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Aa. Year 1 Questions > Principles > Flashcards

Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?

A

Fc region

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2
Q

What is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body?

A

IgA, however IgG is in the highest blood concentration.

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3
Q

What is the role of IgD?

A

Activation of B cells

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4
Q

What is the role of IgE?

A

Prevention against parasites and type 1 hypersensitity (allergies)

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5
Q

What is the role of IgG

A

Immune complex mediated rections - enhances phagocytosis

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6
Q

What is the role of IgM?

A

Produced in acute stages of infection and in cell bound type 2 hypersensitivity reactions.

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7
Q

What is the main source of IL-1?

A

Macrophages and monocytes

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8
Q

What type of medications may be used in an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Adrenaline, hydrocortisone, and chlorphenamine

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9
Q

What type of immune cells produce large abounds of specific antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

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10
Q

What is responsible for activating macrophages?

A

Interferon gamma

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11
Q

What triggers the mannose binding lectin pathway?

A

Mannose binding lectin binds to carbohydrates in the surface of pathogens.

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12
Q

What type of T cells mediate allergic asthma?

A

Th2 Cells

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13
Q

What type of immune cells is responsible for defence against protozoa and helminths?

A

Eosinophils

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14
Q

What is genetic nondisjuction?

A

Failure of the sister chromosomes to separate during mitosis. This can result in aneuploidy.

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15
Q

What gene is defective in Li-fraumeni syndrome?

A

p53

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16
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

The presence of more than one type of organellar genome - mitochondrial DNA or plastid DNA - within a cell or indicidual

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17
Q

What is genetic linkage?

A

Two genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome are often inherited together.

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18
Q

What is somatic hypermutation?

A

Where point mutation accumulate in the antibody V-regions of both heavy and light chains

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19
Q

What does a low Km value represent?

A

High affinity of an enzyme for its substrate

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20
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Change from one mature cell type to another

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21
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Abnormal cell proliferation

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22
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Physiological increase in cell numbers

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23
Q

What is hypoplasia?

A

Physiological decrease in cell numbers

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24
Q

What is morphogenesis?

A

The formation of a body plan during development

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25
Q

How long can ATP supply energy?

A

4 seconds

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26
Q

How long can phosphocreatinine supply energy?

A

15 seconds

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27
Q

How long can free circulating glucose supply energy?

A

4 minutes

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28
Q

How long can glycogen stores supply energy?

A

77 minutes

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29
Q

How long can fat stores supply energy?

A

4+ days

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30
Q

What component of MRSA causes a necrolytic skin infection?

A

Panton Valentine Leukocidin

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31
Q

What is Down’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21, patients have three copies of chromosome 21

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32
Q

What form of inheritance is Sickle Cell anaemia?

A

This is a form of co-dominant inheritance

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33
Q

What is Klienfelter syndrome?

A

47XXY, they have 3 sex chromosomes and therefore have 49 in total

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34
Q

How many transmembrane proteins make up G proteins?

A

7

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35
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

A benign tumour derived from glandular epithelium

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36
Q

What is a papilloma?

A

A benign tumour derived from mucous membrane

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37
Q

What does the suffix -carcinoma represent?

A

Malignant

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38
Q

What does the suffix -sarcoma represent?

A

Partially malignant, partially beinign

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39
Q

What does the suffix -oma represent?

A

Benign

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40
Q

How is CO2 transported in the body?

A

Dissolved in the blood
As carboxyhaemoglobin
As HCO3
As carbamino compounds

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41
Q

What is the most common method of CO2 transportation?

A

As HCO3

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42
Q

Describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa…

A

A gram negative coccabicallus. Resistant to most oral antibiotics

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43
Q

What is immunophenotyping?

A

Investigation of the pattern of antigen expression on or in cells through a panel of antibodies

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44
Q

What is light microscopy?

A

An techniques used for the morphological assessment of cells

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45
Q

What is alpha haemolysis?

A

Partial haemolysis - green colour

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46
Q

What is gamma haemolysis?

A

No haemolysis

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47
Q

What is beta haemolysis?

A

Complete haemolysis - yellow colour

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48
Q

Describe neisseria meningitidis…

A

Aerobic gram negative coccus

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49
Q

Where dies fertilisation normally occur?

A

Ampulla of the uterine tube

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50
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Degeneration of cells

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51
Q

What is the efficacy of a drug?

A

The ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

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52
Q

Why is there a decreased blood volume in patients with sepsis?

A

Endotoxins cause vasodilation and intravascular fluid to leak into adjacent tissue

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53
Q

How can we classify streptococci?

A

They are classified according to their haemolysis on blood agar

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54
Q

What are the four medical principles defined by Beauchamp and Childress?

A

Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Autonomy
Justice

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55
Q

What is an agonist?

A

This binds to the enzymes active site to enhance its effect

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56
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

This bind to the active site to block the binding of other molecules

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57
Q

What is FiFoATPase?

A

This is a proton pore which utilises the energy yielded from the return of protons along their electrochemical gradient in a condensation reaction with ADP and Pi to yield ATP

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58
Q

What activates C3 in the complement pathway?

A

The classical, alternative and lectin pathways

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59
Q

How do gram positive bacteria stain?

A

Purple due to thick peptidoglycan layer

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60
Q

How do gram negative bacteria stain?

A

Pink due to thin peptidoglycan layer

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61
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

A collection of macrophages that is a manifestation of an inflammatory process.

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62
Q

What is the role of ogliodendrocytes?

A

Produce myelin in the CNS

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63
Q

What receptor is responsible for glucose transport into the gut?

A

GLUT 5 - passive facilitated diffusion

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64
Q

Which G protein does M1 bind to?

A

Gq - stimulation of phospholipse C

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65
Q

What is the definition of Km?

A

The concentration of substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax

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66
Q

What is muscle spasticity?

A

A muscle with increased tone, intact and functioning motor nerve but descending controls from the brain are not working

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67
Q

What is muscle paralysis?

A

Muscle with reduce tone, unable to contract and no functioning motor nerve supply

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68
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme for the TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate Dehydrogenase

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69
Q

What cells are the main producer of cytokines?

A

T helper cells

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70
Q

What is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Allergic Reaction

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71
Q

What is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Cytotoxic reaction

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72
Q

What is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Immunocomplex reaction

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73
Q

What is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Cell-mediated reaction

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74
Q

What causes the immune reaction in type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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75
Q

What immune system components react to bacteria?

A

Antibodies and B lymphocytes

Phagocytes

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76
Q

What immune system components react to viruses?

A

T lymphocytes

Antibodies and B lymphocytes

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77
Q

What immune system components react to fungi?

A

T lymphocytes
Phagocytes
Complement proteins

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78
Q

What immune system components react to protozoa?

A

T lymphocytes

Eosinophils

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79
Q

What immune system components react to worms?

A

Eosinophils

Mast cells

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80
Q

What is inoculum size?

A

Median infecting dose required to cause disease in 50% of patients

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81
Q

What are the primary lymphoid tissues?

A

Thymus and Bone

Where the immune cells originate

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82
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Lymph Nodes, Adenoids, Tonsils, Spleen, Peyer’s Patches, Thoracic Duct
Where the immunity is propagated and refined

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83
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small polypeptides released by a cell in order to change the function of the same or another cell

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84
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

The coating of pathogens by soluble factors (opsonins) to enhance phagocytosis

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85
Q

What are examples of opsonins?

A

C3b
CRP
IgG
IgM

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86
Q

What is the action of macrophages?

A

PAMPs bing to PRRs on the Mast Cell. This causes degranulation of inflammatory substances. There is then production of new pro-inflammatory mediators.

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87
Q

What are examples of pro-inflammatory mediators?

A 
Leukotrienes
Prostaglandins
Nitric Oxide
Histamines
Pro-Inflammatory Cytokines (TNF alpha)
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88
Q

What are Leukotrienes?

A

Inflammatory chemicals the body releases after coming in contact with an allergen or allergy trigger.

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89
Q

What are Prostaglandins?

A

A group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection that are involved in dealing with injury and illness. They control processes such as inflammation, blood flow, the formation of blood clots and the induction of labour.

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90
Q

What is the role of neutrophils?

A

They phagocytose and kill micro-organisms by releasing antimicrobial compounds

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91
Q

What do proinflammatory mediators promote?

A

Vascular changes

Recruitment and activation of neutrophils

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92
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

The passage of blood cells (e.g.neutrophils) through the walls of intact blood vessels

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93
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

The movement of a compound in response to a stimulus

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94
Q

What are the three neutrophil killing mechanisms?

A

Phagocytosis
Degranulation
Neutrophil Extracellular Traps (NETs)

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95
Q

What are neutrophil extracellular traps?

A

The neutrophils expel the contents of their nuclei and granule contents. This releases digestive enzymes that can trap and kill pathogens

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96
Q

What is TNF alpha?

A

Tumour Necrosis Factor alpha is an inflammatory cytokine produced by macrophages/monocytes during acute inflammation and is responsible for a diverse range of signalling events within cells, leading to necrosis or apoptosis.

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97
Q

What is the difference between macrophages and monocytes?

A

Macrophages are monocytes that have migrated to the tissues.

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98
Q

What is the role of dendritic cells?

A

Activation if naieve T lymphocytes to initiate that adaptive immune response

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99
Q

What are natural killer cells?

A

Recognise and destroy virally-infected host cells and cancer cells

100
Q

What are B cell receptors?

A

These are membrane bound antigens

101
Q

What are T cell receptors?

A

These are membrane bound protein heterodimers. The have alpha and beta chains with unique binding sites.

102
Q

What molecules are required to present peptide antigens to T cell receptors?

A 
Major HistoCompatibility molecules
MHC molecules (human leucocyte antigens)
103
Q

Describe class I MHC molecules?

A

These are expressed on ALL nucleatred cells and present peptide antigens to CD8+T cells

104
Q

Describe class II MHC molecules?

A

These are only expressed on antigen presenting cells e.g. dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
The preent Peptide antigens to CD4+T cells

105
Q

What are end-stage B lymphocytes?

A

Plasma cells - they secret large quantities of soluble immunoglobulins

106
Q

What is the variable part of immunoglobulins responsible for?

A

Form the diverse portion of the antigen to which pathogens can bind

107
Q

What is the constant part of the heavy chain of the antibody responsible for?

A

This dictates the function of the antibody

108
Q

What two signals does a B cells need to receive for it to be activated?

A

Antigen - BCR + Antigen
Helping signals - PRR + PAMP (non protein antigens)
Help from TH cells (protein antigens)

109
Q

What is the first soluble antibody to be produced?

A

IgM

110
Q

Which soluble antibodies mediate agglutination?

A

IgM and IgG

111
Q

What is agglutination?

A

When an antibody cross-links multiple antigens producing clumps of antigens

112
Q

Which soluble antibodies activate the classical pathway of the compliment system?

A

IgM and IgG

113
Q

Which soluble antibody is responsible for foetal immune protection?

A

IgG

114
Q

Which soluble antibody is responsible for neutralising bacterial and viral toxins?

A

IgG and secretory IgA

115
Q

Which soluble antibody is an excellent opsinin?

A

IgG

116
Q

Which soluble antibody is involved in natural killer activation?

A

Antigen bound IgG

117
Q

What is the function of membrane bound IgD?

A

Mediates B cell activation

118
Q

What are two signals needed for T cell activation?

A

Binding by MHC molecule

Co-stimulatory molecules

119
Q

What is the role of Tfh cells?

A

To stimulate B cells to become plasma cells or memory B cells

120
Q

Which interleukin is required to proliferate CD8+ T cells?

A

IL-2

121
Q

What is the role of Th1 cells?

A

Increased macrophage killing

122
Q

What type of ribosome do eukaryotes have?

A

80s ribosome

123
Q

What type of ribosome do prokaryotes have?

A

70s ribosomes

124
Q

What is peptidoglycan?

A

A polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like layer outside the plasma membrane of most bacteria, forming the cell wall

125
Q

What type of bacteria has lipopolysaccharides?

A

Gram -ve

126
Q

What type of bacteria has fimbriae?

A

Gram +ve

127
Q

What type of bacteria has pilus?

A

Gram -ve

128
Q

What are mesophiles?

A

Organisms that grow best at moderate/body temperature

129
Q

What are psycrophiles?

A

Organisms that grow best at a low temperature

130
Q

What are thermophiles?

A

Organisms that grow best at a high temperature

131
Q

What are the common shapes of bacteria?

A

Coccus
Bacillus
Spiral-shaped

132
Q

How do cocci divide?

A

Divide in one plane to pro

133
Q

What is the purpose of a mannitol salt agar?

A

It allows for the preferantial isolation of staphylococci

134
Q

What is the purpose of MacConkay Agar?

A

Facilitate identification of enterobacteriaceae

135
Q

What is the purpose of eosin and methylene blue?

A

Allows the identification of lactose fermenters e.g. E.Coli

136
Q

What is virulence?

A

The capacity of a microbe to cause damage to the host

137
Q

What are coliforms?

A

A species of gram -ve bacilli that look like E. coli on gram film and when cultured on blood agar

138
Q

Name some key gram -ve pathogens?

A

E. Coli
Nesseria Meningitidis
Nesseria Gonorrhoeae

139
Q

Name some key gram +ve pathogens?

A

Streptococcus spp.
Staphylococcus spp.
C. dificile

140
Q

What is a virus?

A

A small obligate intracellular parasite

141
Q

What is the name of a viral particle?

A

Virion

142
Q

What is the growth cycle of a pathogen?

A

Attachment, Entry, Uncoating, Synthesis of Viral Components, Assembly and Release

143
Q

What is a syncytia?

A

A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei and an enclosing membrane but no individual cells.

144
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

A drug used to treat or prevent infection caused by microorganisms.

145
Q

Name some antibiotic targets?

A 
Cell wall - peptidoglycan synthesis
Ribosomes - protein synthesis
DNA replication - nucleic acid synthesis
DNA gyrases
Metabolic pathways
Cell membrane function
146
Q

What are examples of antibiotics that target eh cell membranes?

A

Polymixins

147
Q

What are examples of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillins
Cephlasporins
Carbapenems
Glycopeptides (non beta lactam)

148
Q

Why doesn’t beta lactams affect human cells?

A

We dont have peptidoglycans in our cells

149
Q

What is the target of beta lactams?

A

Penicillin Binding Proteins

150
Q

What are examples of antibiotics that inhibit DNA synthesis?

A

Quinolones
Nalidixic Acids
Nitrosimadazoles

151
Q

What are examples of antibiotics that inhibit RNA synthesis?

A

Rifamycin

152
Q

What are examples of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Lincosamides

153
Q

Name some penicillins?

A

Penicillin
Flucloxacillin
Amoxicillin
Co-amoxiclav

154
Q

Name some cephalosporins?

A

Ceftriaxone

155
Q

Name some glycopeptides?

A

Vancomycin

Teicoplanin

156
Q

What penicillin is used on gram +ve organisms?

A

Flucloxacillin

157
Q

What penicillin is used on gram -ve organisms?

A

Temocillin

158
Q

What penicillin is used on gram +ve and gram -ve organsims?

A

Amoxicillin/Co-amoxiclav

159
Q

Name some aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamicin

160
Q

Name some tetracyclines?

A

Deoxycycline

Minocycline

161
Q

Name some Macrolides?

A

Erythromycin
Clarythromycin
Azithromycin

162
Q

Name some Lincosamides?

A

Clindamycin

163
Q

What antibiotics inhibit folic acid synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim

164
Q

What are the 4 “C” antibiotics?

A

Clindamycin
Co-Amoxiclav
Cephalosporins
Ciprofloxacin

165
Q

What is the mechanism of macrolides?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by acting on the 50s subunit of ribosomes

166
Q

What is the mechanism of tetracyclines and aminoglycosides?

A

Bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit

167
Q

What are the microbial factors that can lead to inflammation?

A

Virulence Factors

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

168
Q

What do integrins bind to?

A

ICAM

169
Q

Where are selectins expressed?

A

On endothelial and white cells

170
Q

What is the action of tumour necreosis factor and IL-1?

A

Increase endothelial expression of VCAM and ICAM

171
Q

What is the action of histamine and thrombin?

A

Increase selectin expression

172
Q

How do phagocytes kill and degrade pathogens?

A

Reactive Oxygen Species

Reactive Nitrogen Species

173
Q

Which enzyme causes NADPH to become oxidated?

A

NADPH Oxidase - allows oxygen to gain and electron and become superoxide

174
Q

Which enzyme combines NO with superoxide?

A

Nitrogen Oxide Synthase - produces ONOO

175
Q

Name some inflammatory mediators?

A

NO
Prostaglandins
Inflammatory Cytokines - IL-1, TNFa, IL-6, IL-15

176
Q

What are the three types of necrosis?

A

Caseous
Liquefactive
Coagulative

177
Q

What are the two options for cell death?

A

Necrosis or Apoptosis

178
Q

What is coagulative Necrosis?

A

Caused by hypoxia which leads to structural proteins bending out of shape and dysfunctional lysosomal proteins.
The cell retains some structure.

179
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

Where hydrolytic enzymes digest dead cells into a creamy substance full of dead immune cells

180
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

This is a mix between liquefactive and coagulative necrosis. Associated with TB. The tissues are disintegrated but not fully digested.

181
Q

What is gangrenous necrosis?

A

Caused by hypoxia, it causes the tissue to dry up like a mummy

182
Q

What is fat necrosis?

A

Caused by trauma to fatty organs which leads to release of fatty acids and dystrophic calcification of the tissue

183
Q

What is the mitochondrial intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

Bax and Bak bind to the mitochondrial membrane which increases its permeability and causes release of proteins to stimulate the caspase cascade

184
Q

What is the main protein that stimulates the caspase cascade?

A

Cytochrome C

185
Q

What do macrophages release to initiate the extrinsic apoptitic pathway?

A

TNFa

186
Q

What do cytotoxic t cells express to initiate the extrinsic apoptitic pathway?

A

Fas Ligand

187
Q

In competitive inhibition..

A

Vmax is the same

Km varies

188
Q

In non-competitive inhibition…

A

Vmax varies

Km stays the same

189
Q

What is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

190
Q

What is redundancy in relation to codons?

A

Where different codons can encode the same amino acids

191
Q

What is the use of array CGH?

A

It is used to identify small imbalances e.g. extra or missing chromosomes. It doesn’t detect balanced variation e.g. no extra or missing material

192
Q

What is the karyotype of turners syndrome?

A

45 XO

193
Q

What is Pleiotropy?

A

Pleiotropy is a condition where a single mutation causes more than one observable phenotypic effect.

194
Q

What is the difference between an oncogene and a tumour suppressor gene?

A

Tumour suppressor genes - loss of function results in an increased risk of cancer
Oncogenes - gain of function results in an increased risk of cancer

195
Q

What is the difference between expressivity and penetrance?

A

Expressivity describes the severity of the phenotype

Penetrance describes the likelihood that a phenotype will develop

196
Q

What is haploinsufficiency?

A

Haplo-insufficiency refers to the inability of a single allele to confer the usual phenotype to an individual

197
Q

What is phase I drug metabolism?

A

The drug is changed via oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis to become more polar.

198
Q

What is phase II drug metabolism?

A

The drug is combined with several polar molecules to bake a water soluble metabolite.

199
Q

What is Frank Starlings Law of the Heart?

A

As the end-diastolic (preload) volume increases, the stroke volume also increases

200
Q

What is the main site of systemic vascular resistance?

A

Arterioles because they are converting the pulsatile aortic blood to the non-pulsatile venous blood

201
Q

What is the equation for MAP?

A

MAP = CO x SVR

202
Q

What is the basal metabolic rate?

A

Minimum amount of energy required to sustain vital body functions

203
Q

What is raditation?

A

Emission of heat energy in the form of electromagnetic waves from a surface

204
Q

What is conduction?

A

Transfer of heat between objects in contace

205
Q

What is convection?

A

Transfer of heat energy by are or water currents

206
Q

What is the temperature control centre in the brain?

A

Hypothalamus

207
Q

What part of the hypothalamus does cold activate?

A

Posterior hypothalamic centre

208
Q

What part of the hypothalamus does warmth activate?

A

Anterior hypothalamic centre

209
Q

What does increased sympathetic nervous activity do to the Frank-Starling Curve?

A

Shifts it left

210
Q

What does heart failure do the the frank starling curve?

A

Shifts it right

211
Q

What is the extracellular fluid composed volume of?

A

Plasma volume and interstitial fluid volume

212
Q

What are the two main factors that affect extracellular fluid volume?

A

Water excess or deficit

Na+ excess or deficit

213
Q

Where is renin released from?

A

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus

214
Q

What mechanisms increased renin release?

A

Renal artery hypotension
Stimulation of renal sympathetic nerves
Decreased sodium concentration in renal tubular fluid

215
Q

What stimulates the release of Natriuretic peptides?

A

Cardiac distensionor neurohormonal stimuli

216
Q

What is the action of natriuretic peptides?

A

Excretion of salt and water in the kidneys
Decrease renin release
Vasodilation

217
Q

What stimulates the release of antidiuretic hormone?

A

Reduced extracellular fluid volume

Increased extracellular fluid osmolality

218
Q

What is the action of ADH?

A

Vasoconstriction
Increase water reabsorption
Increase extracellular and plasma volume

219
Q

What are the four types of shock?

A

Hypovolaemic
Cardiogenic
Obstructive
Distributive

220
Q

What is a nerve plexus made up of?

A

Intertwining of the nerve fibres of the anterior rami.

221
Q

What level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1 / l2

222
Q

When is it considered a blastocyst?

A

When a cavity forms in the middle of the cells.

223
Q

When is the morula formed?

A

When there are 16-32 blastomeres

224
Q

What are the two layers of the bilaminar embryo called?

A

Epiblast and hypoblast

225
Q

What are the layer of the mesoderm?

A

Paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm

226
Q

What is haploinsufficiency?

A

One functioning allele is not sufficient for normal development.

227
Q

What does a low Km indicate?

A

A high affinity

228
Q

What enzyme transcripts genetic material?

A

RNA polymerase

229
Q

Where is myoglobin mostly found?

A

Muscle

230
Q

What is the humoral immune response?

A

The adaptive immune response

231
Q

Are staphylococcus and streptococcus gram +ve or gram -ve?

A

B

232
Q

Why is there a decrease in blood volume in patients with sepsis?

A

Endotoxins cause vasodilation and intravascular fluid to leak into adjacent tissues

233
Q

What type of bacteria are classified by the haemolysis test?

A

Streptococci

234
Q

What type of viruses may encode p53?

A

DNA viruses

235
Q

What is Km?

A

Exactly half the mamximum velocity

236
Q

What is the longest phase of the wound healing process?

A

Remodelling

237
Q

What are myofibroblasts?

A

They are differentiated fibroblasts in which the cytoskeleton contains actin filaments
Found in wounds >1 month

238
Q

What do helper T cells express?

A

CD4 + T cells

239
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells express?

A

CD8+ T cells

240
Q

What antibody provides local protections on the mucous membranes?

A

IgA

241
Q

What type of cell is key in class switching of IgM?

A

Th2 cells

242
Q

What interleukin is responsible for the proliferation of B cells?

A

IL-4

243
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A mutation that results in a premature stop codon or termination of transcription

244
Q

What is incidence?

A

New cases of a disease occurring in a population in a defined time period

245
Q

What is the antibiotic for coliform infection?

A

Gentamicin

246
Q

What stimulates protein kinase A?

A

cAMP

247
Q

Where are ribosomes produced?

A

Nucleolus

Aa. Year 1 Questions (12 decks)

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