PRAXIS 23/24 Flashcards
(130 cards)
1
Q
In the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, the patient has more ..?
A
more cognition problems than language problems
2
Q
A 6 year old with a speech sound disorder needs intervention to address phonological awareness as well as articulation. The clinician works with her on the task: “I am going to say some words….can you tell me what word these sounds make? C-O-S-T.” The clinician has addressed the client’s skills in the area of:
A
Phoneme blending
3
Q
When considering an infant’s readiness for oral feeding, all of the following must be taken into account, EXCEPT which:
(severity of medical condition, gestational age, chronological age, behavioral state)
A
chronological age
4
Q
The concrete operations stage of cognitive development, defined by Piaget, occurs at what age?
A
7-11 years
5
Q
A 10-year-old with specific language impairment would most likely show which characteristic?
- good social skills despite lmtd expressive language
- difficulty with figurative language
- normal phonological awareness skills despite difficulty w/ reading comprehension
- no problems with morphology despite lmtd syntax
A
difficulty with figurative language
6
Q
What is the primary cause of the “sucking” motion of the vocal folds toward one another?
A
Decreased air pressure between the vocal folds
7
Q
You hear Luis, a chid from Mexico, playing with his friends on the playground at recess. One of the friends has a birthday. You hear Luis say things like “Cuantos años tienes? Can I have some cake? Feliz cumpleaños!
Let’s play with your new ball!” It is clear that Luis is…
A
exhibiting code-switching, a typical linguistic behavior for persons who are bilingual
8
Q
What are the biological functions of the larynx?
A
- Closure of the trachea to prevent food from entering the lungs
- Production of the cough reflex to expel foreign substances from the trachea
- Closure of the vocal folds to build subglottic pressure
9
Q
Which term describes a child’s ability to mentally sort speech stimuli or remember what he or she has heard?
A
auditory memory
10
Q
You are conducting therapy with Jennifer, a teenager with a language impairment. You are addressing her skills in the area of cohesion because her teachers and parents report that this is an area of difficulty for her. Cohesion is defined as….
A
ordering and organizing utterances in a message so they build logically on one another
11
Q
A child shows the presence of phonological patterns such as epenthesis, final consonant deletion, and cluster reduction. He is demonstrating the use of:
A
patterns affecting syllable structure
12
Q
Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT :
- chronic throat clearing
- hard glottal attacks
- intubation
- psychogenic problems
A
psychogenic problems
13
Q
When carcinoma affects the cricoid and trachea, the damage is
A
subglottic
14
Q
A school teacher refers Max, an African American second grader, for speech assessment. According to the teacher, “Max does not always say his words correctly.” The clinician screens Max and finds that he uses AAE. She decides to carry out a formal evaluation to ascertain whether he has a speech difference or a disorder. The clinician finds that Max has one phonological pattern that is not typical of children who speak AAE, but the rest of his patterns are typical of AAE speakers. The clinician can accurately conclude that
A
Max should receive ST to teach him the correct production of the one articulatory pattern he produces that is not typical of speakers of AAE, but the clinician should NOT address patterns that are equivalent with those of his AAE-speaking peers.
15
Q
Frances has aphasia and requires multiple prompts of task instructions. What cognitive function may be impaired?
A
short term memory
16
Q
What is the term for the cognitive process that incorporates the temporary storage functions of STM with the manipulation and integration of information to achieve a cognitive goal?
A
working memory
17
Q
Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between an unreleased final /p/ and an unreleased final /b/, as in “cap” vs. “cab”
- Frequency of third formant
- locus frequency of burst
- voice onset time
- vocal fundamental frequency
- duration of the preceding vowel
A
duration of the preceding vowel
18
Q
Which of the following substitutions is most likely to occur in conjunction with hyponasality?
- /ng/ for /k/
- /n/ for /d/
- /b/ for /m/
- glottal stop for /t/
- /m/ for /p/
A
- /b/ for /m/
19
Q
Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve?
A
X- Vagus Nerve (10)
20
Q
Which of the following formants typically characterizes a high vowel?
- High-frequency second formant (F2)
- High-frequency first formant (F1)
- Low-frequency first formant (F1)
- Low-frequency second formant (F2)
A
- Low-frequency first formant (F1)
The F1 is inversely associated with tongue height, such that high vowels tend to have low F1 frequencies.
21
Q
What is the function of the mandible?
A
Chewing food
22
Q
If a screening test for a specific disorder has high sensitivity and low specificity, what does this reveal about the test?
A
It may overidentify the cases of the disorder.
23
Q
You are working in a hospital, and a 72-year-old patient is referred to you. She has difficulty paying attention to a conversation, staying on topic, remembering information, responding accurately, and following directions.
She most likely has
A
cognitive communication disorder
24
Q
Which statement about the cranial nerves is correct?
- Cranial nerve XII is NOT concerned with speech.
- Cranial nerve VIll is concerned with the sense of smell.
- Cranial nerve I is concerned with labial sound articulation.
- Damage to cranial nerve VII causes a mask-like appearance.
A
Damage to cranial nerve VII causes a mask-like appearance.
25
Your client has difficulties producing /w/,/t/,/d/, and /th/. If you were to treat him using a least phonological knowledge approach, your first target sound in therapy would be
/th/
26
The resonant frequency of a cavity is dependent on which of the following?
Size and shape of the cavity
27
Disorders of the _______
result in rigidity; jerky and purposeless
movements (chorea; and slow, writhing, snakelike movements (athetosis)
basal ganglia
27
Which of the following is a commonly inherited disease that affects muscles associated with speech production?
Myotonic dystrophy
27
What is the function of the mandible?
Chewing food
28
A 5-year-old is brought to you for an evaluation. According to her mother, she has a history of middle-ear infections. Her mother reports that she is difficult to understand. She makes k/t and g/d substitutions, saying things like kou/tou. This child is manifesting the phonological process of
backing
28
What is injected into paralyzed vocal folds to increase bulk and possibly increase adduction?
Collagen
29
You are working with a client who has PD and speaks with a monotone. You are trying to help her intonation become more varied. You have her deliberately speak with a monotone over and over again to help increase her awareness of how she sounds, recording her on your phone and playing back the recording for her to listen to. You are employing the technique of ____?
negative practice
30
When a child makes errors like fou/jou and bot]/buj, this is called:
affrication
31
Primary function of ventricular folds?
Compress during coughing and lifting heavy items
32
Evaluating spelling proficiency can provide valuable diagnostic information. Poor spelling may reveal weaknesses in the following linguistic components EXCEPT:
- orthographic knowledge
- pragmatic knowledge
- morphological knowledge
- phonemic awareness
pragmatic knowledge
33
A classroom teacher refers a 10-year-old African American male student to you because she is concerned about his intelligibility. This teacher is anxious to avoid the mistake of mislabeling the student as having a "speech disorder" if he is merely manifesting characteristics of African American English (AAE). When you screen the boy, you find that he makes the following substitutions: d/m, f/n, and m/n. What do you do?
Provide intervention for the student, because this is a sign of an articulatory-phonological disorder involving substitutions of nasals with other sounds.
34
What is injected into paralyzed vocal folds to increase adduction?
Collagen
35
Primary function of bronchi in respiration?
Transport air from lungs to trachea
36
Damage to the cerebellum may cause a movement disorder called?
Ataxia
37
What cranial nerve innervates the infrahyoid muscles?
Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)
38
Examples of secondary stuttering include:
- whispering
- part word repetitions
- quivering of nostrils
- all of above
quivering of nostrils
39
Which of the following is true about the mandible?
- The alveolar arch is the part of the mandible that houses the teeth.
- The muscles of the mandible serve one major function: opening and closing of the mouth.
- The mandible is attached to the temporal bone of the skull by a joint called the temporomandibular joint.
- The tongue attaches to the mandible at several points.
The mandible is attached to the temporal bone of the skull by a joint called the temporomandibular joint.
40
You have a new client who can accurately produce the /t/ sound in the initial and final positions of syllables and the initial, medial, and final positions of words. They have inaccuracies with producing /t/ in phrases. According to the topographic levels of treatment, where should you begin treatment?
phrases
41
What is the role of the Medulla Oblongata in the brainstem?
Regulating heart rate and blood pressure
42
In therapy, you decide to use minimal pairs as part of your treatment plan to increase a child's intelligibility. Which one of the following is NOT a minimal pair?
- me/meat
- duck/luck
- mud/moon
- pen/ten
mud/moon
43
Select the true statement:
- T-units are types of linguistic units.
- C-units may never contain incomplete sentences produced in response to questions.
- T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses
- C-units do not contain one or more independent clauses.
T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses
44
Which of the following statements is NOT true about single-subject designs?:
- They are useful in establishing treatment efficacy.
- The A phase is the treatment phase.
- The multiple-baseline design avoids the disadvantage of treatment withdrawal.
- A disadvantage of single-subject designs is that they cannot efficiently predict the behavior of groups of individuals.
The A phase is the treatment phase.
45
When carcinoma affects the cricoid and trachea, the damage is
SUBglottic
46
Halliday described seven communicative intent functions that develop between 9 and 18 months of age. Which of the following is an example of the heuristic function?:
- "More." (said by a child with an empty juice glass)
- "Grandpa white car."
- "I want cookie."
- "Why doggy bark?"
"Why doggy bark?"
47
Which of the following is an example of a pragmatic approach to aphasia therapy?
- melodic intonation therapy
- deblocking
- focusing on conveying of ideas rather than linguistic content of message
- behavioral naming drills
focusing on conveying of ideas rather than linguistic content of message
48
You wish to assess a child's phonemic awareness via phoneme manipulation. Select the example that applies to phoneme manipulation:
- Say ball without the /b/.
- Say dig. Now say it backward.
- Say seat. Now say seat, but change the /s/ and /t/ around.
- Here is a picture of a hotdog. I'll say the first part of the word and you will complete it....Here is a hot_____
Say seat. Now say seat, but change the /s/ and /t/ around.
49
Which of the following structures are NOT involved in articulation?
- pharynx
- larynx
- nasal cavity
- teeth
larynx
50
Which of the following primarily vibrates and produces sound?
- external thyroarytenoids
- internal thyroarytenoids
- transverse arytenoids
- cricothyroid
internal thyroarytenoids
51
The PREVALENCE of a stuttering disorder is defined as:
the proportion of people who stutter at ANY point in time.
51
The 3rd frontal gyrus correlates with what anatomical area or structure?
Broca’s area
51
During an oral motor exam, you notice flattened nasolabial folds. Which of the following cranial nerves (CN) is most likely damaged?
CN VII -- 7th CN (Facial)
51
Kennedy is a 57-year-old woman who has noticed increased muscle fatigue during meals. After resting, the fatigue appears to disappear. Kennedy went to the neurologist and was diagnosed with damage to the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. What disease is Kennedy likely diagnosed with?
myasthenia gravis (caused when there is a miscommunication at the neuromuscular junction. The disease usually first targets jaw, facial, and neck muscles.)
52
an SLP evaluates a woman who presents with slurred speech, excess and equal stress, distorted vowels, and irregular articulatory breakdowns. Which type of dysarthria is described? Where is the probable site of lesion?
ataxic dysarthria, cerebellum (The characteristics described are concurrent with ataxic dysarthria. Ataxic dysarthria is caused by damage to the cerebellum.)
53
A mother brings her child, Tessa, for an evaluation of her speech. The mother is concerned because even at the age of 5, Tessa introduces hers as "Kessa." Tessa is using the phonological pattern of:
Backing
54
Which neuroanatomical structures are critical for optimal laryngeal function and voicing?
- Cranial nerves I and V, cerebellum, and cortical areas
- Cerebellum, cranial nerves II and VI, and cortical areas
- Cortical areas, cerebellum, and cranial nerves VIl and X
- Cortical areas, cerebellum, and cranial nerves I and V
Cortical areas, cerebellum, and cranial nerves VIl and X
55
The malleus, incus, and stapes form the
ossicular chain
56
What is the name of the bony portion of the palate that forms 3/4 of the hard palate?
Palatine process
57
Infants begin to send intentional purposeful messages via communication means such as babbling and gesturing at about what age?
10 months old
Intentional and purposeful switch from perlocutionary to illocutionary period
58
At about what age do typically developing children have approximately 200-300 words in their expressive vocabulary?
24 mos
59
By 3 months, typically developing infants may consistently do which of the following:
a. Follow 1-step directions
b. Cries for basic needs
c. Looks when name is called
d. Quiets in response to noise
e. B and C
B & D -- cries for basic needs & quiets/smiles in response to noise
60
How many morphemes are in the following sentence? "It was undeniable that she was the happiest girl in her class."
15
61
Contractible auxiliary is demonstrated in which of the following sentences:
a. Daddy's jumping up and down.
b. It's hot in the summer.
c. Are you going?
d. None of the above.
A
62
The smallest unit of language that can change the meaning of words but does not have meaning on its own is known as:
Phonology/phoneme
63
The smallest unit of language that has meaning
morpheme
64
Language is often classified into three components: form, content, and use. Which of the following is an example of language form?
a. Syntax
b. Pragmatics
c. Morphology
d. A and C
e. All of the above
D - A & C, form consists of phonology, morphology, and syntax
65
Which of the following grammatical morphemes are first acquired in typical developing children:
a. Present progressive -ing
b. Possessive 's
c. Regular plural -s
d. A and C
D - A & C, regular plural -s and present progressive -ing
66
Based on which language theory do children learn language through conditioning. Stimulus-response drives language acquisition.
a. Semantic theory
b. Behavioral theory
c. Social interactionism
d. Cognitive theory
Behavioral Theory (Skinner)
67
The diaphragm contracts, and then the abdomen and chest expand during which phase of respiration?
inhalation
68
Identify the phoneme below based on the
following distinctive features:
+Voice, +Labiodental, +Fricative
/v/
69
Identify the phoneme below based on the following distinctive features:
+Voiceless, +Alveolar, +Stop
/t/
70
Which distinctive feature is produced by complete vocal tract closure and then a sudden release of constriction?
stop
71
Amplitude is perceptually related to the intensity of a sound as frequency is perceptually related to the _____ of a sound.
pitch
72
The lowest pure tone component of a sound is also called the sound's ______________.
Fundamental frequency
73
Based on a motor learning feedback approach, which of the following would be a good treatment example?
a. Multiple oppositions
b. Minimal pairs
c. Shaping from a sound already in client's inventory
d. Maximal oppositions
C - shaping sound that's already in inventory
74
Brain sends signals down via which motor neurons to innervate a muscle.
Efferent neurons
75
Cranial nerves are are components of which nervous system?
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
76
Sally recently suffered a stroke. She now has impaired balance and coordination and presents as if she is drunk. Which type of stroke did Sally have?
Cerebellar stroke
77
These fibers connect regions of cerebral cortex within each hemisphere
association fibers
78
This cranial nerve innervates (unilateral innervation) all intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but one extrinsic muscles of the tongue.
CN XII (Hypoglossal)
79
Which cranial nerve controls movement of certain neck muscles and innervates the Sternocleidomastoid muscle?
CN XI (Accessory)
80
Which cranial nerve is both motor + sensory and responsible for sensation of food residuals in larynx, pharynx and esophagus?
CN X (Vagus)
81
This intrinsic muscle of the Larynx is the only abductor muscle of the vocal folds.
Posterior cricoarytenoid
82
According to the Bernoulli effect, constriction of the glottis increases airflow speed and in-turn decreases __________.
Pressure
83
An Influenza epidemic within the last two months may cause a spike in the _______ of the disease.
incidence
84
A _________ type of assessment may or may not be standardized and can be used to identify what the client can and cannot do.
criterion-referenced
85
By 48 months, children's speech should be ____% intelligible.
100%
86
Children are likely to recover completely from stuttering-like disfluencies up until about what age?
6 y.o (need to begin to recover 1yr post-onset)
87
Which motor speech disorder is characterized by inconsistent articulation errors, groping, and difficulties with repetition tasks of increased complexity?
AOS
88
_________ is a perturbation measure of frequency instability.
Jitter
89
Children with clefts of the lip and/or palate often have articulation and phonological disorders due to structural etiology. Which type of error is made with correct placement but abnormal structure?
Obligatory errors -- can be corrected by surgical mgmt
90
Which cerebral hemisphere can we suspect was damaged with the following symptoms:
visual neglect, discourse/pragmatic deficits, poor awareness to deficits, and impulsive behaviors
Right hemisphere
91
This is the most common type of stroke and is caused by a blocked artery.
Ischemic stroke
92
Disfluent speech, intact repetition skills, and impaired writing are characteristics of which type of aphasia?
Transcortical motor
93
Broca's aphasia is a type of _______ aphasia
nonfluent
94
Hyperkinetic dysarthria may occur following damage to what site?
Basal Ganglia
95
Tongue fasciculations, slow and slurred diadochokinetic rates, and a breathy quality are all symptoms of which dysarthria type?
Flaccid
96
Jen suffered a cerebellar stroke and her husband describes her speech as "drunk and inebriated." What type of dysarthria does Jen most likely have?
Ataxic
97
The Palatoglossus muscle is what type of muscle?
extrinsic tongue muscle
98
Which of the following is a muscle that originates and extends within the tongue.
a. Hyoglossus muscle
b. Genioglossus muscle
c. Inferior longitudinal muscle
d. Superior longitudinal muscle
e. C and D
E - C & D (Inferior longitudinal & superior longitudinal)
99
Phil has been diagnosed with dysphagia. His only symptom is that when he eats a significant amount of food falls into his lateral sulcus and stays there. What will you most likely see on the SLP report.
a. Reduced labial closure
b. Reduced buccal tension/tone
c. Aspiration before the swallow
d. Reduced tongue strength
b. Reduced buccal tension/tone
100
_____ is an esophageal phase swallowing disorder characterized by food collecting in a pouch and frequent regurgitation of food?
Zenker's Diverticulum
101
Downgrading a patients diet to puree textures is an example of what type of dysphagia treatment technique?
compensatory
102
Nursing staff is documenting "coughing, wet vocal quality, and shortness of breath during meals" about a new admission status post recent CVA. Which of the following is the best treatment plan for this individual.
a. Refer for an instrumental swallow test prior to seeing the patient
b. Complete a bedside swallow exam first then refer the patient for an instrumental swallow test
c. Downgrade liquids to nectar-thick
d. Pharyngeal strength exercises
b. Complete a bedside swallow exam first then refer the patient for an instrumental swallow test
103
What frequencies are tested during pure tone audiometry?
250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000, 8000Hz
104
Holding the larynx in an elevated position while swallowing is an example of which swallowing maneuver?
a. Supraglottic swallow
b. Mendelson
c. Super supraglottic swallow
d. Effortful swallow
Mendelson
105
The following sentence is an example of
what type of disfluency. "My m-m-m-mouth is w-w-w-watering when I look at that turkey and cheese sandwich."
Part word repetition
106
Which of the following is a relaxation technique aimed to minimize tension of vocal hyper function and improve pitch.
a. Yawn-sigh
b. Resistance training
c. Over-articulation
d. Yoga
Yawn-sigh
107
____ is an organic structural voice disorder.
a. Muscle tension dysphonia
b. Puberphonia
c. Vocal fatigue
d. Vocal polyps
Vocal polyps
108
Which configuration of hearing loss below is characterized by air conduction thresholds for low frequencies at least 20 dB poorer than high frequencies?
rising
109
Air and bone conduction thresholds are equal and both display a hearing loss. What type of hearing loss is described?
Sensorineural
110
Treatment for stuttering shifts to management of symptoms at what age?
7 y.o
111
Which of the following tympanogram types shows reduced peak height and normal pressure on the graph.
Type As
112
Lack of fusion of the lip and alveolus during embryological development will cause what type of craniofacial malformation?
a. Complete secondary palate cleft
b. Cleft of the primary palate
c. Cleft of the secondary palate
d. Isolated cleft of the lip only
b. Cleft of the primary palate
113
Obligatory errors that are resulting from velopharyngeal insufficiency will benefit from the following treatment plan.
a. Articulation therapy before surgery
b. Need surgery to correct form before speech therapy
c. Phonemic based therapy
d. All of above
Surgical mgmt REQUIRED before ST
114
No smiles by 6 months, no gesturing by 12 months, no words by 16 months, and lack of interest in other children by 24 months are early warning signs for what disorder?
ASD
115
Which of the following is key in differentially diagnosing Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) and Social Communication Disorder (SCD)?
a. Echolalia only common in SCD
b. Presence of only social communicative impairment in SCD
c. No differential factors
d. Formulaic language only in SCD
b. Presence of only social communicative impairment in SCD
116
A ____ is an alternate hole created through an incision in the neck to access the airway.
Tracheostomy
117
_____ vocabulary is used to program AAC devices and includes highly functional words/phrases and social greetings.
Core
118
An individual diagnosed with anomic aphasia has the following symptoms.
a. Difficulty with repetition
b. Word finding difficulty only
c. Writing difficulty only
d. Reading difficulty only
b. Word finding difficulty only
119
Based on the IDEA, early intervention is provided from ____ to _____ years old.
birth -- 3 y.o.
120
Velopharyngeal incompetence
Neurologically based (dysarthria)
121
The most common types of myopathies affect which of these:
- nasal fasciculation
- optic nerve
- ossicular movement
- proximal rather than distal muscles
proximal rather than distal muscles
122
Velopharyngeal insufficiency
Structurally based (cleft lip/palate)
123
The most common types of myopathies affect what?
- nasal fasciculation
- optic nerve
- ossicular movement
- proximal rather than distal muscles
proximal rather than distal muscles
124
Soua and his family have immigrated to the U.S. from Laos; he is 7yo and speaks Hmong. Soua's teacher is concerned because he struggles in math, science, and language arts. He also has some difficulty making friends and interacting appropriately. You decide to, with the help of a Hmong interpreter, evaluate Soua's language skills to see whether he has a specific language impairment and qualifies for language therapy. Soua will qualify for language therapy if he:
- Has normal skills in Hmong and delays in English
- Has normal skills in English but delays in Hmong
- Has delays in both Hmong and English, evidencing problems using both languages
- He won't qualify for therapy; he needs to be evaluated by an English as a second language teacher
- Has delays in both Hmong and English, evidencing problems using both languages
