Preventative Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

natural diet of horse (3)

A

grass/forage
salt
water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dietary needs and options influenced by (3)

A

geographic location
stabling environment
athletic discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

horses consume what percent of body weight in feed per day

A

1.5 - 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

horses consume what percent of body weight in water per day

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

equine diseases caused by OR controlled/fixed by diet (6)

A

laminitis
obesity/insulin resistance
white muscle disease
hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
polysaccharide storage myopathy
osteochondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what kind of teeth do horses have

A

hypsodont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypsodont teeth

A

continuously erupt throughout life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how many teeth horses have

A

36-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most commonly affected bad cheek teeth (2)

A

109
209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which tooth is the wolf tooth

A

205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how often should oral exams be

A

every 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how much do horses teeth erupt per year

A

4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

anisognathic jaw: purpose, predisposes to

A

figure of 8 grind
sharp points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dental pathologies (3)

A

malalignment
tooth root infections, sinus infections
developmental disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is a rotational approach for dewormers effective

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why is rotational approach for anthelmintics ineffective (4)

A

age
immune status
geography and climate
population density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

relevant parasite: foals

A

ascarids = parascaris equorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is it important to start deworming foals

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do weanlings develop if not dewormed

A

ascarid impactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

relevant parasites: adults (5)

A

large strongyles
small strongyles
tapeworms
bots
pinworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

large strongyles: requires what to climb, effect, treatment

A

needs grass to limb
thromboembolic colic
ivermectin once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is there any resistance to ivermectin from large stronglyes

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

small strongyles aka

A

cyathostomes

24
Q

small strongyles: need what to climb, effects, level of resistance

A

grass to climb
diarrhea and weight loss if encysted
some resistance to all anthelmintics
widespread resistance to benzimidazole

25
Q

which parasite do we measure to determine shedding status

A

small strongyles

26
Q

what is the only way to remove encysted small strongyles

A

moxidectin or power pack

27
Q

small strongyles have widespread resistance to

A

benzimidazole

28
Q

tapeworms: where found, effect

A

baled hay
typhilitis

29
Q

do tapeworms show up in a fecal

A

no

30
Q

which parasites don’t show up in fecal (3)

A

tapeworms
bots
pinworms

31
Q

bots eggs laid where

A

on hair of limbs

32
Q

pinworms: source, clinical sign

A

environmental contamination
excoriation of tail and anus

33
Q

first step to parasite control

A

fecal egg counts to determine type of shedder 3-4 months past last deworming

34
Q

lower shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitor protocol

A

0-200 epg
avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year
fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming

35
Q

moderate shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitoring protocol

A

200-500 epg
avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year
fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming

36
Q

high shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitoring protocol

A

> 500 epg
avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year
deworm additional 4 times with other dewormer classes
fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming

37
Q

what measure do we use to determine parasite resistance

A

fecal egg count reduction test

38
Q

fecal egg count reduction test: how used, what parasites to use for, formula

A

just prior to and 10-14 days following dewormer
only on ascarids and strongyles
% FECR = [(FEC pre - FEC post) / FEC pre) x 100]

39
Q

benzimidazoles: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in

A

act upon fumarate reductases to interfere with carbohydrate metabolism
fembendazole, oxibendazole
ascarid infections in foals
resistant cyathosome

40
Q

macrocyclic lactones: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in

A

increase cell permeability to chloride = flaccid paralysis and death
avermectin = ivermectin and moxidectin/quest
strongyles
resistant ascarids

41
Q

tetrahydropyrimidines: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in

A

cholinergic agonist
pyrantel = pyrantel pamoate paste, pyrantel tartrate pellet
adult strongyles and tapeworms
resistant ascarids and cyathostomes

42
Q

prazinquantel: mode of action, when used, how used

A

spastic paralysis, disrupts tegument
tapeworms
additive –> formulated with macrocyclic lactone

43
Q

criteria for identifying core vaccines (4)

A

public health risk/legally mandated
endemic disease
severe disease
favorable risk/benefit

44
Q

initial vaccination of foals occurs at what age

A

3-6 months

45
Q

core vaccines for horses (3)

A

rabies
tetanus
viral encaphilitides (WEE, EEE, west nile)

46
Q

top recommended vaccines for horses (3)

A

influenza
equine herpesvirus types 1 and 4
streptococcus equi (strangles)

47
Q

rabies: agent, vector, when to vaccinate, type of vaccine

A

rhabdoviridae
mammals
vaccinate annually
single or multi component inactivated

48
Q

tetanus: agent, when to vaccinate, type of vaccine

A

clostridium tetani
yearly vaccine
single or multi component inactivated

49
Q

does the tetanus disease vaccinate

A

no

50
Q

why doesn’t the tetanus disease vaccinate

A

dose causing clinical signs too small for good immune response

51
Q

EEE and WEE: agent, vector, what kind of vaccine, vaccination protocol

A

togaviridae
mosquitos
multivalent = attack 2 strains
initial dose and booster 3-4 week later
annually vaccinate 1 month prior to mosquito season

52
Q

west nile virus: agent, vector, vaccination protocol, main vaccine type

A

togaviridae
mosquitos
initial dose and booster 3-4 week later
annually vaccinate 1 month prior to mosquito season
killed intramuscular vaccine

53
Q

2 types of vaccine for west nile

A

monovalent
multivalent

54
Q

influenza: agent, vector, vaccine protocol, type of vaccines offered

A

influenza A genus, subtype H3N8
other horses
2-3 booster series 3-4 weeks apart then yearly
intramuscular killed or live intranasal vaccines

55
Q

equine herpes virus 1 and 4: agent, vector, vaccination

A

alphaherpesvirus
latent infection, reactivation, horse to horse transmission
vaccine only for protection against respiratory disease/abortion

56
Q

streptococcus equi equi (Strangles): agent, vector, vaccination protocol, vaccine types

A

streptococcus equi equi
inapparent carriers (guttural pouch chondroids)
live or killed intramuscular
live = intranasal 2 weeks apart then annually
killed intramuscular = 3-4 injections at 3 week intervals then annualls