Preoperative Assessment/Acutely Ill Surgical Patient Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

Define pre-operative care.

A

—Pre-operative care is the preparation and assessment, physical and psychological of a patient before surgery (Mallett & Dougherty 2000).

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2
Q

What are the aims of pre-operative assessment?

A
  • EXPLAINING procedures, associated risks and aftercare
  • INFORMED DECISIONS
  • IDENTIFYING co-existing medical conditions and how to optimise the patient’s health, while appreciating the urgency of their operation
  • SUPPORT patients to be as fit as possible before surgery e.g. smoking cessation, better nutrition, reduced alcohol and moderate physical exercise
  • IDENTIFY hig hrisk patients
  • IDENTIFY appropriate level of postop care
  • DESCRIBE discharge planning
  • IDENTIFY variables for prognostic information
  • EXPLAIN details of pre-op anaesthetic history and assessement
  • AIRWAY assessment, previous anaesthesia exposure + adverse reactions
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3
Q

Describe the peri-operative physical assessment.

A

—ASA 1: Healthy patient

—ASA 2: Mild systemic disease. No functional limitation

—ASA 3: Moderate systemic disease. Definite functional limitation

—ASA 4: Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

—ASA 5: Moribund patient. Unlikely to survive 24 hours, with or without treatment

—Postscript E indicates emergency surgery

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4
Q

What are the grades of surgeries? Give 2 examples of each.

A
  1. —Grade 1: Minor procedures e.g diagnostic endoscopy, breast biopsy
  2. —Grade 2: Inguinal hernia repair, varicose veins adenotonsillectomy, knee arthroscopy
  3. —Grade 3: Total abdominal hysterectomy, TURP, lumbar discectomy, thyroidectomy
  4. —Grade 4: Major procedures, e.g. total joint, artery reconstruction, colonic resection, radical neck dissection
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5
Q

What investigations would you do pre-operatively?

A
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6
Q

List some conditions that affect perioperative care.

A
  • —Ischaemic heart
  • —Congestive cardiac
  • —Chronic respiratory
  • —Diabetes
  • —Liver or kidney
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7
Q

What 3 domains help assess the cardiac risk index?

A
  • 1 procedure -related risk factor
  • 5 patient-related risk factors
  • Poor functional capacity
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8
Q

What factors affec the cardiac risk index? Give examples.

A

—1 procedure-related risk factor: intrathoracic surgery, intra-abdominal surgery, or suprainguinal vascular surgery

—5 patient-related risk factors:

  • —Ischaemic heart disease
  • —Congestive heart failure
  • —History of stroke or TIA
  • —Creatinine > 2.0 mg/dL
  • —Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

—Poor functional capacity: patients who become breathless and/or have chest pain while climbing a flight of stairs, walking on level ground at 4 km/hr, or performing heavy work around the house

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9
Q

What would suggest a poor functional capacity?

A

—Poor functional capacity: patients who become breathless and/or have chest pain while climbing a flight of stairs, walking on level ground at 4 km/hr, or performing heavy work around the house

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10
Q

What investigations would you do to assess cardiac risk index?

A
  • —Blood tests
    • —FBC, U&E, LFT, Coagulation Screen, G&S (anything else?)
  • —Electrocardiogram
    • —Hospital protocol may require a baseline electrocardiogram.
    • — It could be a key comparison in the event of any adverse cardiac events postoperatively.
  • —Chest radiograph
    • —Sometimes (when)?
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11
Q

When shdoul you do an ECG?

A

—Patients with > 1 RCRI risk factor and one of the following:

  • Age > 65 years
  • —COPD
  • —Peripheral vascular disease
  • —Arrhythmias
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12
Q

When should you do an echo?

A
  • —Exacerbation or new onset of cardiac symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, chest pain, syncope)
  • —Patients with moderate or severe valvular regurgitation or stenosis who have not had an echocardiogram in the past year
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13
Q

When should you do a CXR pre-op?

A
  • —Surgeries of the head and neck, thorax, upper abdomen
  • —Clinical features and/or a history of cardiac or pulmonary disease (e.g., COPD, congestive heart failure)
  • —> 60 years
  • —ASA score > 2Hypoalbuminemia
  • —Emergency procedures
  • —Prolonged surgeries (> 3 hours)
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14
Q

When should you do pulmonary function tests pre-op?

A
  • —Unexplained dyspnoea or exercise intolerance in patients who are about to undergo thoracic or upper abdominal surgery
  • —Patients with COPD or bronchial asthma who have not had a baseline pulmonary function test
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15
Q

Give 2 examples conditions in each region of acute abdomen.

A
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16
Q

What shoudl you do first if urine output is <0.5mL/kg/hour for >6 hours post operatively?

A

Check catheter patency

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17
Q

What is used for stree ulcer prophylaxis?

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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18
Q

What do you use for thromboprophylaxis pre and post operatively?

A

low-dose LMWH or unfractionated heparin (FH)

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19
Q

What can you do to prevent lung atelectasis post operatively?

A

Incentive spiromentry and breathing exercises

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20
Q

Why should enteral nutrition be started ASAP after surgery?

A

To prevent villous atrophy

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21
Q

How should you assess and management fluid status?

A
  • Look at observations, urine output and fluid balance chart
  • Look at lying and standing BP/HR/JVP/mucous membranes
  • Auscultate chest and look at peripheries/sacral oedema
  • Check electrolytes
  • Oral instead of IV?
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22
Q

Which patients are in need of fluid optimisation?

A
  • —diarrhoea and vomiting
  • —where the patient has been immobile / debilitated for a prolonged period prior to admission (which has decreased fluid intake)
  • —elderly patients with reduced renal function that makes fluid balance maintenance more challenging
  • —drugs that lower renal fluid exchange functions
  • —low BMI patients in whom ‘normal’ fluid loss volumes will be more significant.
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23
Q

Give 2 examples of fluid used for optimisation.

A
  • Hartmann’s
  • Normal 0.9& saline and dextrose
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24
Q

Which vitamins and minerals are important in wound healing?

A

Vit C and D

Zinc and selenium

25
Q

Describe the epidemiology of complications of surgery.

A
  • —Patients who have complications are more likely to die, even 5 years after surgery.
  • —About 20,000 to 25,000 deaths occur every year in UK hospitals following surgery, of which about
  • —80% occur in a small group of “high risk patients”. These patients account for 10% of surgical inpatients and are at increased risk of mortality and morbidity
26
Q

When do acute/early/late complications of surgery occur?

A
  • Acute - within 24 hours - e.g. bleeding, pain, iatrogenic damage
  • Early - 1 week- chest infections, wound healing,
  • Late - >1 week - DVT, scarring
27
Q

What are some possible acute complications of surgery?

A
  • —2ry to GA
  • —Haemorrhage or anaemia
  • —Hypovolaemia
  • —Respiratory compromise
  • —Uncontrolled pain
  • —Emboli
  • —Damage to surrounding structures
28
Q

How do you manage acute complications of surgery?

A

—Assessment of ….

  • patient’s airway patency (openness of the airway),
  • vital signs ,
  • and level of consciousness.

The following is a list of other assessment categories:

  • —surgical site (intact dressings with no signs of overt bleeding)
  • —patency (proper opening) of drainage tubes/drains
  • —body temperature (hypothermia/hyperthermia)
  • —patency/rate of intravenous (IV) fluids
  • —circulation/sensation in extremities after vascular or orthopedic surgery
  • —level of sensation after regional anesthesia
  • —pain status
  • —nausea/vomiting
29
Q

How often should you monitor drainage tubes in the first 24 hours of surgery?

A

Every 1-2 hours for the first 8 hous

30
Q

What should you monitor in the first 24 hours after surgery?

A
  • Vital signs
  • Resp status - auscultation and expansion, adequate cough.
  • Pain status
  • Incision
  • Drainage tubes
  • Body temperature (hypothermia after surgery)
31
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of early sepsis?

A
  • —Respiratory acidosis
  • —Decreased cardiac output
  • —Hypoglycemia
  • —Increased arteriovenous oxygen difference
  • —Cutaneous vasodilation
32
Q

What is the immediate management of post operative patients?

A
33
Q

Hwo often should you monitor fluid intake and urine output post-operatively?

A

1-2 hourly in the first 24 hours

34
Q

Give some reasons why controlling pain is crucial after surgery.

A

—Controlling pain is crucial so that the patient may perform coughing, deep breathing exercises, and may be able to turn in bed, sit up, and, eventually, walk (whcih prevents blood clots and encourages circualtion to extremities)

35
Q

After 24 hours, how often should you monitor vital signs/respiratory exercises?

A

—Vital signs can be monitored every four to eight hours if the patient is stable.

—The hospitalized patient should be sitting up in a chair at the bedside and ambulating with assistance by this time.

—Respiratory exercises are still be performed every two hours

36
Q

List some early complications of surgery (>24hrs).

A
  • —Delirium
  • —DVT/PE
  • —Infection/Sepsis
  • —Poor wound healing/Dehiscence
  • —Reperfusion injuries
  • —Pressure sores
  • —Late haemorrhage
37
Q

What is peritonitic pain?

A

Pain all over the abdomen to touch

38
Q

List some late complications of surgery?

A
  • —Damage to local structures -à loss of function
  • —Scarring
  • —Chronic pain
  • —Recurrence/Failure of surgery
39
Q

—You are the surgical F1(in 2 years time)

—21 yr old female, 5 hrs post lap chole: tachycardic (110), cool peripheries, BP:90/50, Urine output 30mls/hr, complaining of abdo pain—

—How would you manage this patient?

A

Differentials: sepsis, bleeding

40
Q

—your F2 colleague has asked you to chase the bloods for the previous colorectal patient. It is now day 6 and the ileus has resolved. He was ready for discharge today but has suddenly spiked a temp of 38. His abdomen has become peritonitic.

—Bloods: WCC:23 CRP:300 Creat :200 Urea:9—

—How would you manage this patient?

A

Has sepcic

Maybe dehiscence/anastomosis/leaky causing infection

41
Q

Define dehiscence/

A

he splitting or bursting open of a wound.

42
Q

List some causes of rebound tenderness. What is this aka?

A
  • Perforation. A hole or opening in your abdominal wall can let bacteria in, either from your digestive tract or from outside your body. …
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease. …
  • Dialysis. …
  • Liver disease. …
  • Surgery complication. …
  • Ruptured appendix. …
  • Stomach ulcer. …
  • Pancreatitis.

Blumberg Sign

43
Q

What are patients who have scarroing in the GI tract more at risk of in later years?

A

Scarring can increase risk of obstruction

44
Q

Which pains radiate to the back?

A

Kidney

Pancreas

AAA

45
Q

What position will patients lie in when they have peritoneal pain?

A

Fetal position so nothing is sretched

46
Q

What is the sign related to bruising of the flanks and what is it related to?

A

Grey Turner’s sIgn

Retroperitoneal bleeding

47
Q

All of the following are contraindication to passing a nasogastric tube EXCEPT

  • —(A) suspected perforation of the oesophagus
  • —(B) confirmed perforation of the oesophagus
  • —(C) history of oesophageal varices xx
  • —(D) nearly complete obstruction of the oesophagus due to benign or malignant strictures
  • —(E) presence of an oesophageal foreign body
A

C - bleeding is into the oesophagus but it is safe to insert NG tube

NOT D because you could cause trauma to the cancer

48
Q

—Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is indicated for symptomatic gallstones in which of the following conditions?

  • Cirrhosis
  • —Prior upper abdominal surgery
  • —Suspected carcinoma of the gallbladder
  • —Morbid obesity
  • —Coagulopathy
A

Mobid obesity

(prior abdo suergey doesn’t necessarily mean you will get gallstones, with sickle cell disease you get gall stones but NOT with coagulopathy)

49
Q

A 60-year-old male presents with an inguinal hernia of recent onset. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

(A) The hernia is more likely to be direct than indirect
(B) Presents through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, lateral to the deep inguinal ring.
(C) Is covered anteriorly by the transversalis fascia.
(D) Is more likely than a femoral hernia to strangulate.
(E) The sac is congenital.

A

A because you get a weakening of the abdominal wall

Not a congenital sac, femoral hernia(women get these more than males), depends which hernia it is whether or not it will be covered by transversalis fascia

50
Q

—48 year old woman presented with right abdominal pain, nausea & vomiting. On examination she had tenderness in the right hypochondrial area. Investigations showed high WBC count, high alkaline phosphatase & high bilirubin level. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) Acute cholecystitis
b) Acute appendicitis
c) Perforated peptic ulcer
d) Acute pancreatitis

A

A

a) Acute cholecystitis
b) Acute appendicitis
c) Perforated peptic ulcer- - right not left
d) Acute pancreatitis

51
Q

—A 67-year-old male presents with complaints of itching, dark urine, and epigastric pain. Physical examination reveals jaundice. Initial laboratory tests show total bilirubin of 6.5 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase elevated at 3 the upper limit of normal, and mild elevations in serum transaminases. Appropriate management includes which diagnostic test next?

a. Abdominal ultrasonography
b. Computed tomography of the abdomen
c. Magnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
d. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography

A

A

Something wrong wih gall bladder because of jaundice/itching. Deranged liver enzymes etc. Don’t do CT (radiation), MRI (not necessary), ERC (not sure if gall stones are definitely present)

52
Q

A 36-year-old woman complains of a 3-month history of bloody discharge from the nipple.
At examination, a small nodule is found, deep to the areola. Careful palpation of the nipple areolar complex results in blood appearing at the 3 o’clock position. Mammogram findings are normal. What is the likeliest diagnosis?

  • Breast cyst
  • Carcinoma in situ
  • Intraductal carcinoma
  • Intraductal papilloma
  • Fat necrosis
A

Intraductal papilloma

  • Breast cyst
  • Carcinoma in situ - would be related to skin changes (like Paget’s of nipple)
  • Intraductal carcinoma - BUT must exclude this. Can give blood and nodule.
  • Intraductal papilloma - nodule, young patient
  • Fat necrosis - doesn’t give blood at nipple
53
Q

—Which of the following is true about abdominal pain?

  • —a) Peptic ulcer pain is usually experienced in the hypogastrium
  • —b) The pain of irritable bowel syndrome is usually well localised
  • —c) The pain of oesophagitis is usually retrosternal in site
  • —d) The pain of pancreatitis usually radiates to the groin
A

C -

  • —a) Peptic ulcer pain is usually experienced in the hypogastrium - can be epigastric
  • —b) The pain of irritable bowel syndrome is usually well localised
  • —c) The pain of oesophagitis is usually retrosternal in site - MI also gives retrosternal pain
  • —d) The pain of pancreatitis usually radiates to the groin
54
Q

—Which of the following physical examination findings may be seen in patients with dehydration?

a. Capillary refill of 4
b. Capillary refill of 1 s
c. Hypertension
d. Bradycardia
e. Increased skin turgor

A

A -

55
Q

—Which of the following is true about an abdominal mass?

  • —a) A pulsatile mass is always due to an aortic aneurysm
  • —b) An enlarged kidney is dull to percussion
  • —c) A large mass arising out of the pelvis which disappears following urethral catheterization is caused by an ovarian cyst
  • —d) An indentible mass is caused by faecal loading of the colon
A

D

56
Q

—Which of the following is true of hepatomegaly?

  • —a) Emphysema is a cause
  • —b) The liver enlarges downwards from the left hypochondrium
  • —c) The presence of jaundice, spider naevi and purpura suggest alcohol as a cause
  • —d) The liver is usually resonant to percussion
A

C

57
Q

—Which of the following is true about jaundice?

  • —a) Pale stools and dark urine are characteristic of the jaundice of haemalytic anaemia
  • —b) Bilirubin is used by the liver in the synthesis of red blood cells
  • —c) Itching may be a sign of obstructive jaundicexxx
  • —d) Putting a danger of infection sticker on blood samples from an intravenous drug user with jaundice is optional
A

C

58
Q

—Which of the following is true of haematemesis?

  • —a) A low blood pressure (<90mmHg systolic) and a tachycardia (>100/min) are worrying features
  • —b) A pulse rate of 80/min in a patient taking Bisoprolol is reassuring
  • —c) Abdominal pain is always present
  • —d) An alcohol history is not essential
A

A - signs of shock are worrying features