Principles of Orthopedic Surgery (25) Flashcards

Dr. Gilley (75 cards)

1
Q

What is an allograft?

A

bone transplanted from one animal to another of the same species

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2
Q

What are apophyseal osteotomies?

A

procedures to enhance surgical exposure of a joint

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3
Q

What is an autograft?

A

bone transplanted from one site to another in the same animal

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4
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

insertion point of a tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted from the rest of the bone

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5
Q

What are bridging plates?

A

span comminuted fracture

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6
Q

What is cerclage wire?

A

orthopedic wire placed around circumference of bone to compress an oblique fracture

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7
Q

What is a closed reduction?

A

fractured bone alignment performed without surgical exposure

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8
Q

What are compression plates?

A

plates that act to compress the fracture

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9
Q

What are corrective osteotomies?

A

diaphysis or metaphysis of a bone is cut, realigned, and stabilized until union occurs

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10
Q

What is a cranial drawer?

A

abnormal movement of stifle joint elicited during physical examination
- caused by tibia sliding cranially in relationship to femur

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11
Q

What is crepitation?

A

“grating feel” or sound with manipulating a fractured bone or arthritic joint

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12
Q

What are delayed unions?

A

fractures that heal more slowly than anticipated

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13
Q

What is a direct bone union?

A

bone formed without evidence of callus

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14
Q

What is endochondral bone formation?

A

bone formed on cartilaginous precursor

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15
Q

What is external coaptation?

A

fracture fixation with casts or splints

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16
Q

What is external fixation?

A

fracture fixation in which pins penetrate bone and skin connected externally

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17
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

incomplete fracture where portion of cortex is intact

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18
Q

What is hemicerclage wire or inter fragmentary wire?

A

wire placed through predrilled holes in bone

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19
Q

What is indirect reduction?

A

process of restoring fragment and limb alignment by distracting major bone segments using animal’s weight

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20
Q

What is internal fixation?

A

fracture fixation using internal implants to secure bone

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21
Q

What are intramedullary pins?

A

implants positioned in the medullary canal of long bones

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22
Q

What is intramembranous bone formation?

A

direct differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts
- bone forms without a cartilaginous precursor

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23
Q

What is luxation?

A

complete dislocation of a joint

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24
Q

What are malunions?

A

healed fractures where anatomic bone alignment not achieved or maintained during healing

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25
What are neutralization plates?
support a reconstructed fracture
26
What is nonunion?
fracture with an arrested repair process - **requires surgical intervention** to create environment conducive to bone healing
27
What is normograde placement?
pin started at one end of bone driven to fracture area, then seated at other end of bone
28
What is an open fracture?
fracture is exposed to external atmosphere
29
What is open (direct) reduction?
fracture repair performed after surgical approach to bone
30
What is ortolani maneuver?
manipulation used to subluxate a dysplastic hip
31
What are ostectomies?
removal of a segment of bone
32
What is osteomyelitis?
inflammatory condition of bone and medullary canal
33
What are osteotomies?
procedures where bone is cut into two segments
34
What is procurvatum?
cranial bowing of bone
35
What is subluxation?
partial dislocation of a joint
36
What is a valgus deformity?
angulation of distal portion of limb laterally
37
What is varus deformity?
angulation of distal portion of limb medially
38
What are the objectives in treating fractures, nonunions, or bone deformities?
- bone union - patient's return to normal function
39
What is important when preparing for an orthopedic procedure?
planning!
40
Describe this fracture
closed, laterally displaced tibial-fibular fracture, long oblique proximal mid-diaphysial
41
Describe the fracture
open, complete, displaced, severely comminuted, non reducible fracture of the diaphysis of the femur
41
How do you classify fractures?
1. Closed or open 2. Degree of damage and displacement of fragments 3. Type of fracture 4. Reducible or non reducible 5. Location
42
What does reducible or non reducible mean?
if fracture fragments can be reconstructed to provide load bearing
43
What is a greenstick fracture?
occurs in **immature animals** **incomplete** fracture where portion of cortex is intact partially stabilizes bone
44
What is an avulsion fracture?
occur when insertion point of **tendon or ligament is fractures & distracted** from rest of bone may be non displaced or displaced
45
What is a transverse fracture?
fracture line perpendicular to long axis of bone
46
What is an oblique fracture?
lines run at an angle to line perpendicular to long axis of bone
47
What is a short oblique fracture?
<45 degrees oblique fracture
48
What is a long oblique fracture?
>45 degrees to perpendicular to long axis of bone
49
What are spiral fractures?
similar to long oblique fractures - but wrap around long axis of bone
50
What are single fractures?
have one fracture line
51
What are comminuted fractures?
have multiple fracture lines, range from - 3-piece fragments with **butterfly fragment** (fragment with 2 oblique fracture lines resembling butterfly's silhouette) - to highly comminuted fractures with 5 or more pieces
52
Look at this
53
What is a reducible fracture?
single fracture line or fractures with no more than 2 large fragments
54
What is a non reducible fracture?
fractures with multiple small fragments
55
What do the velocity of forces dictate in a fracture?
- number of fragments - damage to surrounding soft tissues
56
What do low-velocity forces create in a fracture?
create single fractures with little energy dissipated into soft tissue
57
What do high-velocity forces create in a fracture?
create comminuted fractures with high energy dissipated through fracture propagation and surrounding soft tissue injury
58
How are open fractures classified?
- mechanism of puncture - severity of soft tissue injury
59
What is a grade I open fracture?
small puncture hole located in the skin in proximity of fracture caused by bone penetrating to outside - typically ~1cm bone may or may not be visible in wound
60
Classification?
grade I
61
What is a grade II open fracture?
**variably sized skin wound** associated with fracture that resulted from **external trauma** more damage to soft tissue fracture is minimally (or not) comminuted
62
Fracture type?
grade II open fracture
63
What is a grade III open fracture?
severe bone fragmentation with extensive soft tissue injury - with or without skin loss - usually high-velocity comminuted fractures gunshot injuries shearing type of injuries of distal extremities
64
Fracture type?
grade III open fracture
65
Recall Salter-Harris fractures
66
Define salter-harris types
67
What are the forces acting on fractured bones?
bending forces torsional forces axial loading
68
What is included in a Fracture Assessment Score (FAS)?
- patient information - radiographs - client information
69
What do you summarize in a fracture assessment score?
- mechanical factors - biologic factors - clinical factors guides the type of implants chosen
70
What causes a non reducible and multiple limb injury?
maximum stress on implant system requires careful implant choice and application
71
Look at FAS score with biologic factors
72
Look at clinical factors for FAS score?
73
If you have a high FAS score, what does that mean?
high success of healing with few complications
74
What does FAS range from?
1-10