PRAXIS 2 23-24

Question 1

A 65-year-old patient is transferred from another facility with a diagnosis of aphasia. The patient’s symptoms, however, appear more consistent with apraxia. Which of the following tasks for the patient is most appropriate when assessing verbal apraxia of speech?

A.Repeating words of increasing length
B.Recalling three common items
C.Performing voluntary oral movements
D.Following two-step commands

Answer 1

A.Repeating words of increasing length -Inability to repeat two-syllable words is a clear indicator of apraxia of speech.

Question 2

Oropharyngeal dysphagia in a child with Down syndrome is most likely caused by which of the following factors?

A.Hypotonia
B.Digestive problems
C.Pneumonia
D.Aversive feeding behaviors

Answer 2

A.Hypotonia

Question 3

Which of the following recommendations to a parent of an infant with cleft lip and palate should an SLP make to best optimize feeding for adequate nutrition and appropriate growth?

A.Providing a bottle rather than breast-feeding the infant
B.Positioning the infant in a supine position during feeding times
C.Allowing the infant to take as much time as needed to feed
D.Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings

Answer 3

D.Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings

Question 4

The head lift exercise published by Shaker et al. (2002) was designed to produce which of the following changes in swallow biomechanics?

A.Increase in laryngeal closure duration
B.Strengthening of the base of the tongue
C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) opening
D.Prolonged relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle

Answer 4

C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UESU E S) opening

Question 5

Trigeminal fxn and damage

Answer 5

SENSORY: 3 branches
sensation for oral muscoa/teeth (both top&bottom)/gums, face sensation, position bolus in mouth

MOTOR: muscles of mastication, elevation of Hyoid & larynx

Damage: inability to close mouth and chew.

Question 6

Facial fxn and damage

Answer 6

SENSORY: anterior 2/3 of tongue taste, face, salivary gland stimulation, soft palate

MOTOR: facial expression, lip shape/seal/motion, movt of cheeks

Damage: mask like appearance.

Question 7

Vestibulocochlear fxn and damage

Answer 7

SENSORY: 2 branches - vestibular & acoustic. Provides sensory information hearing & balance

Damage: hearing loss / balance issues / both

Question 8

Glossopharyngeal fxn and damage

Answer 8

SENSORY: posterior 1/3 of tongue taste, gag reflex, produce saliva

MOTOR: stylopharyngeus, pharyngeal constriction/shortening, larynx/pharynx elevation

Damage: loss of taste, difficulty swallowing, impaired gag reflex.

Question 9

Vagus fxn and damage

Answer 9

SENSORY: sensation of food/residue in larynx, pharynx, sensations of larynx, pharynx, ext ear

MOTOR: intrinsic muscles of larynx, VP (velum) closure, constriction of pharynx, peristalsis, digestion/HR/breathing

Damage: swallowing issues, velum paralysis and voice problems

Question 10

Spinal accessory fxn and damage

Answer 10

MOTOR: sternocleidomastoid, temporalis muscles, head turn/shoulder shrug, some soft palate (velum)

Damage: neck weakness, inability to turn head, shrug or raise arms

Question 11

Hypoglossal fxn and damage

Answer 11

MOTOR: all intrinsic and some extrinsic tongue muscles, tongue motion

Damage: tongue paralysis, unintelligible speech and swallowing issues

Question 12

Form consists of:

Answer 12

Phonology, syntax (word order), and morphology (word endings)

Question 13

Content consists of:

Answer 13

Semantics (word meaning), vocab,

Question 14

Use consists of:

Answer 14

Pragmatics (social rules of language)

Question 15

Brown’s Stage I

Answer 15

AGE: 12-26mos, 50 words in vocab, basic phrases with communicative intent (“my doll”)

Question 16

Brown’s Stage II

Answer 16

AGE: 27-30mos, present progressive -ing, regular plural -s

Question 17

Brown’s Stage III

Answer 17

AGE: 31-34mos, irregular past tense, possessive ‘s,

Question 18

Brown’s Stage IV

Answer 18

AGE: 35-40mos, articles (A, The), regular past tense, third person regular present tense

Question 19

Brown’s Stage V

Answer 19

third person irregular (doggy does tricks), contractible copula (she’s happy), contractible auxiliary (she’s dancing)

Question 20

Syndrome

Answer 20

multiple anomalies having a single pathological cause (chromosomal or genetic based)

Question 21

Sequence

Answer 21

single malformation during embryological devlpment causing a pattern or sequence of anomalies

Question 22

Association

Answer 22

multiple anomalies that co-occur together by chance (without a specific etiology or sequence of events)

Question 23

Tympanogram type A indicates

Answer 23

normal, tissue moving back and forth

Question 24

Tympanogram type B indicates

Answer 24

pressure in, eardrum no movt – blocked or infected (fluid/wax/etc), some degree of conductive HL

Question 25

Tympanogram type C indicates

Answer 25

negative pressure, shifted, pressure in head is different than atmosphere pressure, NOT hearing loss, transitional phase, middle ear is equalizing

Question 26

How to define if HL is sensorineural?

Answer 26

complete bone conduction test

Question 27

Sensorineural HL

Answer 27

due to INNER ear damage – age, loud noise exposure, genetic factors,

Question 28

conductive HL

Answer 28

due to OUTER/MIDDLE ear damage – ear infxns,

Question 29

Flaccid dysarthria

Answer 29

local: LMN
hypernasality, nasal emissions, weakness, breathy/wet voice, atrophy, imprecise consonants, tongue fasciculations
etiology: stroke, myasthenia gravis,

Question 30

Spastic dysarthria

Answer 30

local: bilateral UMN
lmtd ROM, slow & effortful speech, increased tone, low pitch, weakness
etiology: stroke, infxn, tumor, CP, TBI, encephalitis

Question 31

Ataxic dysarthria

Answer 31

local: cerebellar system
slurred speech, poor coordination, inaccurate movts, distorted vowels, prolonged phonemes, slow ‘drunk’ looking
etiology: damage to cerebellum (stroke) or atrophy of cerebellum

Question 32

HYPOkinetic dysarthria

Answer 32

local: Basal Ganglia
mono pitch/mono loudness, short rushes of speech, rigidity, robotic quality of speech, fast & imprecise DDK
etiology: PD

Question 33

HYPERkinetic dysarthria

Answer 33

local: Basal Ganglia (++ dopamine)
quick, involuntary movts, variable tone and speech
etiology: Huntington’s Disease

Question 34

Unilateral Upper Motor Neuron Dysarthria

Answer 34

local: Unilateral upper motor neuron
weakness, unilateral facial weakness, harsh voice, imprecise articulation
etiology: unilateral stroke

Question 35

The neurons that transmit information away from the brain are called

Answer 35

Efferent

Question 36

When a person is producing voiced and voiceless /th/, the muscle that is most involved is the

Answer 36

genioglossus

Question 37

Which muscles are the most involved in adducting the vocal folds?

Answer 37

lateral cricioarytenoids and transverse arytenoids

Question 38

The lowest frequency of a periodic wave is also known as

Answer 38

Fundamental frequency (F0)

Question 39

Steven’s & House Rules:

Answer 39

tongue height & F1 inversely related, tongue advancement & F2 positively related, lip rounding increase = all F0 down

Question 40

Which of the following might be included in a treatment plan for a child with cleft palate?
A.) targeting posterior sounds
B.) targeting increased oral awareness
C.) targeting use of nasal sounds
D.) targeting marked sounds

Answer 40

B.) targeting increased oral awareness

Question 41

which of the following i the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the speech of people with cleft palate?

A.) congenital hearing loss from otitis media
B.) broad irregular maxillary arch
C.) palatopharyngeal insufficiency
D.) irregular vocal fold abduction

Answer 41

C, palatopharyngeal insufficiency is VP insufficiency

Question 42

SLP determines the MLU of 3yo. Two weeks later, SLP re-evaluates the same sample (child) and determines the MLU. The extent to white the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the:

A.) validity of the scores
B.) reliability of the scores
C.) skewness of the score distribution
D.) speededness of the measure

Answer 42

B - reliability… measures consistency, does the measurement stay the same over time? (validity measures ‘real’ or ‘true-ness’ of data – does it actually measure what it is supposed to?)

Question 43

Which client will likely have the most favorable mgmnt prognosis?

A.) John, who has a brain injury resulting in slight concussion
B.) Becky, who had a TBI resulting in paralysis
C.) Juan, who has ALS
D.) Helen, who has Huntington’s Chorea

Answer 43

A – lmtd in scope & not progressive disease or dispersed/diffused

Question 44

SLP has targeted phonological process of stopping on initial fricatives for remediation and is using the word ‘shoes’ to establish the new bx. Wanting to test generalization occuring on words whose phonetic charactericstics are most alike the trained word ‘shoes’, which word selected?

A.) shouting
B.) ocean
C.) fished
D.) shook

Answer 44

D.) shook, same initial sound & syllable structure

Question 45

Spanish-spkg parents of 9yo bilingual child reported that he communicates in Spanish in full utterances & has good vocab compared to neighbor kids. Their concern is that the child interrupts their conversations and hasn’t learned social rules that are important within family & community. Testing confirms similar problems in English spkng settings. Tx to focus on which of the following areas?

A.) syntax
B.) morphology
C.) semantics
D.) pragmatics

Answer 45

D - pragmatic

Question 46

a 60yo man has PD and early dementia. It would be appropriate to address which of following goals first in tx?

A.) educate family & caregivers
B.) decrease jargon
C.) decrease circumlocution
D.) improve motor skills

Answer 46

A - educate family & caregivers

Question 47

Which of the following best characterizes the ethics of formulating prognoses for clients with speech & language disorders?

A.) no assessment is complete until a precise statement can be formulated regarding the prognosis
B.) the extreme complexity of speech and language processes and bx makes it impossible to formulate prognoses
C.) after an assessment has been completed, it is usually appropriate to make some general statements about prognosis
D.) a clinician’s ability to make prognostic statements depends on the availability of standardized tests to quantify the severity of a speech & language disorder

Answer 47

C, general statements OK

Question 48

Which of the following is most accurate regarding word-initial consonant?

A.) HI amp concentration of aperiodic energy @ 4kHz suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless sibilant fricative
B.) LO amp concentration of periodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is voiced sibilant fricative
C.) The presence of prevoicing before the release burst suggests that the initial consonant is voiced affricate
D.) LO amp, diffuse distribution of aperiodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless non-sibilant fricative

Answer 48

A, voiceless sibilant fricatives (/s/) would be recorded on spectrogram as HI amp aperiodic energy in range of 4kHz

Question 49

Incidence of a disorder is defined as:
A.) number of cases throughout all time
B.) number of new cases of the disorder reported within a specified period of time
C.) most common etiology of the disorder
D.) # of cases of the disorder that were successfully treated

Answer 49

B, number of new cases of disorder in a population reported within a specific period of time

Question 50

Which of the following types of fibers facilitates communication b/w the R&L hemispheres by connecting cortical areas in the 2 hemispheres?

A.) Association
B.) Commissural
C.) Efferent
D.) Afferent

Answer 50

B - commissural are the only ones the bridge b/w the cortical hemispheres

Question 51

68yo man post-CVA received ST for anomic aphasia. He was discharged after making rapid improvement early in tx. 3yrs later, his wife reports that he is having more difficulty speaking & understanding, but also his memory and orientation remain intact. She noticed that his conversation skills are slowly deteriorating. Which is most likely?

A.) TIA
B.) An Astrocytoma, probably in vicinity of the supramarginal gyrus
C.) PPA
D.) Lewy Body Dementia

Answer 51

C - PPA results in isolated language deterioration with relative preservation of other cog abilities & symptoms that vary depending on site & lesion.

Question 52

According to ASHA, a child who is admitted to NICU should receive a hearing screening when?

A.) 3mos
B.) 1yo
C.) 2yo
D.) before discharge

Answer 52

D - before discharge

Question 53

Under the requirement for a child to receive a free & appropriate public education in the LRE, a public school must provide ASL interpreter in which of the following conditions?

A.) school district can revocer the cost of interpreter services from 3rd party payer
B.) child’s physician indicates that services are medically necessary
C.) interpreter has been requested by parent in the IEP mtg
D.) IEP team determines that interpreter services are necessary for the child

Answer 53

D - services provided to child are endorsed as necessary by IEP team

Question 54

Which of the following is the primary reason for using standardized norm-referenced instruments to assess communication function?

A.) to track progress on a session-by-session basis
B.) to provide a comparison against a representative population
C.) to develop a database for diagnostic purposes
D.) to provide qualitative data for the assessment report

Answer 54

B, the primary reason is to compare an individual’s performance to norms generated from a larger representative sample.

Question 55

Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by hypotonia, impaired balance, and tremor?

A.) Ataxic
B.) Spastic
C.) Athetoid
D.) Hemiplegic

Answer 55

A – Ataxic CP is low muscle tone, balance, and tremors

Question 56

70yo woman receives ST for aphasia secondary to CVA. Medicare is reimbursing a HH agency to visit her for tx following the submission of eval & tx plan from SLP. To ensure that reimbursement for tx continues, the SLP should:

A.) administer a standardized aphasia battery weekly to assess progress
B.) include recommendations for family participation in the treatment plan
C.) secure physician’s endorsement of treatment continuation
D.) initiate treatment within 6mos of her hospitalizations for CVA

Answer 56

C – Medicare will only authorize continued tx with physician approval

Question 57

An intervention to improve receptive vocab involves a computer program presenting 3 pictures on the screen and requests that the child point to the picture that the computer indicates via digitized speech. The child’s intervention goal is 80% correct, a response rate of 30% correct most likely indicates that:

A.) software has been moderately effective in helping the child reach their goal
B.) child’s visual discrimination surpasses his auditory discrimination
C.) child’s responses are essentially random
D.) child is ready to progress to an on-screen array of 4 pictures

Answer 57

C , because there are 3 pictures, a response rate ~33& (1/3) is at the level of chance.

Question 58

What type of reinforcement results in the most rapid learning of new behavior?

A.) Fixed-ratio
B.) Fixed-interval
C.) Continuous
D.) Variable-interval

Answer 58

C, in continuous reinforcement the desired bx is reinforced every time it occurs –others represent partial learning reinforcement schemes

Question 59

Intervention from a SLP for a nursing home resident who experiences advanced dementia would most effectively focus on:

A.) conversational turn-taking
B.) expressive vocab
C.) interpretation of facial expressions
D.) simplification of the communication environment

Answer 59

D, would not benefit from other targets

Question 60

Melodic Intonation Therapy (MIT) is generally considered most appropriate for a client with which of the following?

A.) Broca’s aphasia
B.) Conduction aphasia
C.) Transcortical sensory aphasia
D.) Global aphasia

Answer 60

A - Broca’s aphasia b/c their comprehension is better than expression and retain ability to repeat

Question 61

Which of the following characteristics is most likely characteristic of a client with CAS?

A.) Low muscle tone in the lips, tongue, and jaw
B.) Echolalic response patterns
C.) Decreased ability to perform DDK
D.) Sensorineural HL

Answer 61

C, children with CAS cannot manipulate articulators in smooth and controlled way

Question 62

Which of the following is typical social communication behavior for a child aged 3-5yo?

A.) Begins code-switching and uses simpler language when talking to younger children
B.) uses narratives characterized by casually sequenced events
C.) uses language with the intent to persuade others and change their opinions
D.) uses single words to express intention

Answer 62

A - children begin to code-switch and use simpler language when speaking to younger children

Question 63

Which of the following correctly indicates the point @ which an AAC eval should begin?

A.) W/ trial use of AAC device
B.) after client has developed prerequisite cog skills
C.) W/ analysis of client’s communication needs
D.) W/ medical consult

Answer 63

C, client need must be assessed BEFORE device is provided and trialed

Question 64

Which of the following is true about supporting a young child’s acquisition of English as 2nd language?

A.) focus in family on English speaking culture as well as language will support acquisition of English
B.) Family members should speak to child in the language they are most comfortable w to support lang dev
C.) if a child has a language disorder, a delay in learning English will best help child achieve highest ultimate level of fluency
D.) Even w/o support, child can be expected to be fully fluent in English in <2yrs

Answer 64

B, this will have no negative effect on the child and will allow them to more readily support the child through acquisition

Question 65

Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the current evidence re: the effectiveness of direct & indirect tx approaches to fluency tx for children UNDER 5:

A.) Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using direct intervention
B.) Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using indirect intervention
C.) evidence clearly supports using a combination of direct and indirect interventions w the same child
D.) Not sufficient evidence to support use of direct intervention approach over an indirect intervention approach

Answer 65

D – not sufficient evidence to support one form of intervention over the other

Question 66

Which of the following is an accurate statement about what IDEA requires for any IEP?

A.) The IEP must include a multiyear outline of instructional objectives
B.) The IEP must include a section on assistive devices, regardless of nature or degree of child’s disability
C.) The IEP must be in effect before SpEd or related services are provided
D.) The IEP must not be made available to any school personnel except SpEd teachers

Answer 66

C – IEP must be in effect before SpEd & related services are provided,

Question 67

APHASIA: No fluent, Yes comprehension, No repetition

Answer 67

Broca’s

Question 68

APHASIA: Yes fluent, No comprehension, No repetition

Answer 68

Wernicke’s

Question 69

APHASIA: No fluent, Yes comprehension, Yes repetition

Answer 69

Transcortical Motor

Question 70

APHASIA: Yes fluent, No comprehension, Yes repetition

Answer 70

Transcortical Sensory

Question 71

APHASIA: Yes fluent, Yes comprehension, No repetition

Answer 71

Conduction

Question 72

APHASIA: No fluent, No comprehension, Yes repetition

Answer 72

Transcortical mixed

Question 73

APHASIA: No fluent, No comprehend, No repetition

Answer 73

Global

Question 74

Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve?

Answer 74

CN X - vagus

Question 75

A clinician who employs active listening is doing which of the following?

A.Responding to both the content and the affect of the client’s remarks
B.Listening very carefully and taking extensive notes
C.Conducting a clinician-directed interview
D.Directing the client to specific answers to questions

Answer 75

A

Question 77

Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following?

A. The infant’s inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity
B. Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate
C. Eustachian tube dysfunction
D. Cochlear dysfunction

Answer 77

C - Eustachian tube dysfunction, a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate.

Question 78

Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swallow study?

Select ALL that apply.

A. Frontal
B. Lateral
C. Transverse
D. Anterior-posterior

Answer 78

B & D – A lateral view is best for seeing all stages of a swallow, and an anterior-posterior view shows the symmetry (or asymmetry) of the swallow.

Question 79

According to research on the development of Brown’s morphemes in young children, which of the following is a determinant of acquisition order?

A. Phonological ease of production
B. Figurative-language ability
C. Semantic and syntactic complexity
D. Sequencing and segmentation strategies

Answer 79

C, Brown’s morphemes are acquired by children in an order that is determined by semantic and syntactic complexity, with the simplest forms acquired first. The order of acquisition is typically followed by all children.

Question 80

Immediately following removal of a benign tumor from the base of the brain, a 76-year-old client exhibits severe nasalization and a weak, breathy voice. A four-month postsurgical assessment reveals no improvement. At this time, the remediation strategy for this client should focus on:

A. evaluation for prosthetic or surgical intervention
B. strengthening exercises for the oral articulators
C. a trial period using the yawn-sign technique
D. complete vocal rest

Answer 80

A, The client has a resonance and phonation disorder indicative of velopharyngeal and laryngeal problems. The velopharyngeal problem could be assisted by prosthetic or surgical intervention.

Question 81

A 12 year-old native speaker of Spanish who has been studying ESL for 3 years is most likely to do which of the following when speaking English in casual conversation with teachers at school?

A. Use the auxiliary “have” in place of “be” in progressive tenses
B. Use incorrect word order within prepositional phrases
C. Use conjunctions in place of prepositions
D. Use multiple negation improperly

Answer 81

D, Multiple negation is a grammatical feature of Spanish but not of Standard English.

Question 82

Which of the following actions will most effectively control the problem of overreferral in school screening programs that use impedance/immittance measurements?

A. Obtaining the measurements in a professional sound-insulated room
B. Including 500 Hz in the audiometric screening procedure
C. Retesting immediately those who did not pass the first screening
D. Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening

Answer 82

D.Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening

Question 82

A 9-month-old child was observed during a speech-language evaluation. To express herself, the child occasionally touched her mother, gained eye contact, and then gestured toward an object. If the child’s development is normal, within the next month or so the child will begin to

A. use consistent sound and intonation patterns as signals for specific intentions
B. reach for objects that she desires
C. establish joint reference with her caretaker
D. use recognizable words and phrases to express her intentions

Answer 82

A, childre begins to use vocalizations to express specific intentions at around 10 months of age.

Question 82

A 67-year-old pt with no hx of dysphagia has undergone a cardiothoracic surgical procedure. Post-op he is found to be aspirating while swallowing and is diagnosed with a left vocal-fold paralysis and left pharyngeal paresis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?

A. An intraoperative CVA in the right pons
B. Damage to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. A left hemispheric stroke

Answer 82

C, The left recurrent laryngeal nerve courses under the aortic arch in its course back to innervate the left larynx and the inferior pharynx. The nerve can be damaged in cardiothoracic operations including aortic arch or valve repairs.

Question 82

Which of the following muscles produces the opposing action to those that produce velopharyngeal closure?

A. Musculus uvulae
B. Levator veli palatini
C. Palatoglossus
D. Stylopharyngeus

Answer 82

C, Velopharyngeal closure is largely produced by soft palate elevation, and the only muscle in the list that produces soft palate depression (the opposite of soft palate elevation) is the palatoglossus.

Question 83

An otolaryngologist has referred a 45-year-old man for voice treatment following medialization thyroplasty for a paralyzed vocal fold. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy for the SLP to use?

A. Assisting the patient to produce a soft glottal attack
B. Digitally manipulation of the patient’s neck to reduce strap-muscle tension
C. Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack
D. Employing techniques aimed at increasing airflow

Answer 83

C, Medialization thyroplasty moves the paralyzed vocal fold closer to the mid-glottis to allow better compensation by the unaffected fold. Only the production of a hard glottal attack addresses the compensatory behavior.

Question 84

Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities?

A. Athetosis
B. Spasticity
C. Hypotonia
D. Bulbar palsy

Answer 84

Athetosis is a type of cerebral palsy that is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities.

Question 84

Intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident who is in a late stage of progressive dementia will most effectively focus on

A. conversational intelligibility
B. recall of salient vocabulary words
C. comprehension of social discourse
D. assisting in communication routines

Answer 84

D, intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident in a late stage of progressive dementia would most effectively focus on assisting the resident with daily communication functions.

Question 85

Which of the following provides the most important diagnostic information to an SLP making a differential diagnosis between childhood apraxia of speech and flaccid dysarthria in a child?

A. The child’s articulation performance at the sentence level
B. A history of the child’s development of chewing, eating, and swallowing
C. A history of the child’s language development
D. The child’s willingness to function in sociocommunicative events

Answer 85

B, a child with CAS does not have difficulties with chewing, eating, and swallowing, whereas a child with flaccid dysarthria is likely to have such difficulties.

Question 85

For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring

A. use of the auxiliary verb “be” in the present progressive tense
B. use of the past-tense ending “-ed”
C. use of sentences with multiple negation
D. agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

Answer 85

D, The morphological feature listed is one in which African American Vernacular English (AAVE) does not differ from Standard American English (SAE).

Question 86

An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year-old child with multiple speech-production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is to

A. arrange error sounds by developmental pattern and correct them sound by sound
B. start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error sounds
C. teach sounds in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to words
D. delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs

Answer 86

D, The most efficient procedure for the child would be for the speech-language pathologist to define the phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs.

Question 87

Control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone is most closely related to the activity of which of the following muscles?

A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. Cricothyroid
D. Sternocleidomastoid

Answer 87

C, The cricothyroid muscle has the greatest control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone by lengthening or tensing the vocal folds.

Question 88

The most serious limitation of employing imitation as an intervention strategy for children with a language impairment is that imitation:

A. lacks communicative intention
B. relies on semantic knowledge
C. is clinician controlled
D. is contextualized speech

Answer 88

A, The most serious shortcoming of imitation as an intervention strategy is that imitation is not an intentionally communicative act.

Question 89

Treatment for apraxia of speech most appropriately emphasizes

A. coordination of respiration with phonation and articulation
B. auditory discrimination, resonance, and respiration
C. auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placement
D. rate of speech, range of movement, strength, and coordination of the oral mechanism

Answer 89

C, Treatment for apraxia of speech appropriately emphasizes auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placement.

Question 90

A child repeatedly inserts an inappropriate sound in certain environments; for example, [fpɪʃ] for [fɪʃ] . Which of the following would likely be most helpful for the child as a target for treatment?

A. Bisyllabic words for which a minimal-contrast pair can be easily identified
B. Words containing phonemes that have distinctive features in common with the sound the child inserts inappropriately
C. Repeated practice with the combinations of phonemes that the child finds particularly easy to produce
D. Words that contrast the child’s error pattern with the target pattern in the word

Answer 90

D, words that contrast the child’s error pattern with the target pattern would be most helpful for this child.

Question 91

When treating a client who is using an electronic augmentative-communication device, the speech-language pathologist’s primary goal should be to:

A. ensure that the client develops skill in using every technical aspect of the aid
B. ensure that the client’s caregivers learn how to modify the aid’s hardware and any applicable software to meet the client’s communication needs
C. train the client to use the aid as independently and interactively as possible in a variety of settings
D. help the client develop the skills necessary for moving on to a more sophisticated device

Answer 91

C, primary goal of any intervention is to effect the best functional outcome for the client. Generalization with respect to the environments in which the augmentative device is used effectively would help accomplish this goal.

Question 92

Laborious, halting, telegraphic utterances are typical of clients with which of the following types of aphasia?

A. Conduction
B. Anomic
C. Wernicke
D. Transcortical motor

Answer 92

D, Transcortical motor aphasia is characterized by dysfluent, telegraphic utterances, and none of the distractors are characterized by this pattern of production.

Question 93

A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT) would improve the client’s speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be to

A.provide MIT, as recommended
B.tell the physician that it is inappropriate for the physician to make recommendations for a speech treatment
C.consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client’s treatment
D.explain MIT to the client’s spouse to assist in the decision-making process about the type of therapy to use

Answer 93

C, MIT is a procedure appropriately used by SLPs to promote certain results. The SLP has responsibility for determining the value of this procedure in relation to the objectives of the speech-language treatment program.

Question 93

Establishment of which of the following is most important in ensuring that the results of any diagnostic test of speech or language are replicable?

A. Content validity
B. Interjudge reliability
C. Split-half reliability
D.Face validity

Answer 93

B, interjudge reliability

Question 94

Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for vocal fold abduction?

A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Cricothyroid
C. Interarytenoid
D. Lateral cricoarytenoid

Answer 94

A, posterior cricoarytenoid contraction (shortening) can only produce rotation of the arytenoid cartilages such that the vocal processes are displaced laterally, abducting the true vocal folds.

Question 95

Mr. Charles, age 78, has had Alzheimer’s disease for the past nine years. A recent speech and language evaluation at his nursing home indicated severe deficits in verbal reasoning, memory, word finding, discourse, pragmatics, phonology, semantics, and syntax. Which of the following should the speech-language pathologist do next?

A.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is least deficient
B.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is most deficient
C.Initiate group treatment with other adults with language impairments to improve spontaneous conversational speech and pragmatic skills
D.Examine his living conditions and, if necessary, educate the nursing staff concerning ways to help him communicate more effectively

Answer 95

D, deteriorating language skills. The best that can be done for him is to help his caregivers improve the conditions related to his basic communication needs. Speech-language treatment itself is very unlikely to be effective and thus is not appropriate.

Question 96

Which of the following is the ratio of reinforcement that will most quickly cause a newly acquired behavior to be habituated?

A. A random ratio of tokens to correct responses
B. A ratio of 1 token to 1 correct response
C. A ratio of 1 token to 4 correct responses only
D. A ratio of 1 token to 10 correct responses only

Answer 96

A, When the goal is to reinforce a behavior that has already been acquired, a random ratio of tokens to correct responses creates an intermittent reinforcement schedule and is the most effective. Such a reinforcement schedule decreases the client’s dependence on the token reward.

Question 97

Language impairment in a child with Down syndrome is often determined by comparing performance on one or more standardized language tests with the child’s mental age, rather than with the child’s chronological age. Although mental age should not be used to specify the need for treatment, mental age can legitimately be used as a performance criterion because:

A.using chronological age would overidentify language disorders
B.using chronological age would underidentify language disorders
C.mental age always correlates with verbal performance
D.language performance is expected to exceed mental age

Answer 97

A, Using chronological age as a performance criterion for a child with Down syndrome would make the child’s language disorders seem more pronounced than they are.

Question 98

Which of the following communication disorders is most frequently associated with significant dysphagia?

A.Aphasia
B.Ataxic dysarthria
C.Flaccid dysarthria
D.Organic voice tremor

Answer 98

C, Flaccid dysarthria and dysphagia are both disorders likely to be characterized by flaccidity or weakness of the oromotor and laryngeal mechanisms that results from cranial nerve damage. These two disorders frequently coexist.