PSTAR Flashcards
learn to fly airplne (145 cards)
1
Q
What is the order of right-of-way for different aircraft types
A
anyone having an emergency
balloons
gliders
airships
aircraft that is towing an object
power driven heaver than air aircraft
2
Q
When two aircraft are converging at the same altitude (far enought that its not dangerous) what should they do
A
Aircraft that has the other on its right gives way
3
Q
When two aircraft are converging with danger of a collision, what should they do
A
both alter heading to the right
4
Q
When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position, at your altitude, what should you do
A
alter heading to the right
5
Q
Two aircraft are on approach to land, who should give way
A
whoever has the higher altitude
6
Q
What does a series of green flashes mean on the ground and in the air?
A
Air: return for landing
Ground: cleared to taxi
7
Q
What does a steady red light mean on the ground and in the air?
A
Air: give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Ground: stop
8
Q
What does a series of red flashes mean on the ground and in the air?
A
Air: airport unsafe, do not land
Ground: taxi clear of landing area, its in use
9
Q
What does a steady green light mean on the ground and in the air?
A
Air: cleared to land
Ground: cleared for take-off
10
Q
What does a flashing white light mean on the ground?
A
Return to starting point on the airport
11
Q
What does it mean when runway lights are blinking
A
vacate the runway immediately
12
Q
What do chrome yellow and black strips on pylons or on the roof of a building signify?
A
fur farm
13
Q
Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than
A
2000ft AGL
14
Q
When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the manufacturer’s name or the type of aircraft, followed by registration as:
A
Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
15
Q
When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-FBSQ should transmit the registration as
A
Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Québec.
16
Q
After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions?
A
The aircraft type, and the first two letters of the registration if initiated by ATS.
17
Q
On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the
A
manufacturer’s name or type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.
18
Q
why is ATIS normally provided
A
to relieve frequency congestion.
19
Q
Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the
A
ATIS phonetic identifier.
20
Q
Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor ______ and 121.5 MHZ, when practical and not in communication on the MF or ATF frequency.
A
126.7 MHz
21
Q
En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on
A
121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver.
22
Q
MF (mandatory frequency) procedures such as frequency, distance and altitude to follow are given in the
A
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).
23
Q
Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the
A
aerodrome traffic.
24
Q
Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of
A
123.2 MHz.
25
If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until
beyond the specified distance or altitude.
26
Ground control authorizes “golf alpha bravo charlie taxi runway 29 hold short of runway 04”. The pilot should acknowledge this by replying:
“golf alpha bravo charlie to hold short of 04”.
27
A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to
taxi to the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.
28
When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall
taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
29
A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2 o’clock, 5 miles, eastbound”. This information indicates the traffic is
60° to the right, altitude unknown.
30
A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “cleared to land, turn right at the first intersection”. The pilot should
land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.
31
The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is
mayday, mayday, mayday.
32
The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is
pan pan, pan pan, pan pan.
33
What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?
mayday (once), hello all stations (three times), this is (the call sign of the station transmitting the message, the filing time of the message, the call sign of the station in distress (once)), seelonce feenee, out.
34
A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until
clear of the Control Zone.
35
You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then
inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.
36
A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by
transmitting the aircraft call sign.
37
An initial call to Timmins FSS should be:
timmins radio this is...’
38
who provides flight planning services
FIC (flight info centre)
39
where are NOTAMs available
at all flight information centres (FIC)
40
A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” is valid
until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.
41
The term “EST” in the End Time in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid until
until a cancelling (NOTAMC) or replacing (NOTAMR) is issued.
42
ATC advises that your radio transmissions are readability three this means that your transmissions are
readable with difficulty.
43
What is an aerodrome
any area of land, water, or ice used for arrival, departure, servicing of aircraft
44
what is an airport
aerodrome with a certification
45
A dry Transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of
at least 15 kt
46
No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
the operator of the airport.
47
Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
white “Xs” on runways and yellow “Xs” on taxiways.
48
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
09
49
The east end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
27
50
The north end of a runway oriented north and south is numbered
18
51
The south end of a runway oriented north and south is numbered
36
52
Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should normally hold
200ft from the edge of the runway
53
The manoeuvring area of an airport is
used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
54
Except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than
2000ft AGL
55
Except for ultra-light aeroplanes and balloons, which documents shall be carried on board when flying a radio equipped Canadian privately registered aircraft?
Flight Authority (Certificate of Airworthiness or Flight Permit).
Certificate of Registration.
Crew licences.
Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent document.
Aircraft journey log book, where it is planned that the aircraft will land and shutdown at any location other than the point of departure.
Proof of liability insurance.
56
Taking into account seasonal climatic variations and geographical area, private aeroplanes and helicopters flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require
specified emergency supplies be carried. (fire, shelter, purifying water, visual distress signal)
57
A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft
when carrying passengers at night
58
What are the rules for oxygen masks
10,000ft ASL to 13,000 longer than half an hour you need oxygen for all crew and 10% (or 1) of the passengers, above 13,000 you need for everyone. (so basically dont go above 10,000 if you dont have any oxygen masks)
59
No person shall fly an unpressurized aircraft for more than . . . . . at an altitude between 10,000 and 13,000 feet ASL unless there is readily available to each flight crew member, an oxygen mask and a supply of oxygen.
30mins
60
What safety equipment must be available to each person on board a single-engine aircraft which is taking off from or landing on water?
An approved life preserver.
61
The International VHF Emergency Frequency is
121.5 mHz
62
No pilot shall take off from or land at an aerodrome at night unless the
aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.
63
The CARs define an infant passenger as a person
under 2 years of age
64
When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall be
held securely in the arms of the responsible person whose safety belt shall be fastened.
65
Which flight instrument systems and equipment are required on power driven aircraft for day VFR flight?
A magnetic direction indicating system or magnetic compass
an airspeed indicator.
an altimeter.
a time piece.
66
If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of a large aircraft, the pilot should
decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.
67
The controller offers the option for a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for takeoff.
68
A pilot requests an intersection take-off from ATC. If authorized,
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for takeoff.
69
When an arriving aircraft is cleared “to the circuit”, the pilot should interpret this to mean join the circuit
on the downwind leg at circuit height.
70
When a NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing information it should maintain
at least 500 feet above circuit height.
71
An aircraft is “cleared to the circuit” where a left hand circuit is in effect. Without further approval from ATC a right turn may be made to
join crosswind or a partial right turn to join the downwind leg.
72
When instructed to continue an approach to a runway which is clear of traffic, what action should the pilot take if no landing clearance is received?
Request landing clearance.
73
No person shall operate an aircraft in VFR flight within controlled airspace unless
(a) the aircraft is operated with visual reference to the surface;
(b) flight visibility is not less than three miles;
(c) the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than 500 feet vertically and one mile horizontally; and
(d) where the aircraft is operated within a control zone,
(i) when reported, ground visibility is not less than three miles, and
(ii) except when taking off or landing, the distance of the aircraft from the surface is not less than 500 feet.
74
A NOTAM has been published for an airport, which is 400 feet ASL, stating the circuit height is 1,500 feet ASL. When the ceiling is 1,000 overcast and the visibility is 3 miles, the circuit height in controlled airspace should be
500 feet below the cloud base.
75
When the reported ceiling is 1,000 feet overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR, an aircraft cleared to the circuit must join
at 500 feet below cloud base.
76
Aircraft flying VFR normally join the circuit at 1,000 feet AAE. This may not always be possible because of
(1) the possibility of a “straight in” clearance to the airport in which case the final leg would normally be entered at less than 1,000 feet.
(2) the existence of a NOTAM which provides for a different circuit altitude.
(3) weather conditions which may necessitate a circuit height lower than 1,000 feet.
77
A pilot on final approach is requested by ATC to reduce airspeed. The pilot should
comply, giving due consideration to safe minimum manoeuvring speed of the aircraft.
78
A pilot is cleared to land but is concerned about the high crosswind component. The pilot should
overshoot and request an into-wind runway.
79
what are the maximum crosswind and tailwind components for arrivals and departures?
The maximum effective crosswind component considered in
determining runway selection is 25 kt for arrivals and departures
on DRY runways, and 15 kt on WET (or with trace contamination) runways. The maximum
effective tailwind component is 5 kt.
80
A pilot on a VFR flight is being vectored by ATC towards an extensive unbroken layer of cloud. The responsibility for remaining VFR rests with
the pilot.
81
A student pilot on a VFR flight has been given a radar vector by ATC. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid overcast cloud condition. The pilot should
alter heading as necessary to remain VFR and advise ATC.
82
An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for a “straight in” approach. Because of low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
of the pilot
83
A pilot on a Special VFR flight has been cleared to the circuit. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid layer of stratus cloud. Remaining clear of cloud is the responsibility of
the pilot.
84
A pilot on a VFR flight in Class C airspace is advised by ATC to maintain a specific heading. In the pilot’s opinion, this heading will cause conflict with another aircraft. The pilot should
alter heading to avoid the other aircraft and advise ATC.
85
Unless ATC instructs otherwise, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ..... feet ASL and code ..... when flying above that altitude.
12,500, 1400.
86
Pilots shall activate the transponder “ident” feature
only when instructed to do so by ATC
87
The holder of a student pilot permit may for the sole purpose of the holder’s own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft
by day VFR only and authorized by a supervising flight instructor.
88
The PIC of an aircraft shall comply with any light signals or ground marking prescribed in the CARs
at all times provided safety is not jeopardized.
89
Before setting out on any VFR flight, a pilot is required to
be familiar with all available information appropriate to the flight.
90
Avoiding wake turbulence is the responsibility of
the pilot
91
Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air dissipates after how long?
may persist for 5 minutes or more.
92
During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will
dissipate very slowly.
93
The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach to land
beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
94
Wake turbulence is produced by
all fixed and rotary wing aircraft.
95
Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
with rotation.
96
Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately
following take-off
97
What does NOT cause wing tip vorticies
jet wash
98
Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is
heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
99
A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices
similar to wing tip vortices.
100
Do the size and weight of the helicopter have a direct influence on the intensity of the vortices?
yeah
101
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off? A light crosswind
could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.
102
A flight crew member aware of being under a physical disability that might invalidate licence issue or renewal shall
not commence a flight as a crew member.
103
What is the recommended treatment for hyperventilation below 8,000 feet?
Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute.
104
Damage to the ear drum in flight is most likely to occur
during a descent.
105
Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for
24 hours.
106
A pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least the next
48 hours
107
Any pilot who has had a general anaesthetic should not act as a flight crew member
unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.
108
Any pilot who has had a local anaesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next
24 hrs.
109
Relatively small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia (lack of sufficient oxygen). This tolerance ______ with increase of altitude.
deteriorates
110
Many common drugs such as cold tablets, cough mixtures, antihistamines and other over-thecounter remedies may seriously impair the judgement and co-ordination needed while flying. The safest rule is to
take no medicine when you plan to fly, except on the advice of a Civil Aviation Medical Examiner.
111
The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot 40 years old and over is valid, in Canada, for a period of
24 months.
112
The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot under 40 years of age is valid, in Canada, for a period of
60 months.
113
The amount of fuel and oil carried on board any helicopter at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, to provide for foreseeable delays having been considered, to fly to the destination aerodrome,
and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.
114
The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller-driven aeroplane at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, having regard to the meteorological conditions and foreseeable delays that are expected in flight, to fly to the destination aerodrome
and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
115
If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filedfor flights proceeding ..... NM or more from the point of origin.
25
116
After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed, the pilot shall report the arrival to the appropriate ATS unit within
60 minutes.
117
When there is a deviation from a VFR flight plan, ATC shall be notified of such deviation
as soon as possible.
118
Where no search and rescue initiation time is specified in a flight itinerary, when shall the pilot report to the “responsible person”?
Within 24 hours after the expiration of the estimated duration of the flight specified in the flight itinerary.
119
With regard to a flight itinerary, the “responsible person” means an individual who
has agreed to report the aircraft overdue.
120
Where a VFR flight plan has been filed, an arrival report must be filed by the pilot by
advising an ATS unit.
121
Estimated elapsed time A to B
1 hour 15 minutes.
Estimated stopover time at B
30 minutes.
Estimated elapsed time B to C
1 hour 20 minutes.
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “Elapsed Time” box of a VFR flight plan?
3 hours 05 minutes.
122
When filing a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered is the total
elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.
123
How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?
By repeating the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the ‘Route’ column.
124
An ATC instruction must be
complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
125
An ATC clearance requires
compliance when accepted by the PIC.
126
A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with, should
comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advise ATC as soon as possible.
127
After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot be complied with, a pilot should
take any immediate action required and advise ATC as soon as possible.
128
An ATC clearance or instruction is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction,
the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
129
If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should
refuse the clearance and inform ATC of their intentions.
130
In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on
immediately and left on.
131
An aircraft’s 121.5 MHz ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime
during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.
132
Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft’s ELT is not transmitting by
listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.
133
All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the
nearest ATS unit.
134
When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft’s movement must be restricted and
it must not be left unattended.
135
When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing
should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.
136
An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should
hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until it is well past the aerodrome.
137
The take-off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for
1200ft
138
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least
600ft
139
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least
450ft
140
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for
200ft
141
A 45 kt blast area can be expected ..... behind the propellers of a large turbo-prop aeroplane during taxi.
60ft
142
ATC advises that simultaneous operations are in progress at an airport. Pilots in the circuit could expect a clearance to
land and hold short of an intersecting runway.
143
ADIZ rules normally apply to
all aircraft
144
When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown
(1) clear of aerodrome traffic zones.
(2) clear of control zones.
(3) with visual reference to the surface.
145
