Psychopathology Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
What are the three core criteria for diagnosing Intellectual Developmental Disorder?
A
Deficits in intellectual functioning, deficits in adaptive functioning, and onset during the developmental period.
2
Q
What is the most common chromosomal cause of Intellectual Developmental Disorder?
A
Down’s syndrome, followed by fragile X syndrome.
3
Q
What is the most common preventable prenatal cause of Intellectual Developmental Disorder?
A
Fetal alcohol syndrome.
4
Q
What are the two core symptom domains for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
A
Deficits in social communication and interaction, and restricted/repetitive behaviors, interests, or activities.
5
Q
What is a good prognosis indicator for ASD?
A
IQ over 70, functional language by age 5, and absence of comorbid mental health issues.
6
Q
What are common brain abnormalities associated with ASD?
A
Enlarged brain volume, abnormalities in cerebellum, corpus callosum, and amygdala.
7
Q
Which neurotransmitter levels are abnormal in ASD and how?
A
Low serotonin in the brain, high serotonin in the blood.
8
Q
What are the diagnostic criteria for ADHD?
A
Persistent inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity for at least 6 months, onset before age 12, present in 2+ settings.
9
Q
What brain regions show abnormalities in children with ADHD?
A
Prefrontal cortex, striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen), thalamus, amygdala, and cerebellum.
10
Q
What neurotransmitters are linked to ADHD?
A
Low levels of dopamine and norepinephrine.
11
Q
What distinguishes Tourette’s Disorder from other tic disorders?
A
Presence of both motor and vocal tics for more than 1 year, with onset before age 18.
12
Q
What is a key brain abnormality associated with Tourette’s Disorder?
A
Smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus and dopamine overactivity.
13
Q
What is the treatment of choice for childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering)?
A
Habit reversal training, especially regulated breathing.
14
Q
What are the subtypes of Specific Learning Disorder?
A
With impairment in reading, written expression, or mathematics.
15
Q
What is the most common type of dyslexia?
A
Dysphonic dyslexia (also called phonological dyslexia).
16
Q
What are the five characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia?
A
Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms.
17
Q
What are the criteria for diagnosing schizophrenia?
A
Two or more characteristic symptoms for at least one month, with at least one being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech; and continuous signs of disturbance for at least six months.
18
Q
What is the revised dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?
A
Positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions; negative symptoms are due to hypoactivity in cortical regions.
19
Q
What are common brain abnormalities in schizophrenia?
A
Enlarged ventricles and hypofrontality (low activity in the prefrontal cortex).
20
Q
What is anosognosia and why is it important in schizophrenia?
A
Lack of insight into one’s illness, associated with non-adherence to treatment and higher relapse risk.
21
Q
What is expressed emotion and how does it relate to schizophrenia?
A
High levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement from family; linked to increased relapse risk.
22
Q
What factors are associated with a better prognosis in schizophrenia?
A
Female gender, later onset, acute onset, presence of mood symptoms, good premorbid adjustment.
23
Q
What is the difference between brief psychotic disorder and schizophreniform disorder?
A
Brief psychotic disorder lasts at least 1 day but less than 1 month; schizophreniform lasts at least 1 month but less than 6 months.
24
Q
What distinguishes schizoaffective disorder from schizophrenia?
A
Schizoaffective disorder includes mood episodes (depressive or manic) concurrent with schizophrenia symptoms, and delusions or hallucinations for 2+ weeks without mood symptoms.
25
What are the subtypes of delusional disorder?
Erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, and somatic.
26
What is NAVIGATE and whom does it help?
A team-based early intervention for first-episode psychosis, including CBT, family education, supported employment, and medication.
27
What antipsychotic is most effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
Clozapine.
28
What distinguishes bipolar I disorder from bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode; bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode.
29
What are the three types of mood episodes used to diagnose bipolar and depressive disorders?
Manic, hypomanic, and major depressive episodes.
30
What is the most effective treatment for classic bipolar disorder?
Lithium.
31
What are atypical features of bipolar disorder?
Mood reactivity plus at least two of the following: increased appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, rejection sensitivity.
32
What are common brain abnormalities in bipolar disorder?
Structural and functional abnormalities in the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, hippocampus, and basal ganglia.
33
What distinguishes mania from ADHD in children?
Mania includes elation, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, flight of ideas, and hypersexuality.
34
What are common neurotransmitters involved in bipolar disorder?
Norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate.
35
What is persistent depressive disorder?
Chronic depression lasting at least two years in adults (one year in children) with fewer symptoms than major depressive disorder.
36
What are the key symptoms of major depressive disorder?
Depressed mood or loss of interest plus at least four other symptoms for at least two weeks.
37
What is the cognitive triad in Beck’s theory of depression?
Negative views about the self, the world, and the future.
38
What is seasonal affective disorder (SAD) and how is it treated?
A subtype of depression occurring in winter; treated with phototherapy.
39
What is the most effective treatment for severe or treatment-resistant depression?
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
40
What neurotransmitter and hormonal abnormalities are linked to major depressive disorder?
Low serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine; HPA axis hyperactivity and elevated cortisol.
41
What are the first-line psychotherapies for peripartum depression?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy.
42
What is the difference between fear and anxiety?
Fear is an emotional response to a real or perceived imminent threat, while anxiety is anticipation of a future threat.
43
What are the diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorder?
Excessive fear of separation lasting at least 4 weeks in children or 6 months in adults, causing distress or impairment.
44
What is the first-line treatment for specific phobia?
Exposure therapy, especially in vivo exposure with response prevention.
45
What theory explains specific phobia development via classical and operant conditioning?
Mowrer’s two-factor theory.
46
What is social anxiety disorder?
Fear of social situations involving possible scrutiny, with avoidance or intense distress and symptoms lasting 6+ months.
47
What is the most effective treatment for panic disorder?
Panic control treatment, combining interoceptive exposure and CBT.
48
What are the core diagnostic criteria for agoraphobia?
Marked fear/anxiety about 2+ situations (e.g., open spaces, public transport) due to fear of escape being difficult.
49
What distinguishes GAD from normal worry?
GAD involves excessive worry about multiple topics for 6+ months, difficult to control, and causes impairment.
50
What brain regions are implicated in GAD?
Prefrontal cortex, amygdala, anterior cingulate cortex, posterior parietal cortex, and hippocampus.
51
What is the first-line treatment for GAD?
Cognitive-behavior therapy, often combined with SSRIs or SNRIs.
52
What are the core components of OCD?
Obsessions (intrusive thoughts) and/or compulsions (repetitive behaviors) that are time-consuming or impair functioning.
53
What is the first-line psychological treatment for OCD?
Exposure and response prevention (ERP).
54
What brain regions are overactive in OCD?
Caudate nucleus, orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate gyrus, and thalamus.
55
What medication types are effective for OCD?
SSRIs and tricyclic clomipramine.
56
What distinguishes OCD from obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?
OCD involves distressing obsessions/compulsions; OCPD involves a general preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control without true obsessions or compulsions.
57
What are the four symptom clusters for PTSD?
Intrusion, avoidance, negative changes in mood or cognition, and alterations in arousal and reactivity.
58
What is the minimum duration of symptoms for PTSD diagnosis?
More than one month.
59
What are common brain abnormalities in PTSD?
Hyperactive amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex, hypoactive ventromedial prefrontal cortex, and reduced hippocampal volume.
60
What neurotransmitters are involved in PTSD?
Increased dopamine, norepinephrine, and glutamate; decreased serotonin and GABA.
61
What are first-line psychological treatments for PTSD in adults according to APA?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy, prolonged exposure, cognitive processing therapy, and cognitive therapy.
62
What distinguishes acute stress disorder from PTSD?
Duration of symptoms is 3 days to 1 month for acute stress disorder.
63
What is the required time frame for diagnosis of prolonged grief disorder?
At least 12 months in adults or 6 months in children after the death.
64
What is reactive attachment disorder?
Emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers with a history of extreme insufficient care.
65
What is disinhibited social engagement disorder?
Overly familiar behavior with strangers due to a history of insufficient care.
66
What are the types of dissociative amnesia?
Localized, selective, generalized, systematized, and continuous.
67
What are the core features of depersonalization/derealization disorder?
Persistent or recurrent experiences of detachment from self or surroundings with intact reality testing.
68
What defines somatic symptom disorder?
One or more distressing somatic symptoms plus excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
69
What are the three clusters of personality disorders?
Cluster A (odd/eccentric), Cluster B (dramatic/emotional/erratic), Cluster C (anxious/fearful).
70
What disorders are in Cluster A?
Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal Personality Disorders.
71
What disorders are in Cluster B?
Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic Personality Disorders.
72
What disorders are in Cluster C?
Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorders.
73
What are the core features of Borderline Personality Disorder?
Instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions; impulsivity; fear of abandonment; recurrent suicidal behavior.
74
What treatment has the most evidence for treating Borderline Personality Disorder?
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT).
75
What is the key feature of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Disregard for and violation of the rights of others, with onset before age 15.
76
How is Schizotypal Personality Disorder different from Schizophrenia?
Schizotypal involves eccentric behavior and cognitive/perceptual distortions without full-blown psychosis.
77
What is the main difference between OCD and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)?
OCD includes true obsessions/compulsions; OCPD involves perfectionism and control without distressing obsessions.
78
What is the main treatment approach for personality disorders?
Psychotherapy, especially cognitive-behavioral and psychodynamic therapies.
79
What are the three main eating disorders in the DSM-5?
Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge-eating disorder.
80
What are the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?
Restriction of energy intake, significantly low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in self-perceived weight or shape.
81
What are the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa?
Restricting type and binge-eating/purging type.
82
What are common physical complications of anorexia nervosa?
Bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis.
83
What distinguishes bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa, binge/purge type?
Individuals with bulimia nervosa are typically within or above normal weight range.
84
What is the most common electrolyte imbalance in bulimia nervosa?
Hypokalemia (low potassium).
85
What is the key feature of binge-eating disorder?
Recurrent episodes of binge eating without regular compensatory behaviors.
86
What is the most effective treatment for bulimia nervosa?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
87
What pharmacological treatment is FDA-approved for bulimia nervosa?
Fluoxetine (Prozac).
88
What is the primary focus of treatment for anorexia nervosa?
Weight restoration and addressing cognitive distortions about body image.
89
What are the four groups of criteria used to diagnose a substance use disorder?
Impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria (tolerance and withdrawal).
90
What is tolerance?
A need for markedly increased amounts of the substance or a markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount.
91
What is withdrawal?
A syndrome caused by the cessation or reduction in substance use that has been heavy and prolonged.
92
What is the difference between substance use disorder and substance-induced disorder?
Substance use disorder refers to the problematic pattern of use; substance-induced disorders include intoxication, withdrawal, and substance-induced mental disorders.
93
Which substances commonly cause life-threatening withdrawal?
Alcohol, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates.
94
What is the treatment of choice for opioid overdose?
Naloxone (Narcan).
95
What medication is used for opioid maintenance treatment?
Methadone or buprenorphine.
96
What are FDA-approved medications for alcohol use disorder?
Naltrexone, acamprosate, and disulfiram.
97
What medication reduces alcohol craving and blocks reward effects of alcohol?
Naltrexone.
98
What is motivational interviewing and how is it used in treating substance use disorders?
A client-centered approach that enhances intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence.
99
What are the three categories of neurocognitive disorders in DSM-5?
Delirium, major neurocognitive disorder, and mild neurocognitive disorder.
100
What is delirium?
A disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period and tends to fluctuate in severity.
101
What are common causes of delirium?
Medical illness, substance intoxication or withdrawal, or medication side effects.
102
What is the hallmark of major neurocognitive disorder (NCD)?
Significant cognitive decline that interferes with independence in everyday activities.
103
What distinguishes mild NCD from major NCD?
Mild NCD involves modest cognitive decline that does not interfere with independence.
104
What are the core features of Alzheimer's disease?
Insidious onset and gradual progression of impairment in one or more cognitive domains, especially memory.
105
What brain changes are characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?
Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, especially in the hippocampus and temporal lobes.
106
What is the most common initial symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
Impaired recent memory.
107
What medications are used to slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease?
Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil) and NMDA receptor antagonists (e.g., memantine).
108
What is the defining feature of vascular neurocognitive disorder?
Cognitive decline associated with cerebrovascular events; often has a stepwise progression.
109
What differentiates Lewy body dementia from Alzheimer's?
Fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, and Parkinsonism.
110
What is frontotemporal dementia characterized by?
Early changes in personality, behavior, and/or language rather than memory.
111
What defines a paraphilic disorder according to DSM-5?
A paraphilia that causes distress, impairment, or involves harm or risk of harm to others.
112
What are the main types of paraphilic disorders?
Voyeuristic, exhibitionistic, frotteuristic, sexual masochism, sexual sadism, pedophilic, fetishistic, and transvestic disorders.
113
What is voyeuristic disorder?
Sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity.
114
What is exhibitionistic disorder?
Sexual arousal from exposing one’s genitals to an unsuspecting person.
115
What is frotteuristic disorder?
Sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person.
116
What is sexual masochism disorder?
Sexual arousal from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer.
117
What is sexual sadism disorder?
Sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another person.
118
What is pedophilic disorder?
Sexual arousal involving prepubescent children, typically age 13 or younger.
119
What is the minimum age and age difference required to diagnose pedophilic disorder?
The individual must be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the child.
120
What treatments are used for paraphilic disorders?
CBT, relapse prevention, aversive conditioning, and antiandrogens (e.g., medroxyprogesterone acetate).
121
What is gender dysphoria?
Distress due to a mismatch between one’s experienced or expressed gender and assigned gender.
122
What are the diagnostic criteria for gender dysphoria in children?
A strong desire to be of another gender or insistence that one is another gender, lasting at least 6 months, with at least 6 additional symptoms.
123
What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for diagnosis of gender dysphoria?
At least 6 months.
124
What is the primary treatment approach for gender dysphoria?
Affirmative care, including psychotherapy and possible medical interventions such as hormone therapy or surgery.
125
What is the minimum duration required for diagnosing a sexual dysfunction?
Symptoms must be present for at least 6 months and cause significant distress.
126
What is erectile disorder?
Difficulty obtaining or maintaining an erection or marked decrease in erectile rigidity.
127
What is female sexual interest/arousal disorder?
Lack or significant reduction in sexual interest/arousal in females.
128
What is genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder?
Persistent or recurrent difficulties with vaginal penetration, pain during intercourse, fear or anxiety about pain, or tensing of pelvic muscles.
129
What is delayed ejaculation?
Marked delay in or infrequency or absence of ejaculation.
130
What are effective treatments for sexual dysfunctions?
CBT, sex therapy (e.g., sensate focus), medical treatments (e.g., PDE5 inhibitors for ED).
131
What are the core features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)?
Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months.
132
How is the severity of ODD specified?
Mild (one setting), moderate (two settings), or severe (three or more settings).
133
What distinguishes Conduct Disorder (CD) from ODD?
CD involves more severe behaviors such as aggression toward people/animals, destruction of property, deceit/theft, and serious rule violations.
134
What is the age criterion for Conduct Disorder diagnosis?
Behavior must be present before age 18.
135
What are the subtypes of Conduct Disorder based on onset?
Childhood-onset, adolescent-onset, and unspecified onset.
136
What is the most significant predictor of antisocial personality disorder in adulthood?
Childhood-onset type Conduct Disorder.
137
What are key features of Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED)?
Recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, out of proportion to the stressor.
138
What is the age criterion for IED diagnosis?
Chronological age of at least 6 years (or equivalent developmental level).
139
What treatments are supported for ODD and CD?
Parent management training, multisystemic therapy, and CBT.
140
What interventions are recommended for IED?
CBT, SSRIs, and anger management techniques.
141
What are the two main elimination disorders in the DSM-5?
Enuresis and Encopresis.
142
What is enuresis?
Repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes, involuntary or intentional, at least twice a week for 3 months or resulting in distress/impairment.
143
What is the minimum age for enuresis diagnosis?
Chronological age of at least 5 years or equivalent developmental level.
144
What are the subtypes of enuresis?
Nocturnal only, diurnal only, and nocturnal and diurnal.
145
What is encopresis?
Repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places, involuntary or intentional, at least once a month for 3 months.
146
What is the minimum age for encopresis diagnosis?
Chronological age of at least 4 years or equivalent developmental level.
147
What are the subtypes of encopresis?
With constipation and overflow incontinence, and without constipation and overflow incontinence.
148
What are effective treatments for enuresis?
Bell-and-pad (urine alarm), bladder training, reinforcement, and desmopressin.
149
What are effective treatments for encopresis?
Medical management of constipation and behavioral interventions like toilet training and reinforcement.
150
What are the major categories of sleep-wake disorders in DSM-5?
Insomnia, hypersomnolence, narcolepsy, breathing-related, circadian rhythm, parasomnias, and substance/medication-induced.
151
What is the most common sleep-wake disorder?
Insomnia disorder.
152
What are the diagnostic criteria for insomnia disorder?
Difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening, occurring at least 3 nights/week for 3 months.
153
What is the first-line treatment for insomnia disorder?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I).
154
What are the symptoms of narcolepsy?
Irresistible sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations.
155
What is cataplexy?
Sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions, often seen in narcolepsy.
156
What neurotransmitter is deficient in narcolepsy?
Hypocretin (orexin).
157
What are the types of circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorders?
Delayed sleep phase, advanced sleep phase, irregular sleep-wake type, non-24-hour sleep-wake type, shift work type.
158
What are parasomnias?
Abnormal behaviors or physiological events occurring during sleep or sleep-wake transitions, e.g., sleepwalking, night terrors.
159
What differentiates non-REM sleep arousal disorders from nightmares?
Non-REM disorders involve incomplete awakening with no dream recall; nightmares occur during REM sleep and are vividly remembered.
160
What is malingering?
Intentional production or exaggeration of symptoms for external gain (e.g., avoiding work, obtaining drugs).
161
How is malingering different from factitious disorder?
Malingering is motivated by external incentives, while factitious disorder is motivated by a desire to assume the sick role.
162
What is factitious disorder imposed on self?
Falsification of physical or psychological signs or symptoms without obvious external incentives.
163
What is factitious disorder imposed on another?
Falsification of symptoms in another person, typically a child, for psychological gain.
164
What is the primary goal of treatment in factitious disorder?
Reducing harm and unnecessary medical procedures, with supportive psychotherapy.
165
What are v-codes or z-codes used for?
Conditions that may be the focus of clinical attention but are not mental disorders (e.g., relationship problems, abuse).
166
What is adjustment disorder?
Emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to a stressor, occurring within 3 months and resolving within 6 months after the stressor ends.
167
How is adjustment disorder different from PTSD?
Adjustment disorder is a response to a less severe stressor and does not include the specific symptom clusters of PTSD.
168
What is unspecified mental disorder?
A diagnosis used when symptoms cause distress or impairment but do not meet full criteria for a specific disorder.
169
When should a clinician use 'other specified' vs. 'unspecified' disorders?
'Other specified' is used when the clinician chooses to communicate the reason the presentation does not meet criteria; 'unspecified' is used when the clinician does not specify the reason.
