Preaeanaesthesia test PQ Flashcards
(64 cards)
1
Q
Premedication
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
B. Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
C. Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
D. Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia
A
A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
2
Q
Calming A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Anesthesia
A
C. Sedation
3
Q
Reduction of fear A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Anesthesia
A
B. Anxiolysis
4
Q
Pain relief A. Analgesia B. Anxiolysis C. Sedation D. Catalepsy
A
A. Analgesia
5
Q
Catalepsy may be caused by A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Fentanyl D. Xylazine
A
A. Ketamine
6
Q
Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the false answer
A. Superficial ‘sleeping’
B. Analgesia
C. Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination
A
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination
7
Q
Anesthesia types. Pick the false answer A. Local B. Regional C. Subtotal D. General
A
C. Subtotal
8
Q
General anesthesia criteria. Pick the false answer A. Inhalational B. Hypnosis C. Analgesia D. Muscle relaxation
A
A. Inhalational
9
Q
Balanced anesthesia. Pick the false answer
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
B. Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
C. Pain may be controlled by analgesics
D. Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
A
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
10
Q
Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the false answer A. Thalamocortical dissociation B. Limbic depression C. Peripheral analgesia D. Alteration of consciousness
A
B. Limbic depression
11
Q
Phenothiazines may cause life-threatening hypotension in… A. Dobermanns B. Boxers C. Staffordshire terriers D. Greyhounds
A
B. Boxers
12
Q
Brachycephalic breeds need… Pick the false answer A. Preoxigenation B. Short induction C. Fast intubation D. Early extubation
A
D. Early extubation
13
Q
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in… Pick the false answer A. Australian shepherd B. English shepherd C. German shepherd D. Pug
A
D. Pug
14
Q
Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the false answer A. Mucous membranes B. Capillary refill time C. Spleen size D. Pulse frequency and quality
A
C. Spleen size
15
Q
Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the false answer A. Auscultation B. Electrocardiography C. Ultrasonography D. Hearth muscle biopsy
A
D. Hearth muscle biopsy
16
Q
Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam. Pick the false answer A. Parasitological examination of feces B. White blood cell count and hematocrit C. Total plasma protein D. Urea, Crea and ALT
A
A. Parasitological examination of feces
17
Q
ASA 1. Pick the false answer A. Healthy state B. Symptom-free state C. Low anesthesia risk D. Age: 0 day – 8 years
A
D. Age: 0 day – 8 years
18
Q
ASA 2. Pick the false answer A. Mild systemic disease B. No apparent functional disorders C. Low anesthesia risk D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
A
D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
19
Q
ASA 3. Pick the false answer A. Severe systemic disease B. Visible functional impairment C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years D. Not life-threatening status
A
C. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years
20
Q
ASA 4. Pick the false answer A. Severe systemic disease B. Constant threat to life C. Age: 0–3 days or over 10 years D. Age: 6–16 years
A
D. Age: 6–16 years
21
Q
CEPOD classification. Pick the false answer
A. I: immediate, life-saving intervention
B. II: urgent intervention
C. III: planned for near future
D. IV: no time for classification
A
D. IV: no time for classification
22
Q
Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the false answer
A. Usually 6 hours
B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients
C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients
A
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients
23
Q
Advantages of premedication. Pick the false answer A. Decreases stress, fear and aggression B. Lowers anesthetic demand C. Decreases drug expenditure and costs D. Increases the excitation phase
A
D. Increases the excitation phase
24
Q
Steps of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer A. Premedication B. Induction C. Stadium analgesiae D. Recovery
A
C. Stadium analgesiae
25
Effects of premedication. Pick the false answer
A. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
B. Increases O2-demand
C. Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
D. Eliminates excitation stage
B. Increases O2-demand
26
```
Reasons for vein cannulation. Pick the false answer
A. Drug administration
B. Fluid therapy
C. Emergency access
D. Monitoring core temperature
```
D. Monitoring core temperature
27
Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the fals answer
A. Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
B. Rapid onset of action
C. Long duration
D. Short duration or counteractable
C. Long duration
28
```
Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Inhalational
D. Epidural
```
D. Epidural
29
```
Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the fals answer
A. Control the depth of anesthesia
B. Patient monitoring
C. Reduce surgical time
D. Maintain homeostasis
```
C. Reduce surgical time
30
Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer
A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B. Stadium excitationis = excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae = surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis
31
```
Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Unconsciousness
B. Lack of perception
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle rigidity
```
D. Muscle rigidity
32
Atropine is used for treatment… Pick the fals answer
A. Bradycardia caused by opioids
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by D2-agonists (high BP)
C. AV- and SA-blocks
D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by D2-agonists (high BP)
33
```
ACP effects. Pick the fals answer
A. Calming
B. Vasodilation
C. Depression of thermoregulation
D. Emetic
```
D. Emetic
34
```
ACP effects. Pick the fals answer
E. Decreases BP
F. Antihistaminic
G. Depression of platelet function
H. Analgesic
```
H. Analgesic
35
Diazepam and midazolam. Pick the fals answer
A. For old animals with poor general condition
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
C. Decrease anxiety, relax muscles
D. High dose causes respiratory depression
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
36
```
Alpha2-agonists. Pick the fals answer
A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone
B. Detomidine
C. Medetomidine and dexmedetomidine
D. Xylazine
```
A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone
37
```
Alpha2-agonists. Pick the fals answer
A. Sedative
B. Analgesic
C. Emetic
D. Not antagonisable
```
D. Not antagonisable
38
Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the fals answer
A. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
C. Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients
D. Cause circulatory and respiratory depression
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
39
```
Opioid drugs. Pick the false answer
A. Morphine and fentanyl
B. Buprenorphine and butorphanol
C. Tramadol and thiopental
D. Naloxone (as antagonist)
```
C. Tramadol and thiopental
40
```
Opioid receptors. Pick the false answer
A. µ (mu)
B. κ (kappa)
C. o (omicron)
D. G (delta)
```
C. o (omicron)
41
```
Fentanyl. Pick the false answer
A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 15–30 minutes duration of effect
C. Do not combine with propofol
D. May be reduced
```
C. Do not combine with propofol
42
```
Morphine. Pick the false answer
A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 4–6 hours duration of effect
C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
D. May be reduced
```
C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
43
Opioids. Pick the false answer
A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
B. Major analgesics
C. Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
D. Can be antagonized by naloxone
A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
44
```
Full opioid agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol
```
A. Morphine
45
```
Full opioid agonist
E. Naloxone
F. Buprenorphine
G. Butorphanol
H. Fentanyl
```
H. Fentanyl
46
```
Short duration of action
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Fentanyl patch
```
C. Fentanyl
47
```
Partial µ-agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl
```
B. Buprenorphine
48
```
Partial µ-antagonist and κ-agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl
```
C. Butorphanol
49
```
Weak µ-agonist
A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol
```
D. Tramadol
50
Propofol. Pick the fals answer
A. Can be used in almost all patient groups
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
C. Short duration of action, can be redosed
D. High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
51
Application of propofol. Pick the false answer
A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
B. Slowly
C. IV
D. To effect
A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
52
Ketamine. Pick the false answer
A. Moderate analgesic effect
B. Benzodiazepines can help avoid catalepsy
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
D. Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
53
```
Safe inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Ether
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane
```
A. Ether
54
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases
B. 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases
C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
D. Short induction and recovery
C. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
55
```
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Hypnotic
B. Muscle relaxant
C. No analgesic effect
D. Sedative
```
D. Sedative
56
Local anesthetics. Pick the false answer
A. Block nerve cells
B. Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
D. Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity
C. Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
57
```
LA side-effects. Pick the false answer
A. Cardiovascular
B. CNS
C. Cell toxicity
D. Respiratory
```
D. Respiratory
58
Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium
A. Central muscle relaxants
B. Peripheral nondepolarising muscle relaxants
C. Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants
D. Local anesthetics
B. Peripheral nondepolarising muscle relaxants
59
Pain. Pick the false answer
A. Complex, multidimensional negative experience
B. There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
D. Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
60
Characteristics of pain. Pick the false answer
A. Function: physiological or pathological
B. Origin: organic or psychogenic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
D. Duration: acute or chronic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
61
Pathological pain. Pick the false answer
A. Hyperalgesia: mild noxious stimuli result in intense pain sensation
B. Allodynia: tactile (non-painful) stimuli result in pain sensation
C. Pain impulse may be inhibited by pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers
D. Never combine pain-killers
| Ascending pathway of the nociception
62
Ascending pathway of the nociception
A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
63
Modern concepts of pain management. Pick the false answer
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia
C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia
D. No gap should appear!
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
64
```
Intraoperative analgesic effect. Pick the false answer
A. Ketamine CRI
B. Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI
C. Local anesthetics + opioids
D. Inhalants alone
```
D. Inhalants alone
