Pre-Harvest Food Safety Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
What is the definition of a zoonosis?
A
Diseases which are transmitted between vertebrate animals and humans
2
Q
What is the definition of a carrier?
A
Pathogens isolated from animal/human without causing clinical signs of disease in the host
3
Q
What is a colonised host?
A
No clinical signs on host but implies that microbes multiply on the host
4
Q
What is a reservoir of disease?
A
The spread of an organism within the reservoir host to maintain the pathogen indefinitely
5
Q
What are the clinically relevant multidrug-resistant pathogens?
A
Enterococcus faeciumStaphylococcus aureusKlebsiella penumoniaAcinetobacter baumanniiPseudomonas aeruginosaEnterobacter species
6
Q
Give some examples of zoonoses in companion animal practice
A
RabiesSalmonellosisBrucellosisMR bacterial pathogensTuberculosisWormsPasteurellosisToxoplasmosisLeptospirosisPsittacosisFleasCheyletielliosisSarcoptic mangeDermatophytosis
7
Q
What are the three types of MRSA?
A
Human hospital-associatedCommunity-associatedLivestock-associated
8
Q
What do MRSA have resistance to?
A
Broad beta-lactam and often fluoroquinolone resistance
9
Q
What does MRSA stand for?
A
Meticillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
10
Q
Where does S. aureusnormally live?
A
Human nose - opportunistic pathogen
11
Q
What things can result from an MRSA infection?
A
Extended length of stay in hospitalLimited treatment optionsIncreased costIncreased mortality (though not proven)
12
Q
What are the implications for MRSA in small animal practice?
A
Most infections can be treated successfullyCan be transmitted between pets and humans in both directionsPrimarily a human-hospital pathogen therefore higher risk of human infectionOwner perceptions may vary
13
Q
What are the two main zoonoses linked with exotic pets?
A
Reptile related salmonellosisFish tank granuloma (Mycobacterium marinum)
14
Q
What is the first key responsibility in zoonoses detection?
A
Early suspicion and correct diagnosis
15
Q
What three things can alert us to the possibility of zoonoses?
A
HistoryClinical presentationPathogens present
16
Q
Why should we alert clients to potential zoonoses?
A
Risk of transmission - part of our professional conduct
17
Q
Which owners are more at risk from contracting zoonoses?
A
Compromised host susceptibilityClose contactVery young or elderlyRisk factors - wounds, cuts, bites etc.
18
Q
What should we recommend clients to do if their pet is suspected of having a zoonosis?
A
Refer to GP/practitioner
19
Q
What four thigns can we do to help prevent spread of zoonoses?
A
Manage the patientPractice hygieneKeep personal hygieneUse antimicrobials responsibly
20
Q
When should you change your apron in practice?
A
Between every patient
21
Q
What is the survival time for bacteria on dry surfaces?
A
Gram +ve: many monthsGram -ve: many monthsPseudomonas aeruginosa: 5 weeks on dry, 16 months on wetSpore-forming: many months
22
Q
What are the three stages of traffic-light isolation protocol?
A
Red - isolated unless clinically unstableAmber - barrier nuse in wards/ICU to await microbiology/virology examinationGreen - patient can be nursed in wards - no isolation required
23
Q
What are the visiting requirements for isolation?
A
Clinican arranges and informs receptionDesignated personnel for duration of visitClient must have protocols explainedClient must sign ‘Form of Agreement’Must wear full isolation protective clothingMust be supervised at all timesMust follow hand-washing protocolsVisit and communication recorded on CRIS
24
Q
Describe infection control with a patient with a known zoonotic infection
A
Patient should wait outsideSeen at end of the dayDisinfection before next patientIsolation of patients and barrier nursingMove within surgery on trolley or in basketSpecial care in procedure areas
25
What is disinfection no substitute for?
Cleaning - decreases pathogen burden 90%
26
What is the BSAVA responsible use of antimicrobials?
Practic policyReduce prophylaxisOther optionsTypes of bacteria and drugsEmplying the correct antibacterialCytology and cultureTreating effectively
27
What are the five factors for emergence of zoonoses?
Environmental changesHuman and animal demographyPathogen changesChanges in farming practicesSocial and cultural factors
28
What proportion of emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?
75%
29
What are endemic zoonoses?
Zoonoses that are constantly present in a certain population
30
What are some examples of neglected endemic zoonoses?
AnthraxBrucellosisBovine TBCysticercosis & neurocysticercosisHydatid diseaseRabiesHuman African Trypanosomyasis
31
What is the proportion of zoonotic pathogens in humans?
60%
32
What is the difference between a notifiable disease and a reportable disease?
Notifiable disease need to report a suspicion of a clinical case of diseaseReportable disease needs to be made by laboratory which isolated organism from a sample
33
What are the zoonoses that need to be reported in farms/veterinary practices?
AnthraxAvian influenzaBovine tuberculosisBSEBrucellosisCampylobacteriosisCryptosporidiosisE. coli O157Verotoxigenic E. coliErisipeloidGiardiosis
34
Which zoonoses are non-notifiable in farms and veterinary practices?
Resistant bacteriaLeptospirosisLouping illNewcastle diseaseOrfToxoplasma gondiiTrychophytum sppSalmonellosis
35
What are the main sources of zoonotic resistance?
EnvironmentProduction animalsHumansVeterinariansDogs and catsWildlifeHospitalsMeat, eggs and milk
36
Which bacteria is the emergence of resistance a major issue?
Gram negatives
37
Which two zoonoses are common but not reportable?
Orf: highly contagious viral infection most commonly seen after lambingRingworm: fungal infection - itchy, raised patches that tend to have sharply defined edges
38
Define a risk
Probability of occurrence and consequences
39
What are the three elements in risk analysis?
Risk assessmentRisk managementRisk communication
40
What are the two objectives of risk analysis?
Priority setting Selection of prevention strategies
41
What things should be used to determine the probability of infection with zoonoses?
Evidence of prevalence of hazard in target populationInformation about biology of the hazard
42
What things should be done to prevent and control zoonoses on farms?
Assess risks to health from work activites that involve a hazardous substancePrevent or control exposure to hazardous substancesIntroduce and maintain control measuresRegularly review risk assessments and effectiveness
43
Who are the risk groups of visitors at farms?
Young childrenElderly peopleImmunocompromised individualsPregnant women
44
What should be implemented in healthy animals to help prevent and control zoonoses on farms?
Vaccinate and worming programmesAvoid contaminating drinking waterRoutine health checksImplement a Herd Health PlanGood animal husbandry and management practiceImpelement biosecurity
45
What should be promoted when trying to prevent and control zoonoses in farms?
Use of protective equipment especially when dealing with sick animals
46
For what reasons are zoonoses under-reported?
Lack of awarenessSub-clinical infectionClinical signs are minor and not perceived to require medical attentionNegative impact
47
When does the veterinarian become part of the food production chain?
When animals are raised for food production - keep the public healthy
48
Define a hazard
An agent, substance or action that has the potential to cause an undesired event
49
What is the definition of a risk?
The probability of an undesired event and the consequences of an undesired event
50
What four things are values at risk in the food chain?
Food SafetyAnimal HealthAnimal WelfareEnvironment
51
What is the objective of risk assessment at the farm level?
Identify relevant hazards, prioritise them and to evaluate risk management strategies
52
What is the objective of risk management?
Reduce or prevent the risk related to a hazard
53
What is the goal of preharvest food safety?
Minimize the risk of foodborne illness
54
Where can hazards originate from and how can transmission occur?
Originate from many sources and transmit via direct or indirect pathways
55
What should vets be familiar with in relation to hazards?
That they can originate from many sources and be familiar with the biology of the most relevant food hazards even if they don't cause disease in animals
56
What are the three types of hazards in animal-derived foods?
BiologicalChemicalPhysical
57
What are the four main processes on a farm where risks occur?
Feeding practices and production of animal feedVeterinary treatmentsEnvironmental hazardsInadequate hygiene
58
What are the five sources of food-safety hazards at pre-harvest and two examples of each?
Animal - Salmonella and TBPersonnel - Salmonella and S. aureusWildlife - Salmonella and TBEnvironment - Campylobacter and Coxiella burnettiFeed - Salmonella and Listeria
59
What can feed and water be contaminated with?
Different chemical and biological hazards
60
What is the responsibility of manufacturers in feed production?
Safety of feed sold to farmers as ready to be given to the animals
61
When are farmers responsible for the safety of their feed?
Those who source ingredients to produce their own feed
62
What two aspects of animal husbandry need to be managed for risks and hazards?
Introduction of hazards into the farmSpread of pathogens within a farm
63
What do specific husbandry practices influence?
The likelihood of introduction of hazards into the farm
64
What do improvements in animal welfare have the potential to reduce?
On-farm risks to food safety, principally through reduced stress-induced immunosuppression, reduced incidence of infectious disease on farms and reduced shedding of human pathogens by farm animals, and through reduced antibiotic use and antibiotic resistance
65
What are the three control programs used to control Salmonella on farms?
Poultry sector: programs in breeding chicken flocks, laying flocks, broiler flocks and breeding and fattening turkey flocksPigs: UK ZNCP - reduction of the risk to consumersOther species: passive surveillance
66
What is an incident?
The first isolation and all subsequent isolations of the same serovar from an animal usually within a 30 day period
67
What is the most commonly reported zoonosis in the EU?
Campylobacter
68
What species is Campylobacter common in?
Poultry and livestock
69
What is the aim of the FSA campylobacter risk management program?
Reduce levels of Campylobacter in chicken targeting different points along the food chain
70
What are the on-farm interventions for Campylobacter risks?
BiosecurityFeed and water additivesReduce risk of colonization, vaccination and genetic resistance
71
What are the three routes of human infection with E. coli O157?
Consumption of contaminated food or waterDirect contact with animals or their faecesPerson-to-person spread
72
What is the main reservoir of E. coli in the UK?
Cattle - other ruminants can be infected
73
Why is the risk to the public from TB very low?
Milk is pasteurised and their is a very effective TB surveillance and control programme in cattle
74
What is the risk pathway?
Sequence of events or actions that can lead to outcomes happening - can be basis for risk management
75
What are four key examples of foodborne pathogens that may contaminate food products at farm level?
SalmonellaCampylobacterE. coli O157TB
76
What is risk management?
Strategies and interventions aimed at risk reduction or elimination
77
What is risk management based on?
Risk assessment
78
What is risk management targeted at?
Interrupting, preventing or eliminating transmission pathways identified in risk assessment
79
What three things does risk management include?
Identifying the most cost-effective management optionImplementationMonitoring and follow-up
80
What is critical for effective risk management by clients?
Risk communication
81
What are the four risk management strategies?
Risk transferRisk avoidanceRisk mitigation or reductionRisk acceptance
82
What is risk transfer?
Insuring against events
83
What is risk avoidance?
Not performing an activity that is hazardous e.g. change in business
84
What is risk mitigation/reduction?
Reduction of negative consequences to target levels
85
What is risk acceptance?
Keeping risks below an acceptable levelIf they are below a defined level then nothing should be done
86
What is the two-tiered approach to risk management in primary production?
First tier: pre-requisite program of generic practicesSecond tier: pathogen specific practices and technologies
87
What purchase policies can be implemented as a risk management strategy?
Quality standards on purchases within the production chainHealth certificates for animalsQuality certificates for feed
88
How can biosecurity be implemented in risk management strategies?
Aimed at preventing pathogens and toxins from coming in contact with the animals
89
What are the three sources of feed that need to be managed for risks?
On-farm productionPurchasedStorage
90
How can water be managed for risks?
Fence off polluted waterProtect water from contaminationMonitor water of on-farm wells
91
How should veterinary drugs be risk managed?
Prescribe according to prudent use guidelinesObserve specific legislation for food animalsObserve withdrawal periodsObserve recording requirementsSafely store and dispose of veterinary drugs
92
What are the statutory programs for managing risks associated with TB?
Test and killRestrict movementsBiosecurityVaccination?
93
What are the statutory programs for managing risks associated with BSE?
Test and removeFeeding banRemove specific risk material at slaughter
94
What are the statutory programs for managing risks with Salmonella?
Test and kill
95
What are the two elements in tracing animals and their products?
Animal identificationTracing
96
What five things should be done when preparing animals for slaughter?
Avoid stressPrevent soiling of animalsAssure animal is fit for slaughterAssure animal is fit for transportAssure animal identification
97
Why is it important to reduce stress when slaughtering animals?
Can activate shedding of pathogens such as Salmonella or Campylobacter
98
Define monitoring
Continuous effort to collect data to detect changes or trends in the occurrence of disease in order to inform decisions
99
Define surveillance
A special case of monitoring where data are used to assess a status in response to a pre-defined threshold
100
What may the threshold level be for some hazards?
Zero
101
What are herd health planning programs?
Surveillance programs
102
What is the initial objective for surveillance programs?
Measure the general level of occurrence of the disease - monitoring
103
When do control programs start?
If the disease is considered to be important and action should be taken
104
When does monitoring become surveillance?
When cases are detected above a certain threshold and actions are then taken
105
What should hopefully occur during surveillance with control programmes?
Incidence decreases - surveillance used to assess the effectiveness of the control program
106
What should the objective of surveillance change to if eradication is achieved?
Demonstrating freedom from infection
107
What is the main definition of surveillance from the ECDC?
Series of activities to take action for prevention and control diseases
108
What eight things are characteristics of surveillance systems?
ObjectivesHazard selectionCase definition and diagnostic methodsTarget populationTiming and sampling intervalsData management and analysisMethods for data analysisFeedback and dissemination of results
109
What five things are elements of the design of surveillance systems?
Hazard selectionCase definition and diagnostic methodsTarget populationTiming and sample intervalsData management and analysis
110
Describe farm level surveillance systems
Emphasize diseases that are controllable by the individual farmerFocus on productivityRely on farm recordsFeedback to the farmer and actions discussed
111
What are the main monitoring/surveillance objectives for animal health?
National: Demonstrate freedom from diseaseOutbreak detectionIndustry: Monitor production diseasesMonitor zoonoses and food-borne pathogensProducer: Monitor production diseasesWildlife: Establish disease status
112
What are the main objectives for monitoring and surveillance in relation to food safety?
National: Progress of hazard reduction programmesIndustry: Assure freedom from hazardProducer: Assure freedom from hazard
113
What is a case definition?
An animal or unit that fulfils the specific definition based on clinical, laboratory or epidemiological characterisitics
114
What is an outbreak?
Cases clustered in time and space occurring at a higher level than expected
115
What is an epidemic?
Occurrence of more cases of disease than expected in a given area or among a specific group of people over a particular period of time
116
What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
Incidence: rate (number of new cases/(population at risk*time at risk))Prevalence: proportion (number of existing cases/population at risk)
117
What is passive monitoring and surveillance?
WaitingCase reportingDependent on motivation and awareness
118
What is active monitoring and surveillance?
SearchingSurveysTesting
119
Define bias
Systematic error due to design, the implementation or the analysis of the surveillance program
120
Define random error
Error due to sampling variation
121
What are the three ways bias can occur?
Case detectionSelection biasInformation bias
122
How can selection bias occur?
Voluntary participationNot all farms listed in sampling frame
123
What are the four areas that the legal framework for inspections and controls mainly focus on?
Feed safetyAnimal identificationMedicine useWelfare
124
Who is responsible for reporting notifiable diseases?
Every veterinarian, animal owner and laboratory
125
What is the difference between notifiable and reportable diseases?
Notifiable - statutory requirement to report suspicion of a clinical caseReportable - statutory requirement to report laboratory confirmed isolation of organisms
126
What has to be precisely defined during surveillance?
What is a case?
127
What may be required when identifying cases?
Laboratory tests
128
What four things are we protecting by carrying out disease surveillance?
Public healthAnimal health and welfareEnvironment and wider societyInternational trade
129
What are the three main elements of disease surveillance?
Monitor trends in existing diseases in the UK by comparison against a thresholdMonitor and identigy potential new and emerging diseases, zoonotic infections and intoxicationsInform DEFRA and other stakeholders
130
Who carries out veterinary disease surveillance in the UK?
Animal owner/keeperVeterinary practicesLivestock Industry OrganisationsUniversitiesAbattoirsDiagnostic laboratoriesVMDInternational disease monitoring
131
What are the three diagnostic services that vets provide in practice?
Post mortem of carcass suitable for surveillancePostal samplesAdvice on disease diagnosis and control
132
What are the uses for submission of a carcass for PM examination?
Detections of:Endemic disease levelAnimal welfare issuesNotifiable diseasesNovel diseasesZoonosesChemical threat to the food chainAntibiotic resistanceAdverse reactions
133
What is used to standardise data collection in scanning surveillance?
Submission forms and the Farmfile database
134
What should be done if a diagnosis is not reached?
Quarterly and annual trend analysesMonitor the change in percent of diagnosis not reached for each body system/syndromeCompare with mean of previous 4 yearsAnalyse and interpretInform and act if appropriate
135
What is targeted surveillance?
Scientific research into new diseases or changes in recognised diseases identified by scanning results sometimes in a more active approach
136
What things do we use targeted surveillance for?
Notifiable diseasesZoonotic diseasesNovel diseasesAntimicrobial resistanceImport testing
137
What four things does national veterinary disease surveillance data originate from?
Scanning surveillanceTargeted surveillanceMandatory reportingVoluntary reporting
138
What is the role of the veterinary investigation centres?
Safeguard public and animal health, animal welfare, international trade and the environmentProvides standardised, quality assured dataAnalyses and interprets this dataInforms the stakeholders incl. DEFRA to allow for actionDiagnostic support for practitioners by carrying out subsidised post mortem examinations and laboratory testsAdvisory function to practising veterinarians
