Principles Flashcards
1
Q
Name the proteins which make up microtubules.
A
Alpha and Beta Tubulin
2
Q
Name the membranes of the Golgi apparatus
A
Cisternae
3
Q
What submembranous filaments do Adherant junctions and desmosomes bind to?
A
Adherant- Actin filaments (microfilaments)
Desmosomes- Intermediate filaments
4
Q
Endocrine glands secrete material towards the _______ end of the cell into ____________
A
Basal end (apical in exocrine) Vascular system (ducts in endocrine)
5
Q
Name the three types of Cartilage
A
Elastic, hyaline, fibrocartilage
6
Q
name the connective tissue covering of the CNS and the PNS
A
Meninges- CNS
Epineurium- PNS
7
Q
How many axons does a pseudounipolar neuron possess?
A
Two
8
Q
Name the three main salivary glands
A
Parotid
submandibular
sublingual
9
Q
Name the three layers of the heart from the external layer to the internal layer
A
epicardium
myocardium
endocardium
10
Q
Term used to describe arteries that can connect to each other using a number of alternative blood flow routes
A
Anastamosis
11
Q
What are end arteries?
A
Arteries which are the sole blood supply to a given territory (area of tissue supplied by an artery)
12
Q
Name the first branches from the aorta
A
Right and left coronary arteries
13
Q
What is the difference between feedforward and feedback?
A
Feedforward- a response is made in anticipation of a change
Feedback- Response made after change detected (either positive or negative)
14
Q
What is the normal range of the pulse pressure in mm/Hg?
A
30-50mm/Hg
15
Q
Carotid and Aortic _________ detect change in blood pressure
A
Baroreceptors
16
Q
what is the normal range of the MAP?
A
70-105mm/Hg
17
Q
How do you calculate the Cardiac output?
A
CO= Heart rate x stroke volume
18
Q
During the body’s cold response skin arterioles ________.
A
Vasoconstirict
19
Q
During the body’s fever response macrophages release _________ _________ which stimulate the release of ____________ from the hypothalmus.
A
Endogenous pyrogens
Prostaglandins
20
Q
The tunica intima is separated from the tunica media by the what?
A
Internal elastic membrane
21
Q
the major arteries possess their own blood supply called the what?
A
Vaso vasorum
22
Q
When do capillaries become classified instead as venules?
A
When the vessels obtain intermittent smooth muscle
23
Q
Neutophils possess a _______ nucleus and have a ___________ cytoplasm.
A
multilobed
granular
24
Q
Basophils have a ______ nucleus which is hidden behind _______
A
bilobed
granules
25
Monocytes mature into __________
macrophages
26
Name the three types of capillaries
Continuous
Fenestrated
discontinuous
27
Name the three types of joint
Synovial
cartilaginous
fibrous
28
Axial skeleton consists of:
```
Bones of the:
skull
Neck
Thorax
abdomen
Sacrum
```
29
Arteries that appear around joints are called what?
Periarticular arteries
30
Paralysis occurs when what neurones are damaged? does this increase or decrease muscle tone?
Motor neurones
decreased muscle tone
( with spasticity instead the descending controls are damaged and the muscles have increased tone)
31
What is muscle atrophy and hypertrophy?
Atrophy- cells become smaller
| Hypertrophy-cells enlarge
32
Name the male and female gametes
Spermatozoa
| Oocyte
33
Fertilisation normally occurs in the _______.
Ampulla
34
What is the name of a pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterine cavity?
Ectopic Pregnancy
35
Spermatozoa are produced in the __________ _______ within the testis
Seminiferous tubules
36
In a vasectomy what tube is cut?
Vas deferens
37
Name the three periods of in utero development and give their timescales
Conceptus/embryo period 0-3
embryonic period 3-8
fetal period 9-40
38
A morula consists of how many cells? what is the name of the developing fetus after this period
16+ cells
| Blastocyst
39
what is an exergonic reaction?
| can they occur spontaneously?
A reaction where the change in free energy is negative and the reaction can occur spontaneously.
40
what is a Coupling reaction?
One where an exergonic reaction is coupled with an endergonic reaction allowing it to occur spontaneously.
41
Name the carbon atom at the centre of an amino acid molecule
alpha carbon
42
What are zwitterions?
molecules which possess a permenant positive and negative charge
43
What structure does collagen have?
A triple helix which bind together to create superhelix
44
In which direction does DNA replication occur?
from the 5' end to the 3' end
45
RNA binds to the ________ region of the DNA strand which contains a _______ box using ________ protein.
promoter region
TATA box
TATA box binding protein
46
Name the three sites on a ribosome
aminoacyl
peptidal
exit site
47
what is a missense mutation?
A change in the amino acid sequence and therefore the protein produced.
48
what is an enzyme with a cofactor called?
apoenzyme
49
what are isozymes?
Isozymes are isoforms of enzymes which catalyse the same reactions but have different properties
50
what do protein kinases do?
They dephosphorylate ATP phosphorylate proteins.
51
what are zymogens?
precursors of enzymes which need modified to become active enzymes.
52
What is the Michaelis constant (Km)?
the substrate concentration when Vmax is at 50%
53
What proteins do DNA wrap around?
Histones
54
which is orthosteric? Competitive inhibitors or non-competitive inhibitors?
Competitive inhibitor
55
Do competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?
They increase the Km but have no effect on the Vmax
56
Do non-competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?
they decrease the Vmax
57
What is an acrocentric chromosome?
A chromosome with virtually no short arm.
58
What is a translocation?
The rearrangement of chromosome material
59
What is a robertsonian translocation?
Where two acrocentric chromosomes are fused end to end
60
Define mosaicism.
Where different cells within an individual have different genetic makeup
61
Define penetrance.
The likelihood that possessing a certain gene mutation shall result in disease
62
Define pharmacodynamics
The effect that a drug has on the body
63
Define pharmacokinetics
The effect the body has on a drug
64
What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist
Agonist- bind to receptors and produce a cellular response
| Antagonist- bind to same receptor as antagonist and inhibit cellular response
65
Define affinity and efficacy
Affinity- rate of agonist binding to receptors
| efficacy- how effective the agonist is at producing a response
66
define autocrine, paracrine, endocrine.
all chemical signalling
autocrine-cell to cell
paracrine- to neighbouring cells
endocrine- to another cell/tissue through vascular system
67
Drugs are often weak acids/bases and exist in ionised/unionised forms. in which form are they most likely to pass through membranes?
unionised
68
Selectins and Integrins on Leukocytes allow them to bind to VCAMs and ICAMs. What does VCAM and ICAM stand for?
Vascular cell adhesion molecules
| Intracellular adhesion molecules
69
What is chemotaxis?
The movement of cells along a chemotactic gradient
70
What are the four main clinical features of inflammation?
Rubor, calor, dolor, tumor
71
Define resolution
The total restoration of tissue to normal after damage
72
Define suppuration
the collection of pus- collection of dead and dying neutrophils, bacteria and fibrin
73
What is the main cell type involved in fibrosis?
Fibroblasts
74
define empyema
A space filled with pus
75
Define a granuloma
An aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes (effectively a wall of macrophages enclosing a substance).
76
Name the three types of necrosis
Coagulative
liquefactive
caseous
77
Define apoptosis
Programmed cell death- either pathological/physiological
78
what is the difference between incidence and prevelance?
incidence-number of new cases of a disease
| prevelance- number of cases at the present time
79
What is the microscopic difference between Gram positive and gram negative bacteria?
Gram positive bacteria- single thick layer of peptidoglycan
| Gram negative- outer and inner membrane with a periplasm containing a thin peptidoglycan layer
80
What is found on the surface of Gram negative bacteria but not on Gram positive bacteria?
Lipopolysaccharides
| pili
81
Using the crystal violet stain Gram positive bacteria appear ________ while gram negative appear ________.
Violet
| pink
82
What is a serotype?
A strain of a species of a pathogen.
83
What is virulence?
the capacity of a microorganism to cause disease
84
Do streptococci form clusters or chains of cocci?
Chains
85
Do staphlococci form clusters or chains of cocci?
Clusters
86
What classification of haemolytic bacteria are enterococci?
Gamma haemolytic
87
what test is used to identify streptococci?
Haemolysis
88
How do you differentiate between Staphlococcus aureus and staph epidermidis
S.aureus- coagulase positive
| S.epidermidis-coagulase negative
89
name the administration routes of the following penicillins: Benzylpenicillin, phenoxymethyl penicillin, Benzathine penicillin
Benzylpenicillin- intravenous
phenoxymethyl- oral
benzathine- intramuscular
90
Name the three groups of cell wall antibiotics
Penicillins, cephalosporins, glycopeptides
91
What does the Beta-lactam ring resemble?
D-alanine which is part of the peptidoglycan structure
92
what is the advantage of Co-amoxiclav over amoxicilin?
the clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamases
93
Flucloxacillin is the firstline treatment for what pathogen?
Streptococci and staphlococci
94
Vancomycin is an example of what type of antibiotic? It is bactericidal against what type of bacteria?
glycopeptide
| Gram positive bacteria
95
Gentamicin, Tetracycline and macrolides target what process in bacteria?
they target protein synthesis
96
Gentamicin is the main antibiotic against which bacteria?
Coliforms e.g. E.coli
97
which ribosomes do gentamicin and tetracyclines target?
30s ribosomes
98
Erythromycin is what type of antibiotic
Macrolides
99
DNA gyrases are targeted by what antibiotics?
Quinolones and fluoroquinalones
100
trimethroprim targets what?
Folic acid synthesis
101
what are PAMPs and PRRs?
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
| Pattern Recognition Receptors
102
Macrophages and dendritic cells recognise _______ on the surface of pathogens and engulf them by ________. Debris (pathogen derived peptides) are expressed on _______ receptors.
PAMPs
Phagocytosis
MHC-II receptors
103
Name the three pathways of complement protein cleavage.
Classical pathway
Mannose binding lectin pathway
Alternative pathway
104
Complement proteins lead to the formation of what complex?
MAC (membrane attack complex)
105
Name the process by which Neutrophils pass through the vascular endothelium
Diapedesis
106
Which part of the antibody varies?
Antibodies vary in the variable binding region of the heavy chain
107
B/T cells enter lymph nodes by what vessels?
High Endothelial Venules
108
B cells divide within the ________ centre
Germinal
109
Initially plasma cells secrete _________ antibodies then ______ cells trigger them to produce _______ antibodies
IgM antibodies
T helper cells
IgG antibodies
110
Which antibody is found in the colostrum?
IgA
111
T cells only recognise peptides presented to them by ____ ___________ _________
Major Histocompatability Complex molecules (MHC)
112
MHC I present to ______ cells and MHC II cells present to ______ cells.
CD8+ cells
| CD4+cells
113
Which T cells differentiate into Cytotoxic T cells?
CD8+ cells
114
Each stage of the cell cycle is dependent on ______ _______ ________.
Cyclin Dependent Kinases
115
The p53 checkpoint is located between which stages of the cell cycle?
Growth phase 1 and the synthesis stage
116
What is replicative senescence?
Where a cell is terminally differentiated and shall no longer proliferate
117
What is meant when it is said that cancers are heterogenous?
When cancers divide new genetic mutations are produced meaning different cancer cells possess different growth advantages
118
What is the difference between germline and somatic mutations?
Germline mutations are mutations of the gametes (inherited) whereas somatic mutations occur due to carcinogens (acquired).
119
Define epigenetics.
Changes in gene expression due to environmental factors.
120
Which process unwinds DNA allowing DNA replication? DNA acetylation or DNA methylation?
DNA Acetylation
121
Define metaplasia
The differentiation of one cell type to another mature cell type
122
What is the difference between Grading and staging?
Grading determines the appearance of the cancer cells (well differentiated or poorly differentiated) whereas staging determines the progression of the disease (tumour, node, metastasis).
123
Define carcinoma in-situ.
Where cell dysplasia effects the whole epithelium and is in the last stage before invasion ( penetrating the epithelium)
124
What is the ames test used to determine?
whether a compound is carcinogenic
125
Covering epithelial cancers are called what?
Carcinoma
126
Glandular epithelial cancers are called what?
Adenoma/ Adenocarcinoma
127
What is cachexia?
Extreme weight loss and muscle wasting (often due to cancer)
128
What does the prefix -sarcoma indicate?
that the cancer is malignant.
129
What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism?
Catabolism- breakdown of molecules yielding energy
| Anabolism- assembly of molecules using energy
130
Place in order the four main compounds in the glycolysis process.
Glucose
Glucose bisphosphate
Glyceraldehyde phosphate
Pyruvate
131
What is the Warburg effect?
Cancer cells have a high glucose metabolism because they possess low Km hexokinase
132
NADH is derived from what vitamin?
Niacin
133
Where does the Link reaction and the Tricarboxylic acid cycle occur?
the mitochondrial matrix
134
Which enzyme is used in the metabolism of drugs?
Cytochrome P450
135
In which state are metabolites meaning they cannot be absorbed by the body?
they are polar.
136
Define Clearance
The volume of blood cleared of the drug per unit time
137
Doctors try to maintain drug concentrations at a Steady State. What is meant by the term Steady state?
where the rate of drug administration is equal to the rate of drug elimination
138
What is the difference between primary and secondary Active transport?
Primary- energy from ATP required to move against concentration gradient
Secondary- coupled with the transfer of an ion which provides the energy to move against concentration gradient
139
sodium ions are found in the __________ fluid and have _____ permeability.
Extracellular
| Low
140
Potassium ions are found in the _________ fluid and have _______ permeability
Intracellular
| High
141
What is the normal resting potential of a cell membrane?
-70mV
142
What is Depolarisation and Hyperpolarisation?
Depolarization- Becomes more positive
| Hyperpolarization- becomes more negative
143
Sodium ion channels are opened _______ by depolarization whereas with Potassium ion channels opening is ________.
Rapidly
| delayed
144
What is the difference between Absolute and Relative refractory period?
Absolute- all Na+ channels inactivated so cannot carry a second action potential
Relative- some Na+ channels inactivated so can carry a second action potential
145
Sympathetic neurones originate from the _________ outflow while Parasympathetic neurones originate from the __________ outflow
Thoracolumbar
| Craniosacral
146
NANC transmission in sympathetic neurones involves ____ and __________ ___.
ATP
| Neuropeptide Y
147
NANC transmission in Parasympathetic neurones uses ______ _____ and _______ _______ ________.
Nitric oxide
| Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
148
Sympathetic neurones possess __________ and _________ receptors. Parasympathetic possess ________ and ___________ receptors.
LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-Adrenergic
LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-cholinergic
149
Name the 5 sections of the spinal chord. Also state the number or spinal nerves in each section.
Cervical -8 (but only 7 cervical vertebrae)
thoracic -12
Lumbar -5
sacral -5
coccygeal -1 (But 4 coccygeal vertebrae fused to form the coccyx)
150
Name the formaina between the vertebrae
Intervertebral foramina
151
Name the largest foramin in the skull.
Foramin Magnum
152
Posterior and anterior ______ supply the dermatomes.
Rami
153
Efferent neurones move ________ from the CNS whereas Afferent move ________ the CNS
away
| towards
