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Principles Revision Night 1 Flashcards

Biochem, immunology, Microbiology, Genetics (93 cards)

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1
Q

what is a Condensation reaction?

A

water is removed

polymerisation in order to from a bigger product

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2
Q

what are the differences in terms of energy release of monosaccharides and polysaccharides?

A

monosaccharides are short term

polysaccharides are long term

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3
Q

what direction do polypeptides run in?

A

from Amino group to Carboxyl group

from N terminus to C terminus

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4
Q

what enzyme catalyses the formation of Peptide bonds?

A

peptidyl transferase

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5
Q

what are zwitterions?

A

molecules with 2 titratable groups that have a combined neutral charge

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6
Q

what are the 3 types of type 2 protein formation?

A

alpha helix
beta pleated sheets
triple helix

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7
Q

what is an example of a triple helix protein structure?

A

collagen

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8
Q

give an example of tertiary protein structure?

A

myoglobin

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9
Q

give an example of quaternary protein structure?

A

haemoglobin

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10
Q

what is the DNA backbone composed of?

A

phosphodiester bonds between 5’ triophosphate group and the 3’ Hydroxyl group

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11
Q

what enzyme is responsible for RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase

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12
Q

what does RNA polymerase bind to initiating RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase binds to a promoter (on nucleotide 0)

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13
Q

where is the TATA box located ?

A

the 25th nucleotide before the promoter

-25

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14
Q

what enzyme binds amino acids to the tRNA?

A

aminoacyl- tRNA synthetase

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15
Q

what is an Apoenzyme?

A

an enzyme without a cofactor

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16
Q

what is a Holoenzyme?

A

an enzyme with a cofactor

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17
Q

does M-M kinetics work for allosteric enzymes?

A

NO, the reaction route follows a sigmoid

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18
Q

what is the lineweaver burk plot?

A

M-M kinetics turned into y=mx+c
Y intersection= Vmax
X intersection= Km

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19
Q

what are the irreversible steps in Glycolysis?

A

1st, 3rd and final steps

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20
Q

what enzymes in glycolysis are irreversible?

A

Hexokinase, PFK, Pyruvate kinase

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21
Q

what enzyme involved in the TCA cycle is not present in the mitochondrial matrix?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase located in the Cristae

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22
Q

what is to overall production of ATP per Glucose molecule?

A

30-32 ATP

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23
Q

what do the electrons running down the respiratory protein chains do?

A

they provide energy to pump the H+ against its concentration gradient into the intermembrane space

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24
Q

what causes ATP synthase to produce lots of ATP in Electron Transport chain?

A

the passive flow of Hydrogen ions back into the matrix

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25
where are PRR located?
on the surface of macrophages
26
what causes skin to be natural defensive?
it is tighly packed keratinised cells that are constantly renewed (limits colonisation) low pH 5.5 low oxygen sebaceous glands which secrete lysozymes
27
what causes mucous to be a natural defence?
contains enzymes like lysozymes and contains IgA | present at endothelial surface which come into contact with outer atmosphere
28
what are PAMPs?
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns | like antigens but worse
29
what shape is the Macrophage nucleus' shape?
Kidney bean
30
what are the macrophages of the liver?
Kupffer cells in the sinusoids of hepatocytes
31
how do NK cells kill?
degranulation, release perforins which perforate cells | thus it is a granular cell
32
how do neutrophils get from the blood to the site of infection/ inflammation?
transendothelial migration they adhere to selectins (low affinity bond), and then ICAM 1 which then allows them to roll along the endothelium, then as the blood vessels dilate they open small gaps these neutrophils can crawl through
33
what do neutrophils look like?
multi lobed nucleus | purple granules
34
what things do neutrophils?
degranulation releasing heparin and histamine Phagocytosis NETs (stopping the spread and faciliating phagocytosis)
35
what do eosinophils look like?
bi-lobed nucleus | red granules
36
what do basophils look like?
blue granules | bi-lobed nucleus
37
what do eosinophils mainly do?
allergic responses
38
what do Dendtritic cells do?
phagocytosis and present antigens on their surface | MHC II for CD4 helper T cells
39
what are the main purposes of the complement system?
opsoninsation, chemotaxis and MAC (membrane attack complex)
40
what is opsonisation?
the process whereby a pathogen is coated with soluble factors (opsin) to enable easier phagocytosis
41
name examples of Opsins?
C3b, IgG, CRP, IgM
42
what are the 3 pathways of Complement system activation?
classical pathway, alternative pathway and MBL
43
what is the classical pathway?
antigen-antibody complex activates C1, then C4 then C2 and finally C3 which then becomes
44
what is the complement pathway?
C1, C4, C2, C3 then becomes C3b which then activates C5 Convertase, converting C5 to C5b , which then goes down all Cs till C9 which activates MAC
45
what are the main signs of Acute Inflammation?
Pain, Redness, Swelling, Loss of Function, Heat
46
difference to Innate Response and Adaptive Response?
innate is very quick but no specific | adaptive is slow but very specific
47
where do B cells and T cells mature?
B cells= Bone Marrow | T cells= Thymus
48
what immunity do B cells provide?
Humoral Immunity eg body fluids
49
what immunity do T cells provide?
cellular immunity
50
what type of receptors do Antibodies bind to?
Fc receptors eg IgE binds to FcE on mast cells
51
facts about IgG?
provides foetal immunity (small enough to pass through placenta) in the body in the GREATEST amount
52
facts about IgM?
pentameric structure first antibody produced in acute infections short lived
53
facts about IgA?
``` present in breast milk, present in mucosal immunity Neonatal immunity (newborn) ```
54
facts about IgE?
allergy
55
what are the 3 broad types of T cells?
cytotoxic (killer) Helper Memory
56
what is MHC I?
a protein displayed on all nucleated cells to CD8 killer T cells
57
what interleukin do Th 1 cells release?
IL-2 which is important in T cell differentiation
58
what are the different types of Hypersensitivity?
type 1- quick, allergy, antibody, IgE type 2- antibody, IgM, IgG (eg goodpastures syndrome) type 3- immune complex, IgG, Neutrophils (eg acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis) type 4- Delayed, T cells (eg sarcoidosis and TB)
59
what is DiGeorge syndrome?
22q11 | low or absent T cells
60
what is Kostmanns syndome?
Neutropenia (no neutrophils)
61
what is X- linked agammaglobulinaemia?
no B cells (no immunoglobulins)
62
what is SCID?
combination of problems with T cells and B cells | presents after 3 months
63
what is Pavementing?
When the white blood cells attach to the endothelial lining (selectins and ICAM-1)
64
what process do bacteria replicate by?
Binary fission (splitting into 2/ dividing into 2)
65
what are endotoxins?
they are toxins on the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria
66
what is the use of a coagulase test?
a test to differentiate between staph aureus and other staphylococcus
67
what is a Haemolysis test?
differentiates between different types of streptococcus
68
what is alpha hemolysis?
partial hemolysis looks green | eg strep viridans
69
what is beta hemolysis?
full hemolysis looks yellow eg strep pyrogenes
70
what is gamma hemolysis?
``` no hemolysis (no colour) eg Enterococcus ```
71
what antibiotic is used to treat Coliform infections?
Gentamicin
72
what is an example of a Coliform infection?
E.coli
73
what are the 3 methods of action by antibiotics?
work on bacterial cell wall (inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis) inhibit protein synthesis works on DNA (can inhibit DNA replication)
74
what type of antibiotics work on the cell wall?
Penicillins (flucloxacillin), Cephlasporins (ceftriaxone), Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
75
what type of antibiotics work on Protein Synthesis?
Macrolides (erythmycin), Aminoglycosides (gentamicin) and Tetracyclines (doxycyclin)
76
what antibiotics work on DNA?
Metronidazole (strand breakage) | Fluroquinolones
77
what are the 4 Cs of C diff?
co-amoxiclav, cephlasporins, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin
78
what are the 3 main methods of DNA mutation in bacteria?
Transformation, Conjugation, Transduction
79
what is Transformation in bacteria?
when a bacteria incorptares dead bacteria DNA into its own
80
what is Conjugation?
when 2 bacteria form a sex pilus allowing mutual exchange of DNA
81
what is Transduction?
when a virus spreads bacterial DNA to other bacteria
82
what are the 2 things in Meiosis which increase genetic variation?
Independent assortment and Crossing over
83
is it more likely to 2 genes close to each other cross over or 2 geneses further away cross over?
the genes that are further away from each other are more likely to cross over
84
are SNPs bigger than CNVs?
no CNVs are multiple polymorphisms
85
what does SNP stand for?
single nucleotide polymorphism
86
what is a somatic mutation?
mutation that is post zygotic (not due to meiosis )
87
what is Mosaicism?
when a person has different genetically madeup cells in the body (everyone is a somatic mosaic)
88
what is an acrocentric chromosome?
a chromosome without a p arm (short arm)
89
what is a Robertsonian translocation?
when 2 acrocentric chromosomes join together end to end
90
what causes Turners syndrome?
when women only have 1 X
91
what is Edwards syndrome?
when person has an extra Ch 18
92
when is array CGH useful?
when looking at chromosome numbers eg Trisomy 21
93
when is FISH useful?
when looking for something extra or removed on a chromosome

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