Pregnancy Flashcards
(25 cards)
What is the next step in management for a patient with positive urine pregnancy test and serum β-hCG of 800 mIU/mL?
Transvaginal ultrasound in 4 days
In utero exposure to __________ can cause fetal renal hypoplasia, oligohydramnios and its complications (e.g., intrauterine growth restriction, Potter sequence), poor cranial ossification (e.g., hypocalvaria), and fetal death.
- ACE inhibitors
- Angiotensin receptor blockers
What is the most accurate way to estimate gestational age during first trimester?
First trimester ultrasound with crown-rump length measurement
After 14 weeks of gestation. what measures can be used to estimate the gestational age?
- Biparietal diameter
- Head circumference,
- Abdominal circumference and femoral length
Which is the most common cause of urinary tract obstruction (UTO) in newborn males?
Posterior urethral valves (PUV) diagnosed by cystourethrogram
What teratogenic effect is associated with valproic acid?
Neural tube defects
- Treatment for patients who undergo removal of the corpus luteum (via oophorectomy) before 10 weeks’ gestation:
-Treatment for patients who undergo removal of the corpus luteum (via oophorectomy) after 10 weeks’ gestation:
- Progesterone supplementation
- Reassurance and follow-up
What teratogenic effect is associated with maternal lithium use?
Ebstein anomaly
What is the likely diagnosis in a newborn with microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, and distal phalangeal hypoplasia?
Fetal hydantoin syndrome due to maternal exposure to phenytoin
Pregnancy:
-________ is responsible for producing progesterone during the first 6-12 weeks of gestation
- _______takes over progesterone production around 8-12 weeks
- Corpus luteum
-Placenta
When is a non-stress test considered reactive (normal)? ≥
2 fetal heart rate accelerations(15 bpm rise in HR sustained for 15 seconds) in 20 minutes
What is the next step in management for a pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation that presents with decreased fetal movement?
Heart tones are heard by Doppler Non-stress test
Vaccinations recommended for all pregnant patients during each pregnancy include inactivated ____ and ______
Influenza and Tdap
Quad screen test is done between:
weeks 15–22 of pregnancy
What is the next step in management of a positive first-trimester combined test or second-trimester quadruple screen?
Chorionic villus sampling (10-13 weeks) or amniocentesis (15-20 weeks)
What is the next step in management for a pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation with an abnormally elevated β-hCG level and increased nuchal thickness on ultrasound?
Chorionic villous sampling (CVS)
Down syndrome presents with ________free β-hCG and ______ inhibin A
increased
increased
What is the initial screening test of choice for fetal aneuploidy in pregnant patients at > 10 weeks gestation with high-risk factors (e.g. age ≥ 35)?
Cell-free fetal DNA testing (cffDNA)
A noninvasive first-trimester screening consisting of measurement of sonographic nuchal translucency and beta-HCG and PAPP-A levels in maternal serum is performed between _________- and can detect trisomy 13,18, and 21.
10-14 weeks’ gestation
Universal screening for group B Streptococcus colonization is typically done by vaginal and rectal culture at:
36 - 38 weeks gestation
Intrapartum penicillin is indicated without routine screening in pregnant patients with a history of either:
- GBS bacteriuria or UTI during current pregnancy
- Prior delivery complicated by neonatal GBS infection
Routine infection testing recommended in all pregnant individuals at the first prenatal visit:
HIV, syphilis, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C
Indication of monitoring 1-2 times weekly with non-stress tests (NST), biophysical profile, amniotic fluid index (AFI), and umbilical artery doppler
IUGR
When is delivery indicated in an IUGR fetus with oligohydramnios or abnormal doppler velocimetry of umbilical artery?
36 weeks
