Principles Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
Where are ribosomes produced?
A
Nucleolus
2
Q
What do the ribosomes associate with in the cell?
A
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
3
Q
what are ribosomes made up of?
A
proteins and rRNA
4
Q
What do gap junctions do?
A
allow the spread of electrical excitation directly from cell to cell
(also allow nutrients and signal molecules to be directly transferred between adjacent cells)
5
Q
What are Tight/ Occluding junctions?
A
they are sites of membrane contact but provide no direct communication between cells
6
Q
what is the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?
A
main site for synthesis of proteins (for secretion, incorporation into membranes and organelles)
7
Q
what is the function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?
A
site of lipid synthesis (phospholipids)
they are abundant in cells that produce steroid hormones
8
Q
what is the definition of the Epithelium?
A
avascular, typically polarised tissue that forms cohesive sheets
lines cavities and covers surfaces
9
Q
what is skeletal muscle composed of?
A
long elongated cells with each cell having multiple nuclei and tube-like structures
10
Q
what do extracellular bundles of collagen fibres make up?
A
Connective tissue
11
Q
what are the 2 types of striated cells?
A
cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cells
12
Q
what produces myelin in the neurons of the CNS?
A
Oligodendrocytes
13
Q
what produces myelin in the neurons of the PNS?
A
Scwhann cells
14
Q
what receptor is on the surface of cells and causes apoptosis in the cell?
A
FAS receptors
15
Q
where is the tricuspid valve located in the heart?
A
between the right atrium and the right ventricle
16
Q
where is the mitral valve located in the heart?
A
between the left arium and the left ventricle
17
Q
where is the pulmonary valve located?
A
between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
18
Q
where is the aortic valve located?
A
between the left ventricle and the aorta
19
Q
what are the layers of the heart from external to internal?
A
epicardium/ pericardium
myocardium
endocardium
20
Q
where is most of the cardiac muscle in the heart located?
A
within the myocardium
21
Q
what are the 2 major classes of white blood cells?
A
agranulocytes
granulocytes
22
Q
what are the white blood cells that are granulocytes?
A
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
23
Q
what are the white blood cells that are agranulocytes?
A
lymphocytes and monocytes
24
Q
what are the key identifiable features of a neutrophil?
A
lobar nucleus
3-5 lobes
fine blue granules
25
what are the identifiable features of a monocyte?
non-segmented nucleus
| horse shoe shaped nucleus
26
what are the identifiable features of eosinophils?
red granules
| bi-lobar nucleus
27
what are the identifiable features of a basophil?
purple granules
segmented nucleus
(very low number in the body)
28
what are the identifiable features of a lymphocyte?
little cytoplasm
| nucleus round shape
29
what is a zygote?
a single celled organism
| called a fertilised ovum
30
what is a morula?
ball of cells 3-4 days after fertilisation
31
what is a blastocyst
a spherical ball of cells with a cavity (with an inner mass)
| 4-5 days after fertilisation
32
what time period is it called an embryo?
from fertilisation to 8 weeks
33
what time period is it called a foetus?
8 weeks to birth
34
what are the 4 sections of the fallopian tubes?
1-Infundibulum
2- Ampulla- widest part of the tube
3- Isthmus- part which enters the uterine part
4- Uterine part
35
what is it called when implantation occurs outside of the uterus?
ectopic pregnancy
36
where does fertilisation generally occur?
ampulla
37
what are the 3 main functional types of antibiotics?
Cell wall microbials
Antibiotics that affect nucleic acids
Antibiotics that target protein synthesis
38
what are the different types of Cell Wall Microbials and examples?
1- Penicillins eg Amoxicillan
2- Glycopeptides- eg Vancomycin
3- Cephlasporins- eg Ceftriaxone
39
what are the different types of Antibiotics that affect nucleic acids?
Metronidazole
| Ciprofloxacin
40
what are the different antibiotics that target protein synthesis?
1- Aminoglycosides- eg Gentamicin
2- Tetracyclines- eg Doxycycline
3- Macrolides- eg erythromycin
41
what is a desmosome?
a structure that holds 2 cells together in the extracellular space
42
what colour are gram positive bacteria and why?
purple, due to the thick peptidoglycan
43
what toxins do tgram +ve bacteria have?
exotoxins
| - toxins are secreted out
44
what colour are gram negative bacteria and why?
pink, thinner peptidoglycan layer
45
structure of gram negative bacteria?
thick cell wall, has outer membrane made up of liposaccharides and porins
periplasmic space is smaller
46
structure of gram positive bacteria?
thin cell wall, cell wall structure consists of periplasmic space enclosed between the plasma membrane and the thick peptidoglycan
47
what is a community of microorganisms found in or on the body called?
microbiome
48
what is used to classify streptococcus?
haemolysis
- Alpha haemolysis (partial)
- Beta haemolysis (full)
- Gamma haemolysis (none)
49
what are endotoxins?
toxins inside the bacterial cell that are release when it disintegrates
50
what antibiotic is used to treat staph aureus?
flucloxacillin
51
what type of bacteria is bordetella pertussis and what does it cause?
gram negative, aerobic bacteria
| whooping cough
52
what is used to treat coliform infections?
Gentamicin
53
what is used to treat anaerobic infections?
Metronidazole
54
what is the vagus nerve and what does it do to the heart?
10th cranial nerve,
| supplies the heart parasympathetically, stimulation causes heart rate to decrease
55
what does body temperature above 40 mean?
hyperthermia
56
what part of the hypothalamus is simulated by warmth?
anterior hypothalamic centre
57
what part of the hypothalamus is stimulated by cold?
posterior hypothalamic centre
58
what are PRR's and what do they do?
Pattern Recognition Receptors,
| expressed on macrophages and mediate the recognition of bacteria
59
what are PAMP's and what do they do?
Pathogen Associate Molecular Pattern,
| presented on pathogens and are recognised by PRR's
60
what is the membrane attack complex?
MAC, bind directly to extracellular bacteria to cause cell death by osmotic lysis and membrane insertion
61
what are C-reactive proteins?
they are important mediators of opsonisation of bacteria by phagocytes
62
name 3 types of opsins
C-reactive proteins
IgG antibodies
C3b
63
what is the initial response in acute inflammation?
pre-capillary dilation of arterioles followed by capillary dilation and then venule dilation
64
what is opsonisation?
the coating of a pathogen by opsins to facilitate phagocytosis
C3b
65
what is pinocytosis?
the internalisation of fluids into cells
66
Receptor mediated Endocytosis?
internalisation of molecules bound to the membrane receptors
67
what is chemotaxis?
movement of cells along a concentration gradient
68
why is measuring IgM useful to diagnose viral infections?
it increases in the primary humoral immune response
| secondary is IgG
69
where is coagulative necrosis found?
often found in cardiac muscle
70
where does liquefactive necrosis occur?
Central Nervous System
71
what is an Adenoma?
benign tumour of the colon
72
what is papilloma?
benign tumour of squamous cells
73
what is transitional cell carcinoma?
malignant tumour of the urinary tract
74
what is an adenocarcinoma?
malignant cancer of glandular tissue
75
what is melanoma?
malignant cancer of the melanocytes of the skin
76
what is chronic myeloid leukaemia?
malignant cancer of white blood cells
77
what is Burkitt Lymphoma?
malignant lymphoma of lymph nodes
78
what is the TATA box in transcription?
promoter, initiates where on the DNA transcription occurs
79
what binds to the DNA at the TATA box to unzip the DNA?
RNA polymerase
80
where in the Ribosome does tRNA bind to in order to add an amino acid?
the A site, then when another comes along, the ribosome moves along one, so the tRNA is now at the P site
81
what binds to the stop codon?
specific termination protein
| not tRNA as no amino acid for stop codon
82
what direction does DNA replication occur?
5' end to 3' end on both strands (leading and lagging)
83
what enzyme joins the fragments of DNA on the lagging strand together? and what are these strands called?
Ligase
Okazaki fragments
84
what bond does ligase create in order to join the fragments together?
phophodiester bond
85
what do B1 receptors do? and what kind of nerves are involved?
mediate the increase in rate and force of the heart, by stimulation of sympathetic nerves
86
what do B2 receptors do?
mediate the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
87
what are the 2 types of phosphorylation?
oxidative an substrate phosphorylation
88
what represents the Michaelis constant?
Km
89
what is the Michaelis constant?
the concentration of a substrate at 1/2 Vmax
90
in the conversion of pyruvate to lactate, what enzyme causes the regeneration of NADH?
glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate dhydrogenase
91
what is phase 1 and 2 of drug metabolism?
Phase 1- Modification
| Phase 2- Conjugation
92
what happens in phase 1 drug metabolism?
reactions occure making the substrate more toxic, eg oxidation, reduction etc
producing active metabolites
93
what happens in phase 2 drug metabolism?
the active metabolite is reacted with another substrate in the liver
94
how many half life's does it take for a drug to reach a steady state plasma concentration?
5 half lifes
95
what is the main organ of drug elimination?
kidneys
96
what is a ganglia?
the site where 2 neurons meet in the autonomic system,
| they are a cluster of neuron cell bodies with millions of synapses
97
which autonomic nervous system is related to stress situations?
Sympathetic
98
where do sympathetic fibres originate from?
they are thoracolumbar
| originate betwwen your thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
99
Axon length of sympathetic fibres
pre-ganglionic fibres axons are short and post ganglionic fibres are longer
100
Sympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres release what?
Acetylcholine
101
Sympathetic post-ganglionic fibres release what?
Norepinephrine
102
Parasympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres release what?
Acetylcholine
103
Parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibres release what?
acetylcholine and nitric oxide
104
in sympathetic fibres what causes the response in the effector?
Norepinephrine
105
what is the effector for sympathetic fibres?
smooth muscle
106
what kind of fibres are Parasympathetic fibres?
Craniosacral
| originate from the base of the brain and just superior to the tailbone
107
what G protein receptor is B2 coupled with?
Gi proteins
108
what G protein receptor is B1 coupled with?
Gs proteins
109
what does alpha receptor stimulation due to norepinephrine cause?
vasoconstriction (due to smooth muscle contraction)
110
what happens when norepinephrine stimulates Beta receptors?
smooth muscle relaxation
111
what can stimulation of B2 receptors cause?
smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation
112
parasympathetic fibres axon lengths
pre-ganglia axons are long
| post-ganglionic fibres are short
113
what is an aneuploidy?
when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes
114
what causes turners syndrome?
absence of an X chromosome
115
what causes Patau syndrome?
extra genetic material on chromosome 13
116
what karyotype is Klinefelter syndrome?
47XXY
117
What features are on a chromosome?
short arm- p
long arm- q
kinetochore (where spindle fibres attach to pull apart sister chromatids)
telomere (at the end of the chromosome)
118
what causes Down Syndrome?
an extra chromosome 21
| trisomy 21
119
what is the atlas bone?
C1 vertebrae
120
what is the long bone in the forearm?
Ulna
121
what is Human Factors described as?
Non-technical skills
