Previous year's exam q's Flashcards

(16 cards)

1
Q
  1. Which factors are considered in the assessment of clinical stages of a tumor?

a. Formation of tubules and the number of mitoses

b. Palpation of the formation, anamnesis, risk factors, biopsy results from the primary tumor

c. Size of the primary tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, and presence of metastases

d. Nuclear pleomorphism and the number of mitoses (benign vs malignant)

e. Nuclear pleomorphism and tubule formation

A

c. Size of the primary tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, and presence of metastases

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2
Q
  1. What do we check in a blood test before starting chemotherapy?
A

a. Neutrophils

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3
Q
  1. What procedure is done for a malignant mammary tumor in a 1-year-old cat?
A

a. Unilateral mastectomy

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4
Q
  1. The definitive diagnosis of a tumor is via…
A

a. Histopathology

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5
Q
  1. When is closed reduction of a fracture (conservative) indicated? (3)
A
  • Greenstick fracture
  • Non-displaced fractures of long bones below elbow and stifle
  • Comminuted/fragmented non-reducible diaphyseal fractures of long bones treated with external fixators.
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6
Q
  1. When is conservative fracture treatment indicated?
A

a. In animals less than 6 months old (greenstick fractures)

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7
Q
  1. In case of joint effusion, there is a reduction in extension.
    True or false
A

True.

In the case of joint effusion, there is typically a reduction in extension. Joint effusion refers to the accumulation of excess fluid within a joint, which can lead to swelling, pain, and restricted movement. The increased intra-articular pressure from the fluid can make it difficult to fully extend the affected joint, thus reducing the range of motion, particularly in extension.

  1. A sign of joint effusion is…
    a. Fluctuating swelling
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8
Q
  1. Typical type of elbow dysplasia
A

a. Fragmented medial coronoid process (FCP)

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9
Q
  1. The following cells are involved in the bone regeneration process:
A

a. Osteocytes (parent cells) OR osteoblasts

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10
Q
  1. Which treatment method should be preferred, if possible, for hip dysplasia and severe osteoarthritis in large dogs?
A

a. Prosthesis

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11
Q
  1. Where is intraosseous (IO) placement not done? (5)
A

Fractured Bones
Sites with Infection or Burns
Bones with Previous IO Attempts
Osteogenesis Imperfecta or Other Bone Disorders
Sites Not Commonly Used for IO Access:
skull, spine, or small bones of the hands/feet.

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12
Q
  1. For a closed comminuted diaphyseal fracture of the tibia, the following osteosynthesis is recommended:
    a. Intramedullary osteosynthesis
    b. Compression plate
    c. Combination of screw and wire
    d. Neutralization plate
A

d. Neutralization plate

Comminuted = there are numerous small splinters

Compression plate is used in case of transverse or short oblique fractures, where it is possible to match the contact surface of the fracture line.

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13
Q
  1. Fill in the gaps: Thoracocentesis should be done in patients with pneumothorax in the intercostal area …… to …… and the …… ⅓ part of the chest.
    a. 9-10 and 10-11 / upper
    b. 7-8 and 8-9 / upper
    c. 5-6 and 6-7 / lower
    d. 6-7 and 7-8 / lower
A

b. 7-8 and 8-9 / upper

PERFORM BETWEEN 7th and 8th OR 8th and 9th INTERCOSTAL SPACE

Air will be removed from the upper 1/3 part of thorax and fluid from lower 1/3.

In severe cases puncture middle part to remove both air and fluid.

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14
Q
  1. Primary IVFT or decompression for a gastric patient?
A

a. Fluids
First restoration of perfusion, then gastric decompression!

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15
Q

drugs that are contraindicated in GDV (2)

A
  • Alpha2
  • NSAIDs

Give
- Midazolam + methadone
- Propofol + ketamine
- Isoflurane
- FLK CRI for analgesia

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16
Q

C-section anesthesia

C-section drugs that are contraindicated (3)

A

C-section anesthesia
- Atropine (??)
- Butorphanol
- Alfaxalone
- Isoflurane
- Paracetamol for analgesia, opioids when puppies out or before (give them reversals)

C-section drugs that are contraindicated
- Acepromazine
- Alpha2
- Benzodiazepines