Prelim Injunctions + TROs + Pleadings Flashcards

(28 cards)

1
Q

What is a preliminary injunction?

A

A preliminary injunction preserves the status quo of the parties until a final judgment on the merits can be reached.

It is a temporary court order aimed at preventing harm before a final decision is made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of preliminary injunctions?

A
  • Prohibitory Injunction
  • Mandatory Injunction

Prohibitory injunctions restrain a party from specified behavior;
mandatory injunctions require an affirmative act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a prohibitory injunction do?

A

It prohibits or restrains a party from engaging in a specified behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a mandatory injunction require?

A

It requires the defendant to engage in an affirmative act.

Courts are more reluctant to grant these compared to prohibitory injunctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Every order granting an injunction must:

A
  1. State the reasons as to why it was issued;
  2. State its terms specifically; AND
  3. Describe in reasonable detail the act or acts restrained or required.

These components ensure clarity and enforceability of the injunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A plaintiff seeking a preliminary injunction must establish that:

A
  1. She is likely to suffer irreparable harm if the preliminary injunction is not issued;
  2. She is likely to suffer greater harm than the defendant will if the preliminary injunction is not issued;
  3. She is likely to succeed on the merits; AND
  4. The injunction is in the best interest of the public.

These criteria help assess the necessity and justification for the injunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What must happen regarding notice for a preliminary injunction?

A

The non-moving party MUST be given notice and an opportunity to oppose at a hearing before the court.

This ensures due process and fairness in judicial proceedings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Courts are more willing to grant mandatory injunctions than prohibitory injunctions.

A

False

Courts are much more reluctant to grant mandatory injunctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a temporary restraining order (TRO)?

A

A TRO preserves the status quo of the parties until a full hearing on a preliminary injunction

A TRO may NOT last longer than 14 days unless good cause exists or the non-moving party consents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the contents required in every TRO order?

A

Every order granting a TRO must:
* State the reasons for issuance
* State its terms specifically; AND
* Describe in reasonable detail the act or acts restrained or required

These contents ensure clarity and justification for the order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What must a plaintiff establish to seek a TRO?

A

A plaintiff must establish:
1. She is likely to suffer irreparable harm if the TRO is not issued;
2. She is likely to suffer greater harm than the defendant will if the TRO is not issued;
3. She is likely to succeed on the merits; AND
4. The TRO is in the best interest of the public.

Each of these points is essential for the court’s consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: A TRO can last indefinitely without consent from the non-moving party.

A

False

A TRO may NOT last longer than 14 days unless good cause exists or the non-moving party consents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is required for a court to issue a TRO without notice to the non-moving party?

A

The court may issue a TRO without notice only if:
1. Specific facts in an affidavit or a verified complaint clearly show that immediate and irreparable harm will result to the movant before the non-moving party can be heard in opposition; AND
2. The movant’s attorney certifies in writing any efforts made to give notice to the non-moving party and the reasons why it should not be required.

This allows for urgent situations where waiting for notice could cause harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fill in the blank: A TRO may NOT last longer than _______ days without good cause or consent.

A

14

This time limitation is crucial for maintaining fairness in the legal process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of a complaint in a lawsuit?

A

To commence the lawsuit by stating grounds for subject matter jurisdiction, a short statement of the claim, and a demand for judgment for relief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three essential components that a complaint must state?

A
  • Grounds for subject matter jurisdiction
  • A short statement of the claim
  • A demand for judgment for relief.
17
Q

What is a pre-answer motion?

A

A motion filed by the defendant after the complaint is filed, raising defenses before responding with an answer.

18
Q

List the defenses that may be raised in a pre-answer motion.

A
  • Lack of subject matter jurisdiction
  • Lack of personal jurisdiction
  • Improper venue
  • Insufficiency of process
  • Insufficiency of service of process
  • Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted [12(b)(6)]
  • Failure to join an indispensable party under compulsory joinder.
19
Q

What must an answer state?

A
  1. A specific denial or admission of each allegation in the complaint OR a general denial of all allegations with specific admissions if necessary; AND
  2. Any affirmative defenses that the respondent has, or that defense is deemed waived.

A failure to deny an allegation constitutes an admission.

20
Q

What happens if a defendant fails to deny an allegation in their answer?

A

It constitutes an admission.

21
Q

What is the time frame for a defendant to present an answer if no pre-answer motion is made?

A

21 days after service.

22
Q

What is the time frame for a responsive pleading if a pre-answer motion is made?

A

14 days after the court’s denial or postponement of the motion.

23
Q

What are the two ways a party may amend a pleading?

A
  • By right
  • By leave of the court.
24
Q

Under what conditions can a party amend a pleading by right?

A
  • if no responsive pleading is required:
    Within 21 days
    OR
  • If a responsive pleading is required:
  • The service of the responsive pleading; OR
  • Being served with a Rule 12(b) motion.
25
Under what conditions can a party amend a pleading by leave of the Court
the amendment... 1. Is not subject to dismissal under Rule 12(b); AND 2. Would NOT result in undue prejudice to the opposing party. ## Footnote "when justice so requires"
26
What is the relation back doctrine?
It determines whether an amendment to a pleading will relate back to the date of the original pleading for statute of limitation purposes.
27
When does an amendment with a new claim relate back to the original pleading?
If the new claim arose out of the same transaction or occurrence set out in the original pleading.
28
What conditions must be met for an amendment that includes a new party to relate back?
* Asserts a claim that arose out of the same transaction or occurrence * New party receives notice within 90 days after the original complaint (so won't be prejudiced in defending his case on the merits); AND * New party knew or should have known the action would have been brought against them but for a mistake concerning identity.