Principles Final Condensed Flashcards

(143 cards)

1
Q

apoenzymes vs holoenzymes

A

with cofactor

without cofactor

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2
Q

Vmax intersection vs Km intersection on Lineweaver Burk Plot

A
Vmax = Y axis
Km = X axis
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3
Q

Low Km means

A

higher affinity

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4
Q

Does Km or Vmax vary in competitive vs non-competitive inhibition?

A
Competitive = Km varies
Non-competitive = Vmax varies
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5
Q

Enzyme regulation of Hb vs myoglobin

A
Hb = allosteric control - sigmoidal 
Myoglobin = Michaelis-Menten
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6
Q

Function of cholesterol

A

present in cell membranes, component of myelin sheath, precursor molecule for: steroid hormones, Vit D and bile acids

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7
Q

Function of TAGs (triglycerides)

A

highly concentrated energy store, present in the lipid bilayer

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8
Q

Purines

A

A and G

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9
Q

Pyramidines

A

U, T and C

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10
Q

Phosphodiester bonds happen between …

A

the 3’OH and the 5’triphosphate

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11
Q

what unwinds DNA

A

helicase

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12
Q

Describe the RNA polymerases in eukaryotes

A

Pol I, II, III

Pol II synthesises all mRNA

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13
Q

What does RNA polymerase binding require

A

transcription factors

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14
Q

what is TFIID

A

general transcription factor required for all Pol II transcribes genes

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15
Q

start codon?

stop codon?

A

AUG

UAA, UAG, UGA

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16
Q

components of translation

A

AAs, tRNAs, aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, protein factors, ATP/GTP, ribosomes and mRNA

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17
Q

Describe initiation in translation

A

GTP provides the energy
Ribosomal sub-units bind to the 5’ end of mRNA, moves along until the start codon is found
Initiator tRNAs pair to start codon
Large sub-units joins assembly and initiator tRNA is located at the P site

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18
Q

Describe elongation in translation

A

Elongation factor bring aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site
GTP
Second elongation factor regenerates to pick up the next aminoacyl-tRNA

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19
Q

what does peptidyl transferase catalyse

A

peptide bond formation between amino acids at the P and A sites

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20
Q

descibe termination in translation

A

Occurs when the A site o ribosome encounters a stop codon

Finished proteins cleaves of tRNA

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21
Q

what are the 3 tRNA binding sites on ribosomes

A

Exit
Peptidyl
Aminoacyl

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22
Q

Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase

A

phosphorylates glucose
phosphorylates fructose-6-phosphate
converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

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23
Q

negative and positive modulators of phosphofructokinase

A
\+ve = AMP, fructose-2,6-biphophate
-ve = ATP, citrate, H+
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24
Q

aerobic metabolism of pyruvate

A

enters mitochondria
converted to acetyl-CoA
condenses with 4C compounds to form a 6C comound
6C compound decarboxylates to 2 3C’s - yielding 2CO2
4 oxidation reactions yield NADH+H+ and FADH2
GTP formed
4C compound recreated

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25
where are the enzymes in TCA
all in the matrix apart from succinate dehydrogenase which is in the membrane
26
Electrons needed in conversion of the NAD and FAD
3 in NAD+ to NADH+H+ | 1 in FAD to FADH2
27
phosophoryl transfer potential
free energy change for ATP hydrolysis
28
Electron transfer potential
measured by redox potential of a compound
29
standard redox potential
how readily a substance will donate an electron --> -ve values mean reduced from of X has a lower affinity for electrons that hydrogen and vice versa
30
describe electron transport in the coupling of respiration with ATP synthesis
Respiratory chain - electrons from NADH enter at complex I, electrons from FADH2 enter at complet II, electrons are handed down from higher to lower redox potentials until transferred onto O2 and H2O Transfer of electronc through respiratory chain is couples with H+ transport from mitochondrial matrix to intermembrane space 3/4 complexes pump H+ (1,2,4)
31
electrochemical gradient
more protons in inter-membranous space than the matrix making the matrix side more negative and so protons are attracted to the matrix - couples to ATP synthesis
32
how many ATP does 1 glucose yield
30-32 ATP
33
what inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
cyanide, azide and CO inhibit the transfer of electrons to O2
34
aneuploidy
whole missing or extra chromosome
35
``` 47 XY +21 47 XY +18 47 XXY 47 XY +14 45 X ```
``` Down's Syndrome Edward Syndrome Kleinfelter Syndrome Miscariage Turner Syndrome ```
36
Sickle cell anaemia ALzeihmers and Parkinsons Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease Glycogen storage disease
Missense mutation (glu to val) protein folded before fully synthesised prions folding goes wrong enzyme deficiency so cant use glycogen stores
37
robertsonian translocation
two acrocentric chromosomes stuck end on end - increases risk of trisomy in pregnancy
38
gonadal mosaicism
causes recurrnece risk for the autosomal dominant conditions even if the parent isnt affected
39
penetrance
likelihood of having a disease if you ave the gene mutation
40
autosomal dominant
disease seen in all generations | severity variable males and females equally affected
41
autosomal recessive
2 faulty copies needed to cause disease one generation causes loss of function
42
x linked
recessive haemophilia no male to male transmission
43
mitochondrial
maternal inheritance | point mutations and deletions occur
44
mendelian disorders
high penetrance | small environmental contribution
45
what does DNA methylation lead to
modification of histones which repress transcription
46
imprinting
the differences in gene expression depending on whether the gene was maternally or paternally inherited specific chromosomal locations contain imprinting genes
47
angelmans syndrome
neuro-genetic disorder chromosome 15 happy demeanour
48
heteroplasmy
different daughter cells contain different amounts of mutant mitochondria
49
rough vs smooth ER
``` R= protein synthesis S= cholesterol and lipid synthesis and detoxification ```
50
golgi apparatus
modification and packaging of secretions --> has bound cisternae
51
microfilaments vs microtubules
7nm composed of Actin | 25nm composed of tubulin
52
Dynein vs kinesin
``` D = towards centre K = away from centre ```
53
site of RNA synthesis
nucleus
54
types of intracellular junctions
``` occluding = tight anchoring = desmosomes communicating = gap ```
55
cadherin molecules
bind to each other in the extracellular matrix space and to actin of the cytoskeleton
56
desmosomes vs hemidesmosomes
link submebrane intermediate filaments of adjacent cells | link submebrane intermediate filaments of cells to extracellular matrix through transmembrane proteins
57
colour of haematoxylin vs eosin
``` H = purple (basic) E = pink (acidic) ```
58
epithelium classification
shape - squamous (flattened), cuboidal an columnar | layers - simple (one), stratified (2+), pseudo-stratified (looks like multiple but is one
59
exocrine vs endocrine
``` exo = product secreted to apical end of cell endo = product secreted to basal end of cell ans is transported in the vascular system ```
60
diaphysis vs epiphysis
``` D = outer shell of corticol bone makes up the shaft E = cancellous/trabecular bone occupies the end ```
61
blood and lymph connective tissue?
yes
62
cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle
``` C = intercalated discs S = elongated nuclei ```
63
connective tissue coat in the CNS vs PNS
``` C = meninges P = epineurium ```
64
types of glia and functions
Astrocytes = support and ion transport Oligodendrocytes = produce myelin Microglia = provide immune surveillance Schwann cell = produce myelin and support axons
65
3 salivary glands
parotid, sumandibular, sublingual
66
large intestine, outer longitudinal muscle organisation
teniae coli - 3 strips
67
bronchus vs bronchioles structure
large diameter and hyaline cartiliage | small, no cartilage, mainly smooth muscle
68
islets of langerhans
endocrine pancreas A cells = glucagon B cells = insulin D cells = somatostatin
69
pericytes
connective tissue cells with contractile properties - located in capillaries and venules
70
3 types of capillary
fenestrated - pores (gut mucosa, kidney, endocrine glands) continous - (muscle, lung, skin, nerve) sinusoidal - large gaps (liver, spleen, marrow)
71
variolation
exposure of an individual to the contents of dried smallpox pustules from an infected patient
72
what has increased prevalence in HIV caused
reemergence of TB
73
innate immune response
fast general mast cells, NK cells, phagocytes and complement
74
Adaptive immune response
slow | unique
75
PRRs:PAMPs vs Antigen:Antigen receptors
innate | adaptive
76
types of lymphocyte
B cells T cells NK cells
77
types of phagocyte
neutrophils monocytes macrophages dendritic cells
78
soluble components of the immune response
complement | antibodies - Igs
79
where are mast cells found and what do they do
reside in tissues and degranulate and release histamine and tryptase
80
neutrophils produce .... when activated | 3 mechanisms of attack
TNF | phagocytosis, release antimicrobial peptides and degredative proteases and generate extracellular traps
81
where are macrophages found
reside in tissues | monocytes are the precursor
82
dendritic cells important in
antigen presentation | when activated they mature and go to the secondary lymphoid tissues
83
helper T cells
CD4+ = produce cytokines, activate CD8+ and recognise peptides on MHC/HLA class II (expressed on dendritic, macrophages and B cells)
84
cytotoxic T cells
CD8+ = recognise pathogens n MHC/HLA class I (expressed on all nucleated cells), trigger apoptosis and secrete cytokines and pore formign molecules like perforin
85
examples of cytokines
Interferons TNF chemokines ILs
86
acute phase response
liver produces acute phase proteins in response to pro-inflammatory cytokines eg IL1, IL6 and TNF examples of the acute phase proteins = CRP, complement proteins and serum amyloid A
87
complement pathways
classical lectin alternative
88
MAC is made of
C6-C9 and C5b
89
T cell antigen receptor vs B cell antigen receptor
``` T = membrane bound heterodimer (a and b chains) B = membrane bound antibofy (IgM or IgD) - light and heavy chains and disulphide bridges ```
90
Exo vs endo toxin
Exo on +ve = mad einside the cell | Endo on -ve = part of cell wall
91
events in fever
antigen attacks macrophages releases cytokines travel to anterior hypothalamus of the brain stimulates production of PGE reset bodys thermal temperature body perceives cold and so shiver to conserve heat FEVER
92
antibiotic in anaerobes antibiotic for staph aureus antibiotic for coliforms
metronidazole flucloxacillin gentamicin
93
cell wall antibiotics
penicillin (beta lactam), cephalosporins (ceftriaxone), glycopeptides - only effectove on gram +ve cell walls (vancomycin ) all bactericidal
94
protein synthesis antibiotics
macrolides (thromycin's), textracyclines (doxycycline) and aminoglysides (gentamicin) all bacteriostatic appart from gentamicin
95
bacterial DNA antibodies
metronidazole, trimethopim and fluouroquinolones
96
what are the neutralising antibodies of viruses
IgM and IgG
97
non lethal cell injury
hydropic change fatty change membrane shedding
98
meatbolic disorders inheritance
autosomal recessive
99
phenylketonuria
Guthrie test - due to the accumulation of phenylalanine caused by a deficiency in enzyme converts phenylalanine to tyrosine
100
surface adhesion molcules
C5a Leukotriene B2 TNF
101
endothelial cell expression of adhesion molecules increased by
IL1, endotoxins and TNF
102
5-HT (serotonin) in high concentration where
platelets
103
cells of chronic inflammation
plasma cells, lymphocytes and macrophages
104
irreversible damage in inflammation
severe damage to the cell membrane and mitochondria leakage of enzymes nuclear changes eg ATP changes, cell membrane damage
105
labile cells | stable cells
Gi tract and bone marrow | hepatocytes and endothelium
106
p53 activated by | arrests cycle at
cell stress | G1/S or G2/M
107
T1 diabetes vs T2 diabetes
``` T1 = insulin dependent T2 = non-insulin dependent ```
108
orthoteric vs allosteric sites
competitive (same) | non-competitive (different)
109
Henderson-Hasselbach equation
pH -pKa = log(A-/AH)
110
Vd in IV setting
Vd= dose/plasma concentration
111
parasympathetic cranial nerves
3,7,9,10
112
what does noradrenaline activate
G protein coupled receptors - adrenoceptors
113
muscarinic ACh receptors vs nicotinic ACh receptors
``` M = G protei coupled receptors where they are all seperate parts N = ligand gated channel essentially with alpha, beta, gamma, delta and epsilon units ```
114
M1 M2 M3
Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - incr stomach acid secretion Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase, opens K channels - decrease HR Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - incr saliva secretion and bronchoconstriction
115
MAO vs COMT
``` MAO = U1 NA metabolism COMT = U2 NA metabolism ```
116
B1 B2 A1 A2
Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase - incr HR and force Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase - relax brocnhial and vascular smooth muscle Gq - stimulates phospholipase C - contraction of vascular smooth muscle Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase - inhibits NA release
117
amphetamine
U1 substrate inhibits MAO displaces NA into the cytoplasm so incr ADR stimulation
118
1st order kinetics vs zero order kinetics
rate of elimination directly proportional to the drug concentration (T1/2 = 0.69/Kel) initially eliminated at constant rate and then changes to first order pattern
119
rate of elimination =
clearance x plamsa concentration
120
Cpss and Css
maintenance dose rate/clearance | is reached after approximately 5 half lives
121
Phase 1 drug metabolism
right side of liver oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis makes drug more polar
122
Phase 2 drug metabolism
left side of liver conjugation adds endogenous compounds to increase polarity
123
glomerular filtration
unbound only | occurs freely for most drugs
124
organic anion transporter | organic cation transporter
handles acidic drugs - penicillins, uric acid, furesimide, thaizides (gout) handles basic drugs - morphine active tubular secretions
125
what can active tublar secretions do
concentrate drugs in tubular fluid against the concentration gradient
126
factors affecting reabsorption
lipid solubility polarity urinary flow rate urinary pH (basic = incr excretion of acid, acidic = increase excretion of base)
127
feedback of Na vs K channels in an AP
``` Na = +ve feedback K = -ve feedback ```
128
what is the state of the Na channels in the absolute refractory period
inactive
129
oligodendrocytes astrocytes microglia
priduce myelinated cells in the CNS star shaped, support homeostasis and maintain BBB immune surveillance, mrcophages of the CNS
130
what forms the glycocalyx layer
glycoproteins and glycolipids - carbohydrates
131
cell adhesion molecules
``` cadherin = hold cells in tissues together integrins = span membrane acting as a link between extra and intracellular environment ```
132
what is osmolatiry nd how to caluclate
concetration of osmotically active particles in a solution | osmoles/litre
133
tonicity meaning
effect a solution has on a cell volume
134
Na/K ATPase what goes in and out
3Na in | 2K out
135
membrane is more permable to Na or K
K
136
nernst equation
Eion = 61 log ([ion]0/[ion]i)
137
Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz
each ion in turn and its relative permaeability | calculates overall membrane potential
138
hormones controlling glucose: absorptive and post absorptive state emergency starvation
insulin and glucagon adrenaline cortisol and growth hormone
139
insulin favours anabolism or catabolism
anabolism | hormone of the fed state
140
where does the growth hormone come from
anterior lobe of the pituitary
141
methods of heat gain
metabolic heat radiation convection
142
methods of heat loss
convection conduction radiation evaporation
143
heat regulator in the brain
hypothalamus