procedure Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vertebra prominens?

A

The most prominent vertebra at the base of the neck, typically C7 or T1, used as a landmark in radiography.

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2
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

The angle formed by the junction of the manubrium and body of the sternum, used as a landmark for T4-T5 in radiography.

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3
Q

What is the xiphoid process?

A

The small cartilaginous extension at the lower end of the sternum, used as a landmark for T9-T10 in radiography.

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4
Q

What is the jugular notch?

A

The depression at the top of the sternum, used as a landmark for T2-T3 in radiography.

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5
Q

What is the iliac crest?

A

The upper border of the ilium, used as a landmark for L4-L5 in radiography.

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6
Q

What is the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)?

A

A bony projection at the front of the iliac crest, used as a landmark for S1-S2 in radiography.

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7
Q

What is the greater trochanter?

A

A large bony prominence on the femur, used as a landmark for the hip joint in radiography.

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8
Q

What is the mastoid tip?

A

The bony projection at the base of the skull, used as a landmark for C1 in radiography.

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9
Q

What is the thyroid cartilage?

A

The largest cartilage in the larynx, used as a landmark for C5 in radiography.

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10
Q

What is the structure of bone primarily composed of?

A

Bone is primarily composed of an organic matrix (collagen) and inorganic mineral salts (primarily hydroxyapatite).

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11
Q

What are the two types of bone tissue?

A
  • Compact bone
  • Spongy (cancellous) bone
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12
Q

What is compact bone?

A

A dense and strong bone tissue that forms the outer layer of bones.

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13
Q

What is spongy bone?

A

A lighter, less dense bone tissue found inside bones, containing trabeculae and spaces filled with marrow.

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14
Q

What are bone markings?

A

Surface features of bones that serve as attachment points for muscles, tendons, and ligaments, and help form joints.

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15
Q

What are the categories of bone markings?

A
  • Projections
  • Depressions
  • Openings
    (POD)
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16
Q

What is a projection in bone markings?

A

A raised area on the bone where muscles, tendons, or ligaments attach.

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17
Q

What is a depression in bone markings?

A

An indentation or hollow area on the bone, often forming joints.

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18
Q

What is an opening in bone markings?

A

A hole or canal in the bone that allows the passage of nerves and blood vessels.

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19
Q

What is a tuberosity?

A

A large rounded projection on a bone, typically where muscles or ligaments attach.

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20
Q

What is a fossa?

A

A shallow depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface.

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21
Q

What is a foramen?

A

A hole in a bone that allows the passage of nerves and blood vessels.

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22
Q

What is a condyle?

A

A rounded end of a bone that articulates with another bone. (End of the bone where cartilage is)

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23
Q

What is a process in bone markings?

A

A bony prominence or projection on a bone.

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24
Q

What is the role of bone markings?

A

To provide attachments for muscles and ligaments, and to form joints.

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25
What is the purpose of compensation filters in radiography?
To produce images with even or uniform exposure when imaging anatomic structures that vary significantly in tissue thickness and density. ## Footnote Compensation filters help in achieving consistent image quality by compensating for differences in tissue density.
26
What are the most common materials used in compensation filters?
Wedge made of Aluminum and high-density plastic.
27
What are the three types of compensation filters?
* Wedge * Trough * Boomerang
28
What is a wedge filter?
The simplest and most common type of compensation filter, used to even out exposure in areas of varying thickness.
29
What is a trough filter?
A collimator-mounted aluminum filter with a double wedge, used for AP projections of the thoracic spine and AP chest.
30
What is a boomerang filter?
A contact filter used for AP projections of the shoulder and lateral projections of facial bones.
31
What is the working principle of compensation filters?
They filter out a portion of the primary beam toward the thinner or less dense part of the body, ensuring even exposure across the image.
32
Where should the thicker part of a compensation filter be placed?
Toward the thinner part of the anatomy being imaged.
33
What is the Supertech Wedge filter used for?
AP projections of the hips, knees, and ankles.
34
What is the Ferlic filter used for?
Lateral projections of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s technique) and axiolateral projections (Danelius-Miller method).
35
What are the three types of muscular tissue that affect motion in radiography?
* Smooth (involuntary) * Cardiac (involuntary) * Striated (voluntary)
36
What is involuntary motion?
Motion caused by internal bodily functions, such as heart pulsation, peristalsis, tremors, or spasms.
37
What is the primary method of reducing involuntary motion in radiography?
Controlling the length of exposure time (shorter exposure times reduce motion blur).
38
What is voluntary motion?
Motion caused by the patient’s conscious or unconscious actions, such as nervousness, discomfort, or fear.
39
How can voluntary motion be controlled during imaging?
By giving clear instructions, providing patient comfort, adjusting support devices, and applying immobilization techniques.
40
What are some causes of involuntary motion?
* Heart pulsation * Chills * Peristalsis * Tremors * Spasms * Pain
41
What are some causes of voluntary motion?
* Nervousness * Discomfort * Excitability * Mental illness * Fear * Age * Breathing
42
What is the effect of motion on radiographic images?
Motion can cause blurring, reducing the clarity and diagnostic quality of the image.
43
What is an artifact in radiography?
Any unwanted object or mark on the radiographic image that can obscure or mimic pathology.
44
What should be removed from the region being imaged to prevent artifacts?
Any foreign objects or clothing that may obscure the image.
45
What is the primary responsibility of a radiographer?
To produce diagnostic images by administering ionizing radiation and ensuring each radiation exposure is 'as low as reasonably achievable' (ALARA).
46
What are the two main types of registered technologists (RT)?
* RT(R)(ARRT) - Radiography * RT(T)(ARRT) - Radiation therapy.
47
What is the role of the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)?
ASRT defines the scope of practice for radiography, describes the necessary education and certification, and maintains the standards of practice for radiologic technologists.
48
What should a radiographer do to prepare the radiographic room before a procedure?
Keep the room clean, ensure the radiographic table is cleaned after each patient, and maintain stock. The room should be prepared before the patient arrives.
49
Why is it important to explain the procedure to the patient before beginning?
To make the patient comfortable, gain their cooperation, and calmly explain any discomfort or unpleasantness that may occur during the procedure.
50
What should a radiographer do if they notice a potentially serious condition on a radiograph?
Notify the radiologist before the patient is released and tactfully advise the patient that the referring physician will receive the report soon.
51
What are the guidelines for patient clothing during a radiographic procedure?
Patients should wear a gown that allows exposure of the body region under examination. Unexamined parts should be covered with a sheet for privacy and warmth.
52
What is the purpose of gonadal shielding in radiography?
To protect the gonads from radiation exposure when they lie within or close to the primary x-ray field, provided the clinical objective of the examination is not compromised.
53
What are the two types of gonadal shields?
* Flat contact shields (useful for simple recumbent studies) * Shaped contact shields (best for male gonadal shielding in oblique, lateral, and erect positions).
54
What is the working principle of compensation filters?
They filter out a portion of the primary beam toward the thinner or less dense part of the body being imaged, ensuring even exposure across the image.
55
What are the most common materials used in compensation filters?
* Aluminum * High-density plastic.
56
What are the three types of compensation filters?
* Wedge (most common) * Trough * Boomerang.
57
What are the three types of muscular tissue that affect motion in radiography?
* Smooth (involuntary) * Cardiac (involuntary) * Striated (voluntary).
58
What are some causes of involuntary motion?
* Heart pulsation * Chills * Peristalsis * Tremors * Spasms * Pain.
59
What are some causes of voluntary motion?
* Nervousness * Discomfort * Excitability * Mental illness * Fear * Age * Breathing.
60
What should be removed from the region to be radiographed to prevent artifacts?
* Radiopaque objects such as zippers * Necklaces * Snaps * Thick elastic * Buttons * Dentures * Removable bridgework * Earrings * Hairpins.
61
Why should diapers be removed for abdominal, hip, and pelvis imaging in infants?
Diapers and diaper rash ointment can cause artifacts on the image.
62
What should be done with surgical dressings before imaging?
Examine them for radiopaque substances and obtain permission to remove them if necessary. Protect open wounds with sterile gauze if dressings are removed.
63
What is the importance of removing jewelry before imaging?
Jewelry can create radiopaque artifacts that obscure anatomy or mimic pathology.
64
What should be done with patient clothing to prevent artifacts?
Ensure clothing is free of folds, snaps, or metal fasteners, and use smooth, non-starched gowns.
65
What is the effect of artifacts on radiographic images?
Artifacts can obscure anatomy, mimic pathology, or reduce the overall quality of the image, leading to diagnostic errors.
66
What should a radiographer do if artifacts are noticed on an image?
Repeat the image after ensuring all radiopaque objects have been removed and the patient is properly positioned.
67
What are the three types of joints based on the tissue that separates them?
* Fibrous joints (Synarthrotic) * Cartilaginous joints (Amphiarthrotic) * Synovial joints (Diarthrotic).
68
What are fibrous joints?
Joints separated by fibrous tissue, immovable (e.g., sutures in the skull).
69
What are cartilaginous joints?
Joints separated by cartilage, slightly movable (e.g., intervertebral discs).
70
What are synovial joints?
Joints separated by synovial fluid, freely movable (e.g., knee, shoulder).
71
What are the two ways to classify joints?
* Functional (based on mobility): Synarthroses, Amphiarthroses, Diarthroses. * Structural (based on tissue binding): Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial.
72
What are the three types of fibrous joints?
* Syndesmosis (slightly movable) * Suture (immovable) * Gomphosis (immovable).
73
What are the two types of cartilaginous joints?
* Symphysis (slightly movable) * Synchondrosis (immovable).
74
What are the six types of synovial joints?
* Gliding (Plane) * Hinge (Ginglymus) * Pivot (Trochoid) * Ellipsoid (Condyloid) * Saddle (Sellar) * Ball-and-Socket (Spheroid).
75
What is a syndesmosis joint?
A fibrous joint that is slightly movable, united by sheets of fibrous tissue (e.g., tibiofibular joint).
76
What is a gomphosis joint?
An immovable joint in the roots of teeth, held in place by periodontal ligaments.
77
What are cartilaginous joints?
Joints united by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage, slightly movable (e.g., intervertebral discs).
78
What is a symphysis joint?
A cartilaginous joint that is slightly movable, joined by a pad of fibrocartilage (e.g., pubic symphysis).
79
What is a synchondrosis joint?
An immovable cartilaginous joint, united by rigid cartilage (e.g., epiphyseal plate).
80
What is a synovial joint?
A freely movable joint with a joint capsule, synovial fluid, and articular cartilage.
81
What is the function of synovial fluid?
To reduce friction between bones and allow smooth movement.
82
What is a meniscus in a synovial joint?
A pad of fibrocartilage that acts as a shock absorber.
83
What is a bursae?
A synovial fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between skin, bones, tendons, and muscles.
84
What is a fracture?
A disruption of the integrity of a bone (break).
85
What is a closed fracture?
A fracture that does not break the skin.
86
What is an open fracture?
A serious fracture that breaks the skin.
87
What is a nondisplaced fracture?
A fracture where the bone retains normal alignment.
88
What is a displaced fracture?
A serious fracture where the bone is not aligned.
89
What does anterior/ventral mean?
Toward the front of the body.
90
What does posterior/dorsal mean?
Toward the back of the body.
91
What does superior mean?
Above or toward the head.
92
What does inferior mean?
Below or toward the feet.
93
What does lateral mean?
Away from the midline of the body.
94
What does medial mean?
Toward the midline of the body.
95
What does palmar refer to?
The palm of the hand (anterior surface).
96
What does plantar refer to?
The sole of the foot (posterior surface).
97
What does dorsal refer to?
The top or anterior portion of the foot (dorsum pedis).
98
What is the upright position?
The patient is standing or sitting upright.
99
What is the supine position?
The patient is lying on their back.
100
What is the prone position?
The patient is lying on their stomach.
101
What is the lateral decubitus position?
The patient is lying on their side, and the central ray is horizontal.
102
What is the Trendelenburg position?
The patient is lying on their back with the head lower than the feet.
103
What is the Fowler position?
The patient is lying on their back with the head elevated.
104
What is the RAO (Right Anterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s right side is touching the receptor.
105
What is the LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s left side is touching the receptor.
106
What is an AP (Anteroposterior) projection?
The central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior surface.
107
What is a PA (Posteroanterior) projection?
The central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior surface.
108
What is an axial projection?
A projection with a longitudinal CR angulation of 10° or more.
109
What is the difference between AP and PA projections?
In AP, the central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior. In PA, the central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior.
110
What is inversion?
Inward turning of the foot at the ankle.
111
What is pronation?
Rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces downward.
112
What is supination?
Rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces upward.
113
What is abduction?
Movement of a body part away from the central axis of the body.
114
What is adduction?
Movement of a body part toward the central axis of the body.
115
What is hyperextension?
Forced or excessive extension of a limb or joint.
116
What is a compression fracture?
A fracture where the bone is compressed, often seen in the vertebrae.
117
What is a greenstick fracture?
An incomplete fracture where the bone bends and cracks, common in children.
118
What is a spiral fracture?
A fracture where the bone is twisted apart, often caused by a twisting force.
119
What is a comminuted fracture?
A fracture where the bone is broken into multiple pieces.
120
What is an impacted fracture?
A fracture where the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other.
121
What does cephalad mean?
Toward the head.
122
What does caudad mean?
Toward the feet.
123
What does ipsilateral mean?
On the same side of the body.
124
What does contralateral mean?
On the opposite side of the body.
125
What does superficial mean?
Near the surface of the body.
126
What does deep mean?
Far from the surface of the body.
127
What does proximal mean?
Near the point of attachment or origin.
128
What does distal mean?
Away from the point of attachment or origin.
129
What does dorsiflexion mean?
Bending or flexion of the foot upward toward the leg.
130
What does plantarflexion mean?
Bending or flexion of the foot downward, away from the leg.
131
What is the left lateral decubitus position?
The patient is lying on their left side, and the central ray is horizontal.
132
What is the right lateral decubitus position?
The patient is lying on their right side, and the central ray is horizontal.
133
What is the dorsal decubitus position?
The patient is lying on their back, and the central ray is horizontal.
134
What is the ventral decubitus position?
The patient is lying on their stomach, and the central ray is horizontal.
135
What is the RAO (Right Anterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s right side is touching the receptor, and the body is rotated.
136
What is the LAO (Left Anterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s left side is touching the receptor, and the body is rotated.
137
What is the RPO (Right Posterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s right side is touching the receptor, and the body is rotated posteriorly.
138
What is the LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position?
The patient’s left side is touching the receptor, and the body is rotated posteriorly.
139
What is a lateral projection?
The central ray enters one side of the body and exits the opposite side.
140
What is a mediolateral projection?
The central ray enters the medial side and exits the lateral side.
141
What is a lateromedial projection?
The central ray enters the lateral side and exits the medial side.
142
What is an oblique projection?
The central ray enters the body at an angle, not perpendicular.
143
What is a tangential projection?
A projection where the central ray 'skims' the profile of the anatomy.
144
What is a craniocaudal projection?
The central ray enters the head and exits toward the feet.
145
What is a caudocranial projection?
The central ray enters the feet and exits toward the head.
146
What is the difference between PA and AP projections?
In PA, the central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior. In AP, the central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior.
147
What is circumduction?
Circular movement of a limb.
148
What is tilt?
Tipping or slanting a body part slightly in relation to the long axis of the body.
149
What is deviation?
Turning away from the regular standard or course.
150
What is extension?
Straightening of a joint.
151
What is flexion?
Bending of a joint.
152
What is hyperflexion?
Forced overflexion of a limb or joint.
153
What is radial deviation?
Movement of the hand toward the radial side (thumb side).
154
What is ulnar deviation?
Movement of the hand toward the ulnar side (pinky side).
155
What is an acanthioparietal projection?
A projection used for imaging the skull, where the central ray enters at the acanthion and exits the parietal bone.
156
What is elevation?
Movement of a body part upward (e.g., shrugging the shoulders).
157
What is depression?
Movement of a body part downward (e.g., lowering the shoulders).
158
What is opposition?
Movement of the thumb to touch the tips of the other fingers.
159
What is reposition?
Movement of the thumb back to its anatomic position after opposition.
160
What is eversion?
Outward turning of the foot at the ankle.
161
What is protraction?
Movement of a body part forward (e.g., protraction of the jaw).
162
What is retraction?
Movement of a body part backward (e.g., retraction of the jaw).
163
What is a tangential projection?
A projection where the central ray 'skims' the surface of the anatomy to profile a specific structure.
164
What is an axiolateral projection?
A projection where the central ray is angled along the axis of the body part (e.g., axiolateral hip).
165
What is a transthoracic projection?
A projection where the central ray passes through the thorax to image structures like the shoulder.
166
What is the left lateral position?
The patient is lying on their left side, and the central ray is perpendicular to the image receptor.
167
What is the right lateral position?
The patient is lying on their right side, and the central ray is perpendicular to the image receptor.
168
What is the recumbent position?
The patient is lying down in any position (e.g., supine, prone, lateral).
169
What does dorsum refer to?
The back of the hand or foot.
170
What does parietal refer to?
The wall of a cavity (e.g., parietal pleura lines the chest wall).
171
What does visceral refer to?
The covering of an organ (e.g., visceral pleura covers the lungs).
172
What does external mean?
Outside the body or structure.
173
What does internal mean?
Inside the body or structure.
174
What is a transverse fracture?
A fracture where the break is straight across the bone, typically caused by a direct blow.
175
What is an oblique fracture?
A fracture where the break is at an angle to the bone, often caused by a twisting force.
176
What is a stress fracture?
A small crack in the bone caused by repetitive force or overuse.
177
What is a pathological fracture?
A fracture caused by a disease that weakens the bone, such as osteoporosis or cancer.
178
What is the functional classification of joints based on?
Mobility (e.g., synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses).
179
What is the structural classification of joints based on?
The type of tissue that binds the articulation (e.g., fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial).
180
What is a suture joint?
An immovable fibrous joint found only in the skull, where bones are interlocked and held together by strong connective tissue.
181
What is a gomphosis joint?
An immovable fibrous joint where teeth are held in the alveolar socket by periodontal ligaments.
182
What is the strongest type of joint in the body?
Fibrous joints, because they are immovable and united by strong fibrous tissue.
183
What is the function of fibrous joints?
To provide stability and strength, especially in areas where movement is not required (e.g., skull sutures).
184
What is the function of cartilaginous joints?
To allow slight movement while providing stability and shock absorption (e.g., intervertebral discs).
185
What is the difference between symphysis and synchondrosis joints?
Symphysis joints are slightly movable (e.g., pubic symphysis), while synchondrosis joints are immovable (e.g., epiphyseal plate).
186
What is the function of articular cartilage in synovial joints?
To allow smooth movement by reducing friction between bones.
187
What is the role of synovial fluid in synovial joints?
To lubricate the joint, reduce friction, and nourish the articular cartilage.
188
What is a bursa in a synovial joint?
A fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between bones, tendons, and muscles.
189
What is a comminuted fracture?
A fracture where the bone is broken into multiple pieces, often caused by high-impact trauma.
190
What is a greenstick fracture?
An incomplete fracture where the bone bends and cracks, commonly seen in children.
191
What does central mean in anatomical terms?
Toward the middle or center of the body.
192
What does peripheral mean in anatomical terms?
Away from the center or toward the outer part of the body.
193
What does visceral refer to in anatomical terms?
The covering of an organ (e.g., visceral pleura covers the lungs).
194
What is a fracture where the bone is twisted apart called?
A fracture caused by a twisting force.
195
What is the difference between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion?
Dorsiflexion is bending the foot upward toward the leg, while plantarflexion is bending the foot downward away from the leg.
196
What is the difference between inversion and eversion?
Inversion is turning the foot inward at the ankle, while eversion is turning the foot outward at the ankle.
197
What is the difference between supine and prone positions?
Supine is lying on the back, while prone is lying on the stomach.
198
What is the difference between recumbent and decubitus positions?
Recumbent is lying down in any position, while decubitus is lying down with the central ray horizontal.
199
What is the difference between RAO and LAO positions?
RAO is right anterior oblique (right side touching the receptor), while LAO is left anterior oblique (left side touching the receptor).
200
What is the difference between RPO and LPO positions?
RPO is right posterior oblique (right side touching the receptor), while LPO is left posterior oblique (left side touching the receptor).
201
What is the difference between AP and PA projections?
In AP, the central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior, while in PA, the central ray enters the posterior and exits the anterior.
202
What is the difference between mediolateral and lateromedial projections?
Mediolateral enters the medial side and exits the lateral, while lateromedial enters the lateral side and exits the medial.
203
What is the difference between axial and tangential projections?
Axial uses a longitudinal CR angulation of 10° or more, while tangential 'skims' the profile of the anatomy.
204
What is the difference between craniocaudal and caudocranial projections?
Craniocaudal enters the head and exits toward the feet, while caudocranial enters the feet and exits toward the head.
205
Why is a PA projection preferred for chest imaging?
It reduces magnification of the heart and provides a clearer image of the lungs.
206
What does body habitus determine in relation to internal organs?
Body habitus determines the shape, position, and movement of internal organs, such as the heart, lungs, and diaphragm.
207
What structures form the thoracic cavity?
The thoracic cavity is bounded by the sternum, 12 pairs of ribs, and the vertebral column.
208
What are the three separate chambers of the thoracic cavity?
* Pericardial cavity * Right pleural cavity * Left pleural cavity
209
What are the main organs of the thoracic cavity?
* Lungs * Heart * Respiratory system organs * Cardiovascular system organs * Lymphatic system organs * Esophagus * Thymus gland
210
What are the components of the respiratory system?
* Pharynx * Trachea * Larynx * Bronchi * Two lungs
211
What is the structure of the trachea?
The trachea is a fibrous muscular tube with C-shaped cartilaginous rings that are incomplete posteriorly.
212
What is the bronchial tree?
The branching system of airways in the lungs, including primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles.
213
What is the function of the lungs?
The lungs are the site of respiration, where gaseous exchange occurs between the air and the bloodstream.
214
What is the hilum of the lung?
The hilum is a depression in the mediastinal border of the lung that accommodates the bronchi, pulmonary blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves.
215
What is the primary muscle of inspiration and expiration?
The diaphragm, which moves inferiorly during inspiration and superiorly during expiration.
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What are the costophrenic angles?
The most inferior lateral margins of the lungs that descend into the costodiaphragmatic recess during inspiration.
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What are the general procedural guidelines for chest radiography?
* Patient preparation * General patient position * Image receptor (IR) size * Collimation * SID * Identification markers * Radiation protection
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What should be removed during patient preparation for chest radiography?
All radiopaque objects, such as jewelry and clothing artifacts, that could cause artifacts on the image.
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What is the recommended IR size for chest radiography?
14 x 17 inches (35 x 43 cm) is commonly used, but the smallest IR that demonstrates the anatomy should be used.
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Why is it important to include right or left side markers on chest radiographs?
To ensure correct identification of the side being imaged and to avoid diagnostic errors, especially in cases of anatomic variations like situs inversus.
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What are the technical factors for chest radiography?
High mA and short exposure time to minimize motion and ensure sharp images.
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How can breast tissue affect chest radiography?
Superimposition of breast tissue may obscure the lower lungs, so breasts should be positioned to the side or lifted outward to improve visualization.
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Why are breathing instructions critical in chest radiography?
Proper breathing ensures maximum lung expansion, which is essential for clear imaging of the lungs and diaphragm.
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What are the essential projections for chest radiography?
* PA * AP * Lateral * PA oblique * AP oblique * AP axial
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What is the patient position for a PA chest projection?
Standing or seated upright, facing the IR, with shoulders rolled forward and hands on hips.
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What structures are shown in a PA chest projection?
* The trachea * Lungs * Diaphragmatic domes * Heart * Aortic arch * Vascular markings
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What are the evaluation criteria for a PA chest projection?
* Proper collimation * No rotation * Sharp outlines of the heart and diaphragm * Visible pulmonary vascular markings
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What is the patient position for a lateral chest projection?
Standing or seated upright, with the left or right side closest to the IR, arms raised and crossed overhead.
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What structures are shown in a lateral chest projection?
* The heart * Aorta * Pulmonary lesions * Interlobar fissures * Lobes of the lungs
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What are the evaluation criteria for a lateral chest projection?
* No rotation * Sharp outlines of the heart and diaphragm * Visible pulmonary vascular markings
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What should be visible in a lateral chest projection?
The entire lungs from the apices to the costophrenic angles, with no rotation or tilt.
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What is the patient position for a PA oblique chest projection?
Upright, standing or seated, in a 45° left or right anterior oblique (LAO or RAO) position.
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What structures are shown in a PA oblique chest projection?
The maximum area of the lung field on the elevated side, along with thoracic viscera.
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What are the evaluation criteria for a PA oblique chest projection?
* Proper collimation * No rotation * Visible pulmonary vascular markings
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What is the patient position for an AP oblique chest projection?
Upright, standing or seated, in a 45° left or right posterior oblique (LPO or RPO) position.
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What structures are shown in an AP oblique chest projection?
The maximum area of the lung field on the dependent side, along with thoracic viscera.
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What is the difference between AP and PA oblique projections?
In AP oblique, the side of interest is closest to the IR, while in PA oblique, the side of interest is farthest from the IR.
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What is body habitus?
Body habitus refers to the common variations in the size, shape, and position of internal organs based on the body type of an individual.
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What are the characteristics of a hypersthenic body habitus?
* High and nearly transverse heart * Short lungs with apices near the clavicles * High diaphragm * Short, broad, and deep thorax
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What is the shape of the heart in a hypersthenic body habitus?
The heart is high and nearly transverse.
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How does the diaphragm appear in a hypersthenic body habitus?
The diaphragm is high.
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What are the characteristics of a sthenic body habitus?
* Moderate appearance of structures * Heart is moderately transverse * Lungs are of moderate length * Diaphragm is moderately high
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What is the most common body habitus?
The sthenic body habitus is the most common, representing about 50% of the population.
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What are the characteristics of an asthenic body habitus?
* Nearly vertical heart at the midline * Long lungs with apices above the clavicles * Low diaphragm * Long and shallow thorax
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How does the heart appear in an asthenic body habitus?
The heart is nearly vertical and located at the midline.
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What is the shape of the thorax in an asthenic body habitus?
The thorax is long and shallow.
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What are the characteristics of a hyposthenic body habitus?
* Intermediate characteristics between sthenic and asthenic * Heart is slightly vertical * Lungs are moderately long * Diaphragm is moderately low
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How does the hyposthenic body habitus compare to sthenic and asthenic?
Hyposthenic is intermediate, with characteristics that fall between sthenic (moderate) and asthenic (frail).
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How does body habitus affect the position of the heart?
* Hypersthenic: Heart is high and transverse. * Sthenic: Heart is moderately transverse. * Asthenic: Heart is nearly vertical. * Hyposthenic: Heart is slightly vertical.
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How does body habitus affect the position of the lungs?
* Hypersthenic: Lungs are short with apices near the clavicles. * Sthenic: Lungs are of moderate length. * Asthenic: Lungs are long with apices above the clavicles. * Hyposthenic: Lungs are moderately long.
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How does body habitus affect the position of the diaphragm?
* Hypersthenic: Diaphragm is high. * Sthenic: Diaphragm is moderately high. * Asthenic: Diaphragm is low. * Hyposthenic: Diaphragm is moderately low.
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How does body habitus affect the shape of the thorax?
* Hypersthenic: Thorax is short, broad, and deep. * Sthenic: Thorax is moderately shaped. * Asthenic: Thorax is long and shallow. * Hyposthenic: Thorax is moderately shaped.
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What is the diaphragm position in hypersthenic body habitus?
Diaphragm is high.
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What is the diaphragm position in sthenic body habitus?
Diaphragm is moderately positioned.
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What is the diaphragm position in asthenic body habitus?
Diaphragm is low.
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What is the diaphragm position in hyposthenic body habitus?
Diaphragm is moderately low.
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How does body habitus affect the shape of the thorax?
Hypersthenic: Thorax is short, broad, and deep. Sthenic: Thorax is moderately shaped. Asthenic: Thorax is long and shallow. Hyposthenic: Thorax is moderately shaped.
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Why is body habitus important in radiography?
It determines the shape, position, and movement of internal organs, affecting image interpretation and exposure factors.
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How does body habitus affect radiographic exposure factors?
Hypersthenic: May require higher exposure factors due to thicker tissue. Asthenic: May require lower exposure factors due to thinner tissue.
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What is the most challenging body habitus for radiography?
Hypersthenic body habitus can be challenging due to the high diaphragm and broad thorax.
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How does body habitus affect the size of the heart?
Hypersthenic: Heart appears larger and more transverse. Asthenic: Heart appears smaller and more vertical.
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How does body habitus affect the size of the lungs?
Hypersthenic: Lungs are shorter. Asthenic: Lungs are longer.
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What is the trachea?
The trachea is a fibrous muscular tube that extends from the larynx to the bronchi.
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What are the C-shaped cartilaginous rings in the trachea?
They are incomplete posteriorly and provide structural support to keep the trachea open.
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Where does the trachea begin and end?
Begins at the level of C6 and extends to T4-T5, bifurcating into the primary bronchi.
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What is the carina?
The carina is the hook-like ridge at the bifurcation of the trachea.
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What is the length and diameter of the trachea?
Approximately 4.5 inches (11 cm) long and 0.5 inches (1.3 cm) in diameter.
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What are serous membranes?
Thin, slippery membranes that line the thoracic cavities and cover the organs.
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What is the pleura?
The pleura is the serous membrane that covers the lungs.
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What is the pericardium?
The pericardium is the serous membrane that covers the heart.
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What is the pleural space?
The potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura containing lubricating fluid.
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What is the bronchial tree?
The branching system of airways that extends from the trachea to the alveoli.
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What are the primary bronchi?
The first branches of the trachea leading to the right and left lungs.
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Why is the right primary bronchus more prone to foreign body aspiration?
It is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left.
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What are the alveoli?
Tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs.
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What is the function of the bronchioles?
They carry air to the alveoli for gas exchange.
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What should be removed during patient preparation for chest radiography?
All radiopaque objects, such as jewelry and clothing artifacts.
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Why is it important to secure patient possessions during preparation?
To prevent interference with the image from radiopaque objects.
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What should be done if a patient has large pendulous breasts?
Ask the patient to lift the breasts up and outward.
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What is the general patient position for chest radiography?
The patient should be upright or seated erect.
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What is the preferred position for chest radiography?
The PA (posteroanterior) position.
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What should be done if a patient cannot sit upright?
A decubitus position may be used.
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What is the recommended SID for chest radiography?
72 inches (183 cm).
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Why is a long SID used for chest radiography?
To reduce magnification of the heart.
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What is the effect of a shorter SID on chest radiography?
Increases magnification of the heart.
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What is the SID for AP chest radiography?
Typically 40 inches (102 cm).
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What is the SID for lateral chest radiography?
72 inches (183 cm).
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What is the SID for oblique chest radiography?
72 inches (183 cm).
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What is the SID for AP axial chest radiography?
72 inches (183 cm).