. Body b. Conclusion c. Introduction d. Reference

c. Introduction

How important is gathering sources from writing the literature review? a. It describes how the propose research is related to prior research. b. It gives guidelines to choose sound method that is right for the research. c. It interprets the describes the significance of the findings in light of what was already known. d. It provides closure for the reader while reminding the reader of the contents and importance of the paper.

a. It describes how the propose research is related to prior research.

Which of the following parts of project proposal indicates the plans on how the project objectives will be achieved? a. project objectives/outcomes b. project methodology c. budgetary requirement d. project background

b. project methodology

Which among the options supports a position by citing credible sources? a. Book Review b. Position Paper c. Literature Review d. Research Report

c. Literature Review

What part of the book review do you need to write your summary? a. Body b. Conclusion c. Introduction d. Reference

a. Body

Which among the statements is NOT considered as part of the methodological part of research? a. It describes the most important aspects of the study. b. It includes a description of the research sample, and data collection. c. It includes tests, questionnaires, interview or observation forms and measurement. d. It provides scientific tools and techniques relevant for the problem chosen.

a. It describes the most important aspects of the study.

Which of the following parts of project proposal indicates the financial requirement of the project? a. project objectives/outcomes b. project methodology c. budgetary requirement d. project background

c. budgetary requirement

Which among the options is NOT considered as concluding part of a literature review? a. establish the problem b. summarize important aspects c. outline areas for future study d. state the demand in conducting the research

a. establish the problem

How do you interpret results from quantitative data? a. provide literature review b. make a critical suggestion c. provide graphs, tables and charts d. write statistical computations

c. provide graphs, tables and charts

Which among the options is considered as the purpose in writing literature review? a. question the accuracy of the topic b. build bridges between related topics c. relate personal experience to bridge the gap d. makes personal judgments based from the reader’s point of view

b. build bridges between related topics

Which among the statements below is NOT a characteristic of a literature review? a. To discover what has been written about a topic already b. To determine what each source contributes to the topic c. To critic the content and point out strengths and weaknesses d. To understand the relationship between the various contributions

c. To critic the content and point out strengths and weaknesses

Which of the following parts of project proposal includes work breakdown or staffing, task time estimates, and project deliverables? a. project objectives/outcomes b. project methodology c. budgetary requirement d. project background

b. project methodology

Why do you need to restate your thesis statement in the conclusion part? a. to point out the strength b. to explain what the book is about c. to provide are markable remark d. to prove your point and stand on the topic

d. to prove your point and stand on the topic

How do you determine if a source is credible? a. check TV ads for verification b. verify through blogs of famous artists c. consider bloodlines of the source’s relative d. examine the source’s and author’s credentials and affiliations

d. examine the source’s and author’s credentials and affiliations

Which of the following best describes a project proposal? a. a request for financial assistance to implement a project b. a concise and coherent summary of your proposed research c. a job application in a company d. a letter asking solicitation

a. a request for financial assistance to implement a project

It indicates how the project team will be organized, what development and collaboration tools will be used, and how the plan will be updated along the way. a. Project Approach Summary b. Work Breakdown and Task Time Estimates c. Project Deliverables d. budgetary requirement

a. Project Approach Summary

Which of the following is a challenge in preparing a project proposal? a. It is an essential marketing document that helps cultivate an initial professional relationship between an organization and a donor. b. It facilitates appropriate words for the conception of an idea. c. It has a framework that establishes ideas formally to a clear understanding of the project for the donor. d. It has often tight deadlines, so proposals are usually rejected.

d. It has often tight deadlines, so proposals are usually rejected.

Which of the following defines a project proposal? a. It outlines the plan of the organization about the project. b. It is the final document used to define an internal or external project. d. It is an individual achievement.

a. It outlines the plan of the organization about the project.

Which of the following is NOT an element of a project proposal? a. formulation of project elements b. converting the plan into a project document c. avoiding sponsors and stakeholders d. articulating the activities for the proposed project

c. avoiding sponsors and stakeholders

Which of the following is the main objective of a project proposal? a. formulation of project elements b. converting the plan into a project document c. a great way to secure funding, win new clients, or convince executives to allocate resources to projects. d. estimating the budget

c. a great way to secure funding, win new clients, or convince executives to allocate resources to projects.

Which of the following is not a description of a project proposal? a. It is a document that describes a proposed project and its purpose, outcomes and the steps that will be taken to complete the project b. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to approach a project. c. It is a request for financial assistance to implement a project. d. It requires being on the same page with the clients and wearing their shoes for a moment.

b. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to approach a project.

Which of the following parts of a project proposal gives an overview of what the project is about? a. project objectives/outcomes b. project methodology c. budgetary requirement d. project background

d. project background

Which of the following is not important in project proposal preparation? a. To describe services and outcomes from a potential service provider so decision makers can compare vendors and pick the best provider for their needs b. It should be considered a sales document that persuades the decision-maker or stakeholder that the prospective provider has the skills and expertise needed to complete the project to their satisfaction c. It should also set expectations, detail budget and timeline, as well as set expectations for what delivery would look like. d. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to approach a project.

d. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to approach a project.

Which of the following is considered the first step in project proposal preparation? a. writing b. planning c. asking d. reviewing

b. planning

Which of the following is considered when writing a successful project proposal? a. It requires being on the same page with the clients and wearing their shoes for a moment. b. It needs more people to formulate a proposal. c. It needs a year or two to prepare for the needed materials. d. It needs writing conventions.

a. It requires being on the same page with the clients and wearing their shoes for a moment.

Which of the following parts of a project proposal states explicitly what the project aims to achieve? a. project objectives/outcomes b. project methodology c. budgetary requirement d. project background

a. project objectives/outcomes

Which of the following refers to a formal document that a job applicant creates to itemize his or her qualifications for a position? A. application letter B. cover paper C. memorandum D. resume

D. resume

Why is there a need to proofread your resume? A. to spot errors in spelling and grammar B. to check errors in spelling and grammar C. to underline errors in spelling and grammar D. to list down errors in spelling and grammar

B. to check errors in spelling and grammar

Which information in an application letter would the hiring officer use to inform you of your interview schedule? A. contact details B. character references C. school where graduated D. address of previous employer

C. school where graduated

Which of the following best explains the reason for writing a college application letter? A. to explain why you choose their school B. to express your intention to enroll in their school C. to express your desire to be a good student once accepted D. to comply with the requirements for college enrolment

D. to comply with the requirements for college enrolment

What would the hiring officer look for in a resume? A. the applicant’s qualifications that would suit the position applied for B. the applicant’s ability to adjust to his working environment C. the applicant’s willingness to meet new friends D. the applicant’s positive attitude towards low salary

C. the applicant’s willingness to meet new friends

Why is there a need to highlight one’s educational qualification in his/her application letter? A. to win the approval of the employer B. to achieve a good rapport with the employer C. to assure the company of his/her best work attitude D. to assure the company that he/she is suited to the position applied for

D. to assure the company that he/she is suited to the position applied for

Which of the following information must an applicant include in his/her resume? A. travel experiences B. work experiences C. favorite hobbies D. favorite Food

B. work experiences

An application letter must include an explanation of the applicant’s qualifications and skills. Which of the following best explains the reason for this? A. to achieve a sense of acceptance B. to compete with other applicants C. to create better chances of being hired D. to establish relevance to the position applied for

A. to achieve a sense of acceptance

Which of the following terms also refers to an application letter? A. cover letter B. cover page C. letter of request D. memorandum

A. cover letter

Which of the following must a resume reflect? A. the applicant’s communication skills B. the applicant’s higher order thinking skills C. the applicant’s unique personality and abilities D. the applicant’s elaborate knowledge about the company

C. the applicant’s unique personality and abilities

Which of the following must one do before writing a college application letter? A. Google the format of letter writing B. Check the information about the school on Facebook C. Contact the registrar for details on enrolment procedure D. Learn the school’s requirements for an application letter

C. Contact the registrar for details on enrolment procedure

D. to comply with the requirements for college enrolment

What do you call a written message from one person to another within an organization? A. electronic mail B. friendly letter C. memorandum D. text message

C. memorandum

Who are the major characters of the “Little Women”? a. Marmee, Laurie, Jo, Amy b. Mr. Brooke, Meg, Beth, Laurie c. Meg, Jo, Beth, Amy d. Meg, Jo, Amy, Frederick

c. Meg, Jo, Beth, Amy

Which of the following statements best states the relevance of an office correspondence? A. It creates harmonious relationship among workers B. It keeps people updated about issues and concerns C. It helps the employer evaluate employees’ communication skills D. It helps people within the company communicate with each other efficiently

B. It keeps people updated about issues and concerns

Which character best relates to the author? a. Meg b. Marmee c. Amy d. Jo

d. Jo

Which is the best way to market yourself in your college application letter? A. include your academic achievements B. tell how popular you were in high school C. narrate about your most significant experiences D. promise that you are going to do your best in college

C. narrate about your most significant experiences

What did Beth give to Mr. Lawrence that compelled him to give her a piano? a. notebook b. hat c. slippers d. cane

c. slippers

Which character travelled to Europe and pursued painting? a. Meg b. Aunt March c. Amy d. Beth

The following are the uses of a memorandum, except one. Which one is this? A. to issue instructions B. to terminate employees C. to give/seek suggestions D. to communicate regarding policy change

C. to give/seek suggestions

Who is described as the moral role model of the four sisters? a. Hannah b. Aunt March c. Marmee d. Annie Moffat

c. Marmee

Among the four sisters, who is described as the responsible one and kind but has weakness toward luxury and leisure? a. Jo b. Amy c. Meg d. Beth

c. Meg

In the early part of the story, to whom did Laurie profess his love to? a. Jo b. Amy c. Meg d. Beth

a. Jo

Who brought the family so much food for Christmas dinner? a. Laurie b. Mr. Brooke c. Aunt March d. Mr. Lawrence

d. Mr. Lawrence

Why was the 18th century considered to be the Age of Reason? a. because people were skeptical to political controversy b. because the new form of Christianity is established c. because epics was reinterpreted throughout Europe d. because there is a pursuit of order and scientific knowledge

d. because there is a pursuit of order and scientific knowledge

What is the theme of the story? a. freedom b. love c. patriotism d. revenge

b. love

The book is narrated in whose point of view? a. First-person b. Second-person c. Third-person d. All of the above

c. Third-person

In what country was Anamika born? a. Angora b. India c. Mumbai d. Nepal

b. India

What is one of the conflicts in the book? a. Happiness of the March family b. The economic struggle of the March family. c. The desire to travel and be successful. d. All of the above.

b. The economic struggle of the March family.

Where and when is the setting of the book? a. Set in 2020, in New England town; in the home of the March family. b. Set in 1879, in New England town; in the home of the March family. c. Set in 1860, in New England town; in the home of the March family. d. Set in 1990, in New England town; in the home of the March family.

c. Set in 1860, in New England town; in the home of the March family.

What genre does the book belong to? a. drama b. poetry c. bildungsroman d. None of the above

c. bildungsroman

What literary work tells about an emperor who wants to destroy the bandits? a. Divine Comedy b. Tamburlaine c. TheIliad d. The Prelude

b. Tamburlaine

How did Jo initially wanted to end her novel with which her publisher did not agree to? a. All the sisters were happily married. b. One of the main characters will be unmarried. c. All the characters will die. d. They will all become rich and successful.

b. One of the main characters will be unmarried.

Who is the author of “Little Women”? a. Josephine March b. Louisa May Alcott c. Mark Twain d. Stephen King

b. Louisa May Alcott

Who wrote the famous epic Aeneid? a. Dante b. Homer c. Sophocles d. Virgil

d. Virgil

Who among the following authors viewed that modern individual is motivated by desires and disillusionment? a. D. H. Lawrence b. Fyodor Dostoevsky c. T. S. Eliot d. William Wordsworth

c. T. S. Eliot

How many sonnets did William Shakespeare write? a. 154 b. 164 c.174 d.184

a. 154

What does “Crime and Punishment” depict? a. It focuses on mental anguish and dilemmas. b. It shows the economic imbalance of the society. c. It tells about the conflicting ideas of religion against reality. d. It talks on political unsustainability of the country which destroys the economy.

a. It focuses on mental anguish and dilemmas.

Which among the sentences is NOT a characteristic of an opera? a. Music is played by the orchestra. b. It tells a story through music and singing. c. Singers don’t use microphones to amplify their voices. d. Singers are often given microphones to be heard by large audiences.

d. Singers are often given microphones to be heard by large audiences.

Which of the following is a story, poem, or picture that is interpreted to reveal a hidden meaning? a. allegory b. epic c. sonnet d. travelogue

a. allegory

Who initiated the reform of Christianity in the 15th century? a. Christopher Marlowe b. John Donne c. Martin Luther d. William Shakespeare

c. Martin Luther

Which of the following statements depict the tragic play of Oedipus Rex? a. Oedipus was raised to be a fine king. b. Oedipus fulfilled a prophecy of marrying his mother. c. Oedipus married his sister to ascend into the kingdom. d. Oedipus destroys the kingdom of his brother and become a king.

b. Oedipus fulfilled a prophecy of marrying his mother.

What era in the European literature where Romanticism prevailed? a. Medieval b. 18th century c. 19th century d. 20th century

c. 19th century

What does an autobiographical poem tell? a. It tells about the dilemma of his family. b. It expresses the desires of human life. c. It tells the biography of oneself narrated by oneself. d. It tells about the heroic deeds and adventures of the author.

c. It tells the biography of oneself narrated by oneself.

Which among the statements relate to the biblical poem, Paradise Lost? a. the temptation of Adam and Eve b. the treachery of Judas to Jesus c. the killing of Abraham and his family d. the plague experienced by the people

a. the temptation of Adam and Eve

Why did the main character of Don Quixote decide to become a knight- errand? a. to instill patriotism and bravery b. to influence people to serve the country c. to impress his family that he become a knight d. to revive chivalry and serve his nation with honor

d. to revive chivalry and serve his nation with honor

Why does ancient literature mostly focus on myth and supernatural world? a. Ancient literature influences the listeners of a unique idea. b. Ancient literature depicts heroes that are unbeaten by enemies. c. Ancient literature explores scientific discovery applied to literature. d. Ancient literature incorporates elements that can’t be explained by science.

d. Ancient literature incorporates elements that can’t be explained by science.

What genre of literature is “Salt”? a. fiction b. nonfiction c. poetry d. prose

c. poetry

What figurative language is used in “men’s heart a salt mountain?” a. allusion b. alliteration c. metaphor d. simile

c. metaphor

What is the meaning for men to have a heart that is “salt mountain”? a. brave and strong b. hide emotions and pain c. introspective d. sorrowful

b. hide emotions and pain

Which is the meaning of Gandhi in the poem Salt? a. lawyer b. politician c. spiritual leader d. venerable

a. lawyer

How does a warm-up prevent overexertion? a. it prepared your body to a more intense physical activity b. it relaxes your muscles and make you sleepy c. it stretches your bones, making you taller d. it improves posture

a. it prepared your body to a more intense physical activity

What happens when a girl is born in Malala’s culture? a. break an egg b. nothing c. town festivity d. celebrate birthday

b. nothing

What is the theme of Chapter 1? refer to the memoir of Malala Yousafzai. a. discrimination b. gender inequality c. Islamic culture d. sexism

b. gender inequality

What is the theme of Chapter 2? refer to the memoir of Malala Yousafzai. a. amulet b. power c. wish d. magical pencil

d. magical pencil

Which is the theme of Chapter 5? refer to the memoir of Malala Yousafzai. a. assurance b. goodwill c. terror d. trouble

b. goodwill

What is the theme of Chapter 16? refer to the memoir of Malala Yousafzai. a. hope and truth b. humility in success c. peace and unity d. freedom of choice

b. humility in success

Which of the following is NOT true about dehydration? a. it lessens urine output b. there is a feeling of thirst c. numbness due to cold is felt d. You should drink plenty of water

c. numbness due to cold is felt

When a person is showing signs of hypothermia, which of the following should not be performed? a. dry the person b. increase body temperature by layering clothing c. have the person consume hot beverage d. apply a wet cloth to the neck, wrists, armpit, and groin

d. apply a wet cloth to the neck, wrists, armpit, and groin

Which of the following is a safety protocol for overexertion? a. make sure that you are dressed in light, cool clothing b. sleep late at night c. regularly consume alcohol, coffee, and tea d. practice good posture

d. practice good posture

Urinating and sweating less than normal is a sign of _ ? a. hypothermia b. dehydration c. overexertion d. losing consciousness

b. dehydration

Ito ang bahagi ng pananaliksik na naglalaman ng maikling pagtalakay sa paksa. A. burador B. introduksyon C. katawan D. kongklusyon

B. introduksyon

Sa bahaging ito tinatalakay ang mga naunang pangyayari o kasaysayan ng paksa ng pananaliksik patungo sa mga kasalukuyang pangyayari. A. balangkas B. burador C. katawan D. kongklusyon

C. katawan

After a few hours of walking in the dessert under the scorching heat of the sun, Don was able to adjust to the hot weather condition. What did Don experience? A. Cold Acclimatization B. Heat Acclimatization C. Climate Adaptation D. Heat Adaptation

B. Heat Acclimatization

Sa bahaging ito mababasa ang pahayag ng tesis ng sulating pananaliksik. A. burador B. introduksyon C. katawan D. kongklusyon

B. introduksyon

Which of the following is NOT a physiological indicator? A. Heart Rate B. Weight C. Blood Pressure

B. Weight

Ito ang bahagi kung saan makikitang naisakatuparan ang layunin ng pananaliksik. A. introduksyon B. katawan C. kongklusyon d. rekomendasyon

C. kongklusyon

A hiker feels dizzy once in a while when he climbs up the hills. What rate of exertion number will he put in his chart? A. 10 B. 9 C. 8

B. 9

Sa bahaging ito inilalahad ang saklaw at limitasyon ng pananaliksik. A. introduksyon B. katawan C. kongklusyon D. rekomendasyon

A. introduksyon

If you are 18 years of age, what is your maximum heart rate? A. 102 B. 108 C. 202

C. 202

Is the number of times your heart beats per minute. A. Heart Rate B. Pulse Monitoring C. Heart Beat

A. Heart Rate

Measures how hard you feel your body is working. A. Physiological Indicator B. Rate of Perceived Exertion C. Heart Beat

B. Rate of Perceived Exertion

Physiological indicator monitoring is only applicable after participating an activity A. It depends on the body condition B. False C. True

B. False

How you are going to measure heart rate/beat? A. Per second B. Per minute C. Every after 5 minutes

B. Per minute

Are physiological parameters that you should consider while doing physical activities such as heart rate and rate of perceived exertion A. Physiological Monitoring B. Physiological Indicators C. A and B

B. Physiological Indicators

Heart beat is _______ when at rest than while doing an activity. A. Slower B. Faster C. Lesser

A. Slower

Your RPE is in number 10 when A. It is difficult for you to breathe and move b. When you cannot move and can hold conversation c. When it is impossible for you to keep going

c. When it is impossible for you to keep going

Which of the following is a safety protocol to avoid hypothermia? A. Wear insulated clothing B. Wear light clothing C. Drink cold beverages D. Eat foods rich in fiber

A. Wear insulated clothing

Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthermia? A. cold skin B. blue skin C. red face D. green face

C. red face

At what condition does hypothermia could most likely occur? A. Autumn B. Spring C. Summer D. Winter

C. Summer

Romeo Garduce battled the biting temperature that dropped to as low as -26 degrees Celcius as he climbed the summit of Mt. Everest in 2006. Which of the following conditions he most likely experienced? A. frostbite B. muscle cramps C. high body temp. D. thirst

A. frostbite

Which of the following is a symptom of hypothermia? A. red face B. muscle cramps C. thirst D. low body temperature

D. low body temperature

What season does hyperthermia could most likely occur? A. Autumn B. Spring C. Summer D. Winter

D. Winter

After a few days of staying in Ellesmer Island in Canada, Kin was able to adjust to its freezing condition. What did Kin experience? A. Cold Acclimatization B. Heat Acclimatization C. Climate Adaptation D. Heat Adaptation

A. Cold Acclimatization

Based on the PAGASA's historical data, the all-time high air temperature in the Philippines was recorded in Tuguegarao City, Cagayan on May 11, 1969 at 42.2 degrees Celsius. Which of the following conditions a person would most likely experience then? A. frostbite B. muscle cramps C. low body temperature D. unresponsive to pain

B. muscle cramps

Which of the following is a safety protocol to avoid hyperthermia? A. Wear insulated clothing B. Wear light clothing C. Drink hot beverages D. Drink wine and alcoholic beverages

D. Drink wine and alcoholic beverages

It is consisting of activities or experience carried on within leisure. A. Hiking b. watching tv c. recreational activity

c. recreational activity

It has a greater impact in the totality of a person specifically in three aspects- physical health, mental health and improving quality of life. A. Hiking b. watching tv c. recreational activity

c. recreational activity

One of the things to consider in organizing a camping activity which will dictate you on where you should go and what you’ll look for in a campsite. A. Pack your gear B. Plan your menu C. Decide what’s important in a camping experience

C. Decide what’s important in a camping experience

An example of recreational activity in which participants take up temporary residence in the outdoors, using tents or specifically designed or adapted vehicle for shelter. A. Camping b. hiking c. watching tv

A. Camping

The following are things to consider in organizing a camping activity, except for A. Pack your gear B. Reserve your campsite C. Sleeping

C. Sleeping

Practice Tests (All Areas) Flashcards

(543 cards)