Preconception Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to diagnose sickle cell carrier status, as well as thalassemias in general?

A

Hgb electrophoresis + CBC

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2
Q

Complications of uncontrolled asthma during pregnancy

A

Prematurity; preeclampsia; growth restriction; C-section; maternal morbidity/mortality

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3
Q

What is the percentage chance of being sickle cell carrier in Blacks?

A

1/10

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4
Q

What is the carrier frequency of cystic fibrosis in the non-Hispanic white population?

A

1/25

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5
Q

What is the carrier frequency of different diseases for Ashkenazi Jews?

A

Gaucher: 1/15 - impaired fatty acid breakdown
Tay-Sachs: 1/30 - neuronal degeneration
Canavan disease: 1/55 - brain degenerates into spongy tissue with enlarged spaces
Maple syrup urine disease: 1/113 - can’t break down branched amino acids

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6
Q

Valproic acid: risks to fetus

A

Neural tube defects; hydrocephalus; craniofacial malformations (facial clefts, craniosynostosis); limb defects (radial aplasia); cardiac defects; hypospadias

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7
Q

Diabetes (poorly controlled): Risks to fetus

A

Structural anomalies: Neural tube defects; cardiovascular

Genitourinary defects; limb defects; caudal regression malformation (very rare)

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8
Q

Name the screening tests

A

Cell-free DNA: most reliable for Trisomy 21 (99% detection rate, 0.2% false positive rate); can start at 9 wga

Others have 5% false positive rate
First trimester combined test (Nuchal translucency, PAPP-A, b-hCG): 85% detection rate
Triple screen (2nd trimester AFP, b-hCG, uE3 unconjugated estriol): 69% detection rate
Quad screen (Triple screen + inhibin A): 81% detection rate
Sequential screen (1st trimester NT and PAPP-A + quad screen): 93% detection rate
Serum integrated screen when unable to obtain NT (1st trimester PAPP-A + quad screen): 85-88%

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9
Q

What is the most common form of inherited intellectual disability?

A

Fragile X - 1/3,600 males and 1/4,000 females

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10
Q

What should be added for a patient on lamotrigine who wants to become pregnant?

A

Folate supplementation - decreases incidence of neural tube defects for patients on antiseizure medication

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11
Q

Interpret the 100 g 3h glucose tolerance test

A

2/4 elevated values = abnormal test —> educate on diet and monitor blood glucose pre/post-prandial
Fasting < 95, 1h < 180, 2h <155, 3h <140

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12
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes

A

Previous large baby >9 lbs; hx abnormal glucose tolerance; pre-pregnancy obesity; Native American/Hispanic ancestry

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13
Q

Risks from gestational diabetes

A

Shoulder dystocia; fetal macrosomia; metabolic disturbance; preelcampsia; polyhydramnios

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14
Q

When should neural tube defects be screened during pregnancy?

A

36-38 weeks via US, assessing for meningomyelocele (open spina bifida)

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15
Q

What does elevated maternal serum AFP suggest?

A

Underestimation of gestational age; neural tube defect; fetal demise; multiple gestation; ventral wall defects; tumor or liver disease in patient

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16
Q

Amniocentesis vs chorionic vilus sampling

A

CVS is between 10-12 wga
Amnio has highest sensitivity for Down syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities
Amnio > cell-free DNA testing if patient has high BMI as there is risk of not enough cells

17
Q

Why should ibuprofen be stopped by 32 wga?

A

Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

18
Q

What anticoagulation should be used during pregnancy?

A

Heparin/LMWH

19
Q

How much weight should be gained during pregnancy for the different BMIs?

A

BMI <18.5: 28-40 lbs
BMI 18.5-24.9: 25-35 lbs
BMI 25.0-29.9: 15-25 lbs
BMI >30: 11-20 lbs

20
Q

How much folate is needed for preconception planning?

A

Starting 1 month prior:
Average risk: 0.4 mg daily
High-risk: 4 mg daily

21
Q

Congenital Rubella would cause what in fetus?

A

Fetal growth restriction

22
Q

Congenital Varicella would cause what in fetus?

A

Microcephaly

23
Q

How would congenital HSV present?

A

Microcephaly

24
Q

How would congenital Syphilis present?

A

Hydrocephalus

25
Q

What puts at risk of congenital toxoplasmosis and what would you see?

A

Undercooked meat
Microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and diffuse cerebral calcifications

26
Q
A