Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharm SPRING Exam 1 > Principle of Chemotherp I and II Hand out > Flashcards

Principle of Chemotherp I and II Hand out Flashcards

(127 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is selective toxicity?

A

The ability to selectively destroy pathogenic microorganisms with minimal side effects to the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the host-pathogen-drug triad?

A

A model to evaluate the interactions between the host, pathogen, and the chemotherapeutic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the unique features of chemotherapy compared to other pharmaceuticals?

A

Selective toxicity, potential for resistance, and hypersensitivity reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define pharmacodynamics in the context of chemotherapy

A

The study of how chemotherapeutic drugs affect organisms by interfering with macromolecular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the general mechanisms of resistance to chemotherapeutic drugs?

A
  • Failure to absorb drug
  • Inactivation of drug
  • Pumping drug out
  • Modification of drug target
  • Increased production of target molecules
  • Altered metabolic pathways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differentiate between vertical and horizontal transfer of drug resistance

A

Vertical transfer involves mutations passed to daughter cells; horizontal transfer involves genetic material exchanged between bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is empirical antimicrobial therapy?

A

Treatment based on experience and clinical diagnosis before identifying the specific pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between broad spectrum and narrow spectrum drugs?

A

Broad spectrum drugs are active against many classes of bacteria; narrow spectrum drugs are effective against a limited range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the significance of the post-antibiotic effect (PAE)?

A

A persistent suppression of microbial growth after antibiotic levels fall below the MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define drug synergy

A

When the combined effects of two or more antimicrobials are greater than the sum of their individual effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal drugs?

A
  • Bacteriostatic: inhibits growth
  • Bactericidal: causes cell death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is concentration dependent killing?

A

Killing rate and extent depend on the drug concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is time dependent killing?

A

Killing is not increased with concentrations above the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the adverse effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • Renal toxicity
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Ototoxicity
  • Visual toxicity
  • Hematopoietic toxicity
  • Allergies
  • Idiosyncrasies
  • Photosensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the rationale behind chemoprophylaxis?

A

To prevent infections in high-risk populations or following exposure to pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary concern with antibiotic resistance?

A

The emergence of drug-resistant strains threatens the effectiveness of available antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fill in the blank: Chemotherapy selects for _______ strains.

A

resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the mechanisms of horizontal transfer of resistance?

A
  • Transduction
  • Transformation
  • Conjugation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Provide examples of drugs that can cause renal toxicity.

A

Vancomycin
Aminoglycosides
Amphotericin B
Cephalosporins
Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the importance of maintaining adequate blood levels of drugs?

A

To prevent the development of resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the significance of the Drug of First Choice (DOC)?

A

It indicates the preferred antibiotic for treating specific infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Bacteriostatic drugs can clear infections in immunocompromised patients.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the consequence of improper dosage of antibiotics?

A

It promotes the development of resistant strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What defines a superinfection?

A

A new infection occurring after an earlier infection, often following antibiotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is an example of a life-threatening superinfection?
Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile
26
What is the role of the host's immune system in relation to bacteriostatic drugs?
Bacteriostatic drugs require the host's defenses to clear the bacterial infection
27
What is the impact of antibiotic misuse on resistance development?
It leads to increased selection for resistant strains
28
What is the effect of penicillin on drug uptake?
They increase the uptake of other antimicrobial agents ex: penicillins increase the uptake of aminoglycosides, and amphotericin B increases the uptake of flucytosine by fungi
29
What is a superinfection?
A new infection occurring after an earlier infection, frequently observed with broad spectrum antibiotics
30
What is intestinal candidiasis?
A fungal superinfection and the most common superinfection
31
How is intestinal candidiasis treated?
With oral nystatin or amphotericin B while continuing antibiotic therapy
32
What is staphylococcal enterocolitis?
A life-threatening condition requiring discontinuation of antibiotic therapy and treatment with oral vancomycin
33
What causes pseudomembranous colitis?
Clostridium difficile
34
What is the treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?
Discontinue therapy and treat with oral vancomycin or metronidazole
35
What should be administered in severe cases of pseudomembranous colitis?
Symptomatic treatment with fluids, electrolytes, and corticosteroids
36
When should antimicrobial prophylaxis be used?
In circumstances where efficacy has been demonstrated and benefits outweigh the risks
37
What is the drug of choice for surgical antimicrobial prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
38
What is the prophylactic treatment for genital herpes simplex?
Acyclovir
39
What is the prophylactic treatment for group B streptococcal infections?
Ampicillin or penicillin G
40
What is the prophylactic treatment for Haemophilus influenzae type B infections?
Rifampin
41
What is the prophylactic treatment for malaria?
Chloroquine
42
What is the prophylactic treatment for meningococcal infection?
Rifampin
43
What is the prophylactic treatment for pertussis?
Erythromycin
44
What is the prophylactic treatment for pneumococcemia?
Penicillin G
45
What is the prophylactic treatment for pneumocystis carinii?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
46
What is the prophylactic treatment for tuberculosis?
Isoniazid
47
What is the prophylactic treatment for urinary tract infections (UTI)?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
48
What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Inhibit translocation at the 50S ribosomal subunit
49
What is a common mechanism of resistance to macrolides?
Methyltransferases alter the binding site
50
What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?
Inhibit transpeptidation at the 50S ribosomal subunit
51
What is a common mechanism of resistance to chloramphenicol?
Inactivating acetyltransferases
52
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
Blocks initiation at the 30S ribosomal subunit
53
What is a common mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides?
Acetyl, phosphoryl, or adenylyl conjugation
54
What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
Prevent binding of the incoming charged tRNA at the 30S ribosomal subunit
55
What is a common mechanism of resistance to tetracyclines?
Efflux pumps that 'pump out' the drug
56
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
Inhibit topoisomerase and DNA gyrase
57
What is a common mechanism of resistance to fluoroquinolones?
Mutation of gyrase/topo and efflux pumps
58
What is the mechanism of action of rifampin?
Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
59
What is a common mechanism of resistance to rifampin?
Change in the enzyme
60
What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?
Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
61
What is a common mechanism of resistance to sulfonamides?
Decreased sensitivity of target enzymes and increased formation of PABA
62
What is the mechanism of action of beta lactams?
Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
63
What is a common mechanism of resistance to beta lactams?
Penicillinase production and modification of PBPs
64
What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?
Inhibition of peptidoglycan chain elongation
65
What is a common mechanism of resistance to vancomycin?
Change in pentapeptide to D-ala-D-lactate
66
What are common pathogens for cardiac surgery prophylaxis?
Staphylococci and enteric gram-negative rods
67
What is the drug of choice for cardiac surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
68
What are common pathogens for noncardiac thoracic surgery prophylaxis?
Staphylococci, streptococci, and enteric gram-negative rods
69
What is the drug of choice for noncardiac thoracic surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
70
What are common pathogens for vascular surgery prophylaxis?
Staphylococci and enteric gram-negative rods
71
What is the drug of choice for vascular surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
72
What are common pathogens for neurosurgical surgery prophylaxis?
Staphylococci
73
What is the drug of choice for neurosurgical surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
74
What are common pathogens for orthopedic surgery prophylaxis?
Staphylococci
75
What is the drug of choice for orthopedic surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
76
What are common pathogens for head and neck surgery prophylaxis?
S. aureus and oral flora
77
What is the drug of choice for head and neck surgery prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
78
What are common pathogens for gastroduodenal surgery prophylaxis in high-risk patients?
S. aureus, oral flora, and enteric gram-negative rods
79
What is the drug of choice for gastroduodenal surgery prophylaxis in high-risk patients?
Cefazolin
80
What are common pathogens for biliary tract surgery prophylaxis in high-risk patients?
S. aureus, enterococci, and enteric gram-negative rods
81
What is the drug of choice for biliary tract surgery prophylaxis in high-risk patients?
Cefazolin
82
What are common pathogens for colorectal surgery prophylaxis?
Enteric gram-negative rods and anaerobes
83
What is the drug of choice for elective colorectal surgery prophylaxis?
Oral erythromycin plus neomycin
84
What is the drug of choice for emergency colorectal surgery or obstruction prophylaxis?
Cefoxitin, cefotetan, or cefmetazole
85
What are common pathogens for appendectomy prophylaxis?
Enteric gram-negative rods and anaerobes
86
What is the drug of choice for appendectomy prophylaxis?
Cefoxitin, ceftizoxime, cefotetan, or cefmetazole
87
What are common pathogens for hysterectomy prophylaxis?
Enteric gram-negative rods, anaerobes, enterococci, and group B streptococci
88
What is the drug of choice for hysterectomy prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
89
What are common pathogens for cesarean section prophylaxis?
Enteric gram-negative rods, anaerobes, enterococci, and group B streptococci
90
What is the drug of choice for cesarean section prophylaxis?
Cefazolin
91
What is the first choice drug for Moraxella catarrhalis infections?
TMP-SMZ or cephalosporin (second or third generation)
92
What is the alternative drug for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections?
Spectinomycin or azithromycin
93
What is the first choice drug for Neisseria meningitidis infections?
Penicillin G or cephalosporin (third generation)
94
What is the first choice drug for E. coli, Klebsiella, and Proteus infections?
Cephalosporin (first or second generation) or TMP-SMZ
95
What is the first choice drug for Shigella infections?
Quinolone
96
What is the first choice drug for Salmonella infections?
TMP-SMZ or quinolone
97
What is the first choice drug for Campylobacter jejuni infections?
Erythromycin or azithromycin
98
What is the first choice drug for Brucella species infections?
Doxycycline + rifampin or aminoglycoside
99
What is the first choice drug for Helicobacter pylori infections?
Bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline or amoxicillin
100
What is the first choice drug for Vibrio species infections?
Tetracycline
101
What is the first choice drug for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?
Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside
102
What is the first choice drug for Burkholderia cepacia infections?
TMP-SMZ
103
What is the first choice drug for Stenotrophomonas maltophilia infections?
TMP-SMZ
104
What is the first choice drug for Legionella species infections?
Azithromycin + rifampin or quinolone + rifampin
105
What is the first choice drug for Streptococcus pneumoniae infections?
Penicillin
106
What is the first choice drug for Streptococcus pyogenes infections?
Penicillin or clindamycin
107
What is the first choice drug for Streptococcus agalactiae infections?
Penicillin (+ aminoglycoside)
108
What is the first choice drug for Staphylococcus aureus infections (beta-lactamase negative)?
Penicillin
109
What is the first choice drug for Staphylococcus aureus infections (beta-lactamase positive)?
Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
110
What is the first choice drug for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infections?
Vancomycin
111
What is the first choice drug for Enterococcus species infections?
Penicillin ± aminoglycoside
112
What is the first choice drug for Bacillus species infections?
Vancomycin
113
What is the first choice drug for Listeria species infections?
Ampicillin (± aminoglycoside)
114
What is the first choice drug for Nocardia species infections?
Sulfadiazine or TMP-SMZ
115
What is the first choice drug for Clostridium difficile infections?
Metronidazole
116
What is the first choice drug for Bacteroides fragilis infections?
Metronidazole
117
What is the first choice drug for Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections?
Isoniazid + rifampin + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
118
What is the first choice drug for Mycobacterium leprae infections (multibacillary)?
Dapsone + rifampin + clofazimine
119
What is the first choice drug for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?
Tetracycline or erythromycin
120
What is the first choice drug for Borrelia burgdorferi infections?
Doxycycline or amoxicillin
121
What is the first choice drug for Aspergillus species infections?
Voriconazole
122
What is the first choice drug for Candida species infections?
Amphotericin B or caspofungin
123
What is the first choice drug for Cryptococcus infections?
Amphotericin B ± flucytosine
124
What is the first choice drug for Coccidioides immitis infections?
Amphotericin B
125
What is the first choice drug for Histoplasma capsulatum infections?
Amphotericin B
126
What is the first choice drug for Mucoraceae infections?
Amphotericin B
127
What is the first choice drug for Sporothrix schenckii infections?
Amphotericin B

Pharm SPRING Exam 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions