Procedures Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What medications can be given via SC injection?

A

LMWH and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what angle do you pierce the skin for a SC injection?

A

45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 4 causes of tachycardia?

A

anxiety, supraventricular tachycardia, hypovolaemia, hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 4 causes of bradycardia?

A

healthy athletic individuals, atrioventricular block, medications, sick sinus syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a cause of bradypnoea?

A

opiate overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a cause of tachypnoea?

A

acute asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are causes of low specific gravity in urine?

A

conditions that result in the production of dilute urine such as diabetes insipidus and acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are causes of raised specific gravity in urine?

A

Conditions that result in the production of strong urine dehydration, glycosuria (e.g. diabetes mellitus) and proteinuria (e.g. nephrotic syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes raised nitrites in urine?

A

Nitrites are a breakdown product of gram-negative organisms such as E.Coli: UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can altered levels of urobilinogen in the urine be caused by?

A

The presence of increased levels of urobilinogen in the urine can be caused by haemolysis (e.g. haemolytic anaemia, malaria).
Low levels of urobilinogen can be caused by biliary obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does raised leukocyte esterase in urine indicate?

A

Leukocyte esterase is an enzyme produced by neutrophils and therefore, when positive, it indicates the presence of white cells in the urine:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is right axis deviation associated with?

A

right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a prolonged PR interval suggest?

A

AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a first degree heart block?

A

a fixed prolonged PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is second degree heart block also known as?

A

Mobitz typwe 1 heart block or Wenckebach phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are typical ECG findings in Mobitz type 1 AV block?

A

include progressive prolongation of the PR interval until eventually the atrial impulse is not conducted and the QRS complex is dropped
AV nodal conduction resumes with the next beat and the sequence of progressive PR interval prolongation and the eventual dropping of a QRS complex repeats itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a delta wave on an ECG?

A

A delta wave is slurring of the upstroke of the QRS complex. This occurs because the action potential from the SAN is able to conduct to the ventricles very quickly through the accessory pathway, and thus the QRS occurs immediately after the P wave, making the delta wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What could be a cause of a tall QRS complex on an ECG?

A

vetricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can isolated Q waves indicate?

A

they can be normal

they can indicate a previous MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does ST depression show?

A

ST depression ≥ 0.5 mm in ≥ 2 contiguous leads indicates myocardial ischaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some causes of tall T waves?

A

Hyperkalaemia (“tall tented T waves”)

Hyperacute STEMI

22
Q

What may flattened T waves represent on a ECG?

A

Flattened T waves are a non-specific sign, that may represent ischaemia or electrolyte imbalance.
These become larger the slower the bradycardia

23
Q

What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 represent?

24
Q

A patient is noted to have an abnormally shortened PR-interval on their ECG. What is the most likely cause?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

25
What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 represent?
lateral
26
What would it suggest if lead I became more positive than lead II and lead III became negative?
left axis deviation
27
What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 represent?
anterior
28
What view of the heart do leads II, III and aVF represent?
inferior
29
Name all 4 views of the heart and the corresponding leads.
Septal - V1 and V2 Anterior - V3 and V4 Inferior - II III avF Lateral - I avL V5 V6
30
What may ST depression be caused by?
ischaemia
31
What might hypercalaemia show up on an ECG?
short QT
32
What may a prominent U wave on a ECG be caused by?
hypokalaemia
33
What can S1Q3T3 be caused by?
PE
34
What may pericarditis show up on the ECG?
PR depression and saddle shape ST interval
35
What is the FEV1/FEV ratio in obstructive disease?
reduced because FEV1 is low but FEV is normal
36
What is the FEV1/FEV ratio in restrictive disease?
normal because both FEV1 and FEV are reduced
37
Give some examples of obstructive lung disease
asthma, COPD, bronchiestasis, CF
38
Give some examples of restrictive lung disease
obesity, spinal abnormalities such as kyphosis, ILD, pulmonary fibrosis
39
Which side does the trachea deviate to with a pneumothorax?
away from the pneumothorax
40
What may a flat diaphragm indicate on a CXR?
COPD
41
What does blunting of costphrenic angles on a CXR show?
pleural effusion
42
What is the meniscus sign?
crescent shape costophrenic angle on CXR
43
What can a meniscus sign indicate?
pleural effusion
44
Describe the CXR findings of a patient with heart failure
``` Alveolar shadowing B-lines Cardiomegaly Diversion of blood to upper lobe Effusion ```
45
What may a stable chronic COPD patient ABG result show?
``` pH normal O2 low CO2 high bicarb high resp failure type 2 fully compesated respiratory acidosis ```
46
What may a patient hyperventilating show on an ABG blood test?
``` pH high (alkalosis) O2 high CO2 low bicarb normal respiratory alkalosis lungs overdrive ```
47
What may a heaving apex beat indicate?
aortic stenosis
48
What may a narrow pulse pressure indicate?
aortic stenosis
49
What are some symptoms of aortic stenosis?
syncope, exertional dysponea, angina
50
What are signs of mitral regurgitation?
AF, thrusting displaced apex beat, pulmonary hypertension, palpitations
51
Where might a mitral regurgitation murmur radiate to?
left axilla