Public health Flashcards

Question

Rule for transportation of animals slaughtered on farm?

Answer 1

Must be refrigerated if transport takes >2h

Answer 2

Verbal Escalates if non-compliance not corrected to written advice and formal notices Referral for investigation

Answer 3

``` Auditing FBO responsibilities Welfare investigations Reporting of notifiable diseases to APHA Inspection - FCI, AM for fit/unfit for slaughter, PM for fit/unfit for human consumption Residue sampling Lab testing ```

Answer 4

No longer a fit and proper person No longer competent to carry out the operations which the CoC authorises Has failed to comply with any provision of the EU Regulation or WATOK Has been convicted of an offence under any animal welfare legislation

Answer 5

Applied by the OV when official controls have not identified any deficiencies that would make the meat unfit for human consumption Undergone AM and PM inspection and fit for human consumption

Answer 6

No AM and/or PM inspection Loss of traceability Presence of SRM Contamination or gross pathology Residues or contaminants are suspected Water supply found to be contaminated and a risk to public health exists Animals suffering from a notifiable disease Meat declared by OV as unfit for human consumption No adequate inspection facilities rendering contamination or gross pathology inconspicuous

Answer 7

``` Chilling: - red meat: 7C - white meat: 4C - offal: 3C Freezing: -20C (internal -12C?) ```

Answer 8

Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, horses Also wild game, farmed salmon/trout, eggs, honey, milk Random selection but some exceptions Fitness state not affected Kidney, kidney fat, liver, muscle, blood and urine EU requirement Number determined by the VMD Vet medicines, pesticides and heavy metals

Answer 9

Member states with controlled risk of BSE: - All ages - tonsils, last 4m of SI, caecum, mesentery - >12mo - skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord Member states with negligible risk of BSE: - >12mo - skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord

Answer 10

>12mo or permanent incisor erupted: - skull, including brain and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord (not horns) Same for goats

Answer 11

Detain carcass and passport Keeper has 48h to correct Report and/or enforce if necessary If complete loss of traceability, animal killed and disposed of Lapses without loss of traceability: OV reports to local authority, trading standards department

Answer 12

Stop entry of animals Stop slaughter Isolate suspects and potentially contaminated carcasses If suspicion can't be ruled out: - restriction notice closing establishment - collect whatever samples are necessary for diagnostic purposes If negative results: meat released If positive: disposal of affected meat, cleaning and disinfection and in some cases premises rested for a period

Answer 13

Acute - petechial haemorrhages widespread, fevered carcass and LNs almost black Chronic - necrotic skin lesions and ulcers in the intestine If suspected, must not enter slaughter line - VO at APHA must be notified immediately

Answer 14

Bacillus anthracis Forms resistant spores that can survive for many years Infection via ingestion and inhalation (and cutaneous e.g. skin wounds) Sudden death following septicaemia <24h - take samples and diagnose, should not enter slaughter line! PM: spleen grossly enlarged and dark, extensive petechiae, blood clots, dark blood

Answer 15

``` Brucella abortus Abortion in late pregnancy High rate of infertility Inflammation of testes and epidydimis Swelling of scrotum Oedematous placenta and foetus Hygromas on the knees, stifles, hock and angle of the haunch and between the nuchal ligament and the primary thoracic spines ```

Answer 16

Slaughtered separately Hook should be used in handling the uterus and udder Employees should wear gloves and avoid accidental cuts Decision: - Meat from animals with lesions indicating acute infection: unfit - No lesions but reacting positively or inconclusively to test: udder, genital tract and blood unfit

Answer 17

Oncovirus in family retroviridae >3 years ? tumours other than papillomata or haemangiomata, or of swollen lymph nodes Young normally sporadic leukosis If <2 permanent incisors: - no further action apart from recorded If >3 permanent incisors: - VO carry investigation so OV detains: samples of tumourous swollen lymph nodes/carcass or offals, carcass and offal doesn't need to be detained pending results if no other changes

Answer 18

To assess: - pathology - presence of SRM - contamination SRM/faeces etc - gross pathology - evidence for residues or contaminants

Answer 19

Infection by consumption of undercooked meat | Life threatening to mild symptoms in 5-20 days

Answer 20

If instantaneously core of meat >62.2C Freezing (instead of testing): minimum is -18C for 106h, max is -37C for 0.5h Cold treatment is not an alternative for the testing of wild boar or solipeds (only for domestic pigs)

Answer 21

- 7C for at least 3 weeks | - 10C for at least 2 weeks

Answer 22

Uraemia with severe pyelonephritis Ketosis with fatty change in the liver Hold carcase for 24h and check by boiling/frying test Unfit for human consumption if smell still present

Answer 23

Most common malignancy of cattle Cause unknown Young cattle 6mo - 2yo Multicentric: all LNs massively enlarged and replaced by white homogenous tumour tissue Thymic lymphosarcoma: large swelling in cardiac and cervical parts of the thymus Unfit for human consumption

Answer 24

``` Mild type (diamonds on skin, poss bacteraemia) - depends on lesions Acute or septicaemic - total rejection Chronic (arthritis, endocarditis, enlarged LNs) - local or total rejection depending on severity and extension of the lesions ```

Answer 25

``` Jaundice Septicaemia Pyaemia Emaciation Toxaemia Viraemia Malignant tumours White muscle disease Hydrocachexia ```

Answer 26

Partial rejection

Answer 27

Partial rejection | Depending on extent/localisation of callus could imply welfare issue at farm

Answer 28

Partial rejection

Answer 29

Thickened, laminated outer membrane and filled with clear fluid Scolices develop from the inner lining of the cyst and form 'hydatid sand'

Answer 30

One or multiple localised cyst (viable or non viable) - reject affected organ/parts, cold storage of remainder Generalised non viable (caseous/calcified) - reject affected organs/parts, cold storage of remainder Generalised viable - reject carcass and offal

Answer 31

24h in advance

Answer 32

Delayed eviscerated poultry, geese and ducks raised for foie gras Animals slaughtered at the place of production Wild game

Answer 33

Smaller poultry >1.5% | Larger poultry >2.5%

Answer 34

Holding: - >2000 broilers or - >500 turkeys - >250 hens - >350 laying chickens for class A eggs and not supplying final consumer/local retailers Organic or slow growing (>81 days broilers, 100 days turkeys) is 6 weeks PM Breeding (<250) test every 3 weeks (chickens, turkeys) or eggs 4 weeks Laying chicks: adults 22-26wo and every 15 weeks, pullets 2 weeks before moving to laying unit (between 14-17wo) Samples from flocks needed within a 3 week period prior to slaughter: - boot swab sample - dust sample - faecal sample Official sampling by APHA or DARD if: - all your flocks after your previous set of flocks texted positive - no evidence of testing or where National control scheme (NCP) rules haven't been followed

Answer 35

Retain affected batch(es) and slaughter at the of the production day After slaughter, undertake full cleansing and disinfection of all equipment and machinery

Answer 36

750cm squared/bird Minimum height of 45cm Inc facilities for perching, nesting and scratching

Answer 37

<1.6kg: 180-200 cm2/kg 1.6-3kg: 160cm2/kg 3-5kg: 115cm2/kg >5kg: 105cm2/kg

Answer 38

Turkey or goose: 2 minutes | Other birds: 90 seconds

Answer 39

90 days Killing and where live animals are present - unloading, lairage, stunning Should be available to FSA Authorised Officers

Answer 40

Pneumonia and airsacculitis Haemorrhage Oedema and discolouration

Answer 41

Septicaemia/toxaemia - very prevalent Mechanical damage - normally result of poor functioning of the poultry plant machinery, FBO must be informed by OV if not already identified the problem

Answer 42

OV must give written advice to FBO after each incident A WEN should be served to slow down the line if it is due to line speed, shortage of slaughter men or lack of rotation Referred for investigation if >3/3 month, enforcement record issues or series of incidents

Answer 43

Traceability - Reg (EC) 178/2002 | Hygiene requirements Reg 852/2004 including T, HACCP, transport

Answer 44

Inspected at AM by OV or approved veterinarian (AV) within 3 days of slaughter Bodies accompanied by: - veterinary health certificate - FCI - humane slaughter declaration from the FBO - if >2h transport: refrigerated

Answer 45

Hunters declaration/documentation Pre-processing FBA should examine carcass prior to entry into processing area: death other than hunting, extensive contamination, HACCP

Answer 46

``` Approved by FSA OV Duties include: - verification of the hunter's status as a trained person (ex. copy of certificate) - HACCP in place - approved protocols for handling ABP ```

Answer 47

Ear tags (TB order) and passports - DEFRA herd number, or British Deer Farmers Association (BDFA) herd registration number - animal's own unique number Breeder FCI with: - identity - veterinary products/treatments administered inc dates and withdrawal periods

Answer 48

``` FSA approved training Registered as food business with LA Knowledge of abnormal characteristics Abnormal behaviour: - Non apprehensive towards humans - Aggression - Isolation from herd - Locomotive difficulties - Head tilt - Abnormal gait - Abnormal posture ex. bird with neck flexed and opening beak and wings - Slow at escape Environmental contamination: - pollution - heavy metals - phytosanitary treatments Other abnormalities: - diarrhoea exc waterfowl ```

Answer 49

``` Parasites CWD Tumour Infection 0 Lyme disease, Louping ill, pigeon paramyxovirus Toxaemia ```

Answer 50

Muscle bulk - highly active animals but no nutritional support - lean vs emaciated Mucosae Natural orificesTraumatic lesions - raging, systemic repercussions

Answer 51

``` Odour Colour Gas Perforation Oedema/transudate/exudate Haemorrhages Adherences, parasites If abnormal: must accompany the carcass ```

Answer 52

Farmed game - same as non game species, visual only for rabbits and ostriches Wild game - either an MHI or OV is required for PM inspection, OV will visit at least once a month

Answer 53

Farmed - deer, partridge, pheasant, red grouse, quail, breeding boar Wild game - deer, pheasant, partridge Large game - kidney, kidney fat, liver and muscle Small game - entire oven ready carcass of bird, passed as fit for human consumption, traceable

Answer 54

Head and diaphragm

Answer 55

OV must notify APHA

Answer 56

If batch uniform and same species and source: minimum of 5% | Batches <20: 100%

Answer 57

6.5 x 4.5cm high Letters 0.8cm high Figures at least 1cm

Answer 58

4C small wild game | 7C large wild game

Answer 59

``` E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Chlaydophila psittaci (handling) Lead shot (consumption) ```

Answer 60

``` E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Clostridium botulinum Lead shot (consumption) ```

Answer 61

``` E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Mycobacterium bovis ```

Answer 62

``` Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Lead shot (consumption) ```

Answer 63

``` African Swine Fever Anthrax Aujeszky’s disease Classical Swine Fever FMD Rabies Swine Vesicular Disease Teschen Vesicular stomatitis ```

Answer 64

``` Foot and mouth disease Bovine tuberculosis Bluetongue Epizootic haemorrhagic virus disease CWD ```

Answer 65

``` Transmission: body fluids (faeces, saliva, blood, urine) Incubation: 18-24 months Fatal in cervids Clinical signs: - poor body condition - separation from herd - difficulty swallowing - drooling - increased thirst and urination - nervousness and excitement - lowering of head, stumble - apathy, walk in repeated patterns, tremors, paralysis Post mortem: - serous atrophy of adipose tissue - muscular atrophy - aspiration pneumonia - liquid or frothy ruminal contents Zoonotic risk not confirmed ```

Answer 66

``` Lethargy Vomiting or regurgitation Green diarrhoea Trembling of wings and heads Twisting of the neck Head flicking Anorexia Dyspnea Discharge from eyes and beak Death ~ 3 days ``` Potential zoonosis - very rare, direct contact, mild conjunctivitis

Answer 67

Borrelia burgdorferi | Non-erosive inflammatory arthropathy: arthritis and immune mediated renal failure

Answer 68

``` PISS: Prevalence on chilled carcases Incidence of human disease Severity of human disease Source attribution ```

Answer 69

Campylobacter in poultry Human pathogenic STEC in bovines and ovines/caprines Salmonella enterica in bovines, porcine and poultry Toxoplasma gondii in ovines/caprines Trichinella in solids

Answer 70

Harmonised epidemiological indicators = the prevalence, concentration or incidence of the hazard at a certain stage of the food chain that correlates to a human health risk caused by the hazard

Answer 71

``` Septicaemia Pyaemia Jaundice Emaciation Toxaemia (some exceptions) Viraemia Anaemia Uraemia ```

Answer 72

Head and throat Sub-maxillary, retropharyngeal and parotid lymph nodes - incision External masseters - 2 incisions must be made parallel to mandible Internal masseters - incised along 1 plane Tongue (palpate, and remove to also examine mouth and fauces) Tonsils must be removed Trachea and main branches of bronchi - open lengthways Oesophagus Lungs - palpated, incised in posterior third perpendicular to main axes (if for human consumption) Pericardium and heart - incised lengthways to open ventricles and cut through IVS Diaphragm Liver - palpate, incise gastric surface and base of caudate lobe to examine bile ducts Hepatic and pancreatic lymph - palpation nodes GIT Mesentery Gastric and mesenteric lymph nodes - palpation, incision if necessary Spleen Kidneys - incision if necessary Renal lymph nodes - incision if necessary Pleura and peritoneum Genital organs (except penis if already discarded) Udder and LNs - palpation and incision if necessary, each half of udder must be opened by a long, deep incision as far as the lactiferous sinuses (sinus lactiferes) and the lymph nodes must be incised, except when the udder is excluded from human consumption

Answer 73

Animal held in isolation OV calls duty VO at APHA VO may decide to visit - if suspects ND then serves restrictions, OV follows instructions and informs FVC - if doesn't suspect ND and OV agrees, released for slaughter - if OV doesn't agree, OV calls contractor/FVC If VO decides to not visit, OV calls contractor/FVC If OV satisfied not a ND case, animal released for slaughter If not, calls duty OV again

Answer 74

``` Cattle all ages: - tonsils - intestines from duodenum to rectum - mesentery Cattle >12mo: - skull excluding mandible and including brain and eyes - spinal cord ``` Sheep all ages: - spleen - ileum (60cm of terminal SI starting from ileo-caecal junction) Sheep >12m (or permanent incisor erupted): - skull including brain and eyes (not horns) - tonsils - spinal cord

Answer 75

Category 1: - all body parts of animals suspected/confirmed of being infected by a TSE, or killed due to TSE eradication measures - all body parts of pets, zoo animals and circus animals - all body parts of experimental animals - all body parts of wild animals when suspected of being infected with diseases communicable to humans or animals - specified risk material (SRM) - entire bodies of animals which had not had SRM removed at the time of disposal - products from animals which have had prohibited substances administered or contain residues of environmental contaminants - all animal material collected when treating waste water from category 1 processing plants and other premises in which SRM is removed, including screenings, sludge from drains etc - catering waste from means of transport operating internationally - mixtures of category 1 material with either category 2 material or category 3 material or both - category 1 ABP SRM must be destroyed by incineration or rendering and then incineration at an approved premises) - category 1 non SRM can be rendered and land filled Category 2 = pathologically altered and infectious material - manure and digestive tract content - all animal materials collected when treating waste water from slaughterhouses other than if they are Cat 1 - products of animal origin containing residues of veterinary drugs and contaminants (unless they are cat 1) - products of animal origin, other than cat 1, that are imported from non member countries and fail to comply with veterinary requirements - animals/parts, other than those referred to in article 4, that die other than by being slaughtered for human consumption, including animals killed to eradicate an epizootic disease - mixtures of category 2 material with category 3 material - animal by products other than category 1 or 3 - E.g. Taenia hydatigena, hydatid cysts from Echinococcus granulosus) Category 3 = products not used for human consumption but fit for animal consumption - parts which are fit for human consumption but are not intended for this for commercial reasons - parts rejected as unfit for human consumption but are not affected by any signs of diseases communicable to humans or animals and derive from carcases that are fit for human consumption - hides and skins, hooves and horns, pig bristles and feathers originating from animals that are slaughtered in a slaughterhouse, after undergoing ante-mortem inspection, and were fit, as a result of such inspection, for slaughter for human consumption - blood obtained from animals other than ruminants that are slaughtered in a slaughterhouse, after undergoing ante-mortem inspection, and were fit, as a result of such inspection, for slaughter for human consumption - animal by-products derived from the production of products intended for human consumption, including degreased bones and greaves; - former foodstuffs of animal origin, or former foodstuffs containing products of animal origin, other than catering waste, which are no longer intended for human consumption for commercial reasons or due to problems of manufacturing or packaging defects or other defects which do not present any risk to humans or animals; - raw milk originating from animals that do not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals; - fish or other sea animals, except sea mammals, caught in the open sea for the purposes of fishmeal production; - fresh by-products from fish from plants manufacturing fish products for human consumption; - shells, hatchery by-products and cracked egg by-products originating from animals which did not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals; - blood, hides and skins, hooves, feathers, wool, horns, hair and fur originating from animals that did not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals; - catering waste other than as referred to in Article 4(1)(e). If categories mixed, becomes highest risk

Answer 76

Clinical signs: dehydration, pyrexia, muscle tremors, tachycardia, tachypnoea, depression, congestion, petechia PM findings: - decreased onset of rigor mortis - deficient exsanguination seen as diffuse congestion of subcutaneous blood vessels - fatty degeneration of liver - diffuse lymphadenitis - splenomegaly - jaundice if haemolysis - disseminated petechial haemorrhage if DIC Unfit for transport (welfare) Unfit for human consumption (detect on AM) ABP category 2 (if no SRM present)

Answer 77

PM findings: - diffuse skeletal muscle atrophy with prominent bones - poor onset rigor mortis - oedema (hypoproteinaemia) - serous atrophy of adipose tissue Reduced drug/toxin clearance so even if withdrawals met residues may be present Immunosuppression CNS disturbances Shorter shelf life Further action taken if welfare compromised Unfit for human consumption ABP category 2

Answer 78

Further action if welfare compromised If lesions indicate ongoing septicaemia , whole carcass unfit If localised and no evidence of ongoing septicaemia, rejection of affected tissues

Answer 79

Single intradermal comparative cervical tuberculin skin test - Day 1 - injection of avian (upper, or left if small) and bovine tuberculin (lower) - Day 2 - read test 72 (+/-4)h later Pass/negative: - negative bovine reaction with a positive or negative avian reaction - or positive bovine reaction equal to or less than a positive avian reaction - if entire herd negative, no action taken or retraction may be lifted Inconclusive (retest): - positive bovine reaction no more than 4mm greater than a positive avian reaction - or positive bovine reaction with negative avian reaction where difference is 4mm or less - owner must decide whether to euthanase and test, or retest animal on farm after 60d Reactor/Fail (remove): - positive bovine reaction >4mm greater than a negative or positive avian reaction - isolate, value, slaughter, examine, PM, sample, milk discard - lab tests, culture, molecular methods Se 80% Sp 99.98%

Answer 80

Emergency slaughter certificate TB movement licenses Electronic notification by APHA sent to OV by noon the day before kill

Answer 81

The slaughter should be done separately to avoid contamination of adjacent carcases - last in the day before full cleaning and disinfection - at any other time as long as cleaned and disinfected before slaughter of non suspect animals - in separate slaughter hall used for diseases animals or those suspected of being diseased Farmer must have marked animal with an orange stripe along the back

Answer 82

Visual inspection, palpation and incision (criss-cross) of LN ``` Routine anyway: - retropharyngeal - parotid - submandibular/submaxillary - bronchial and mediastinal - lungs - pleura - hepatic - liver - mesenteric - supramammary Udder ``` Additional for TB: - prescapular - superficial inguinal TB lesions most commonly found in retropharyngeal, bronchial, mediastinal, lungs and udder LNs

Answer 83

Generalised TB or TB lesions with emaciation = entire carcass and blood and offal rejected Localised TB in a number of organs/areas = all unfit Lesion in lymph nodes of only one organ or part of carcass = only affected organ/part and the associated lymph nodes are unfit Reactor but no lesions - no further action, samples collected for further examination

Answer 84

APHA decide based on herd history and current status Altered supra-mammary nodes always submitted If no lesions found, all bronchial, mediastinal, paired retropharyngeal lymph nodes are collected and any others if enlarged, abnormal and/or haemorrhagic

Answer 85

DNA marking tag of reactor animals is required at day 2 of TB testing Collects a small sample of tissue at time of tagging

Answer 86

OV places carcases and parts immediately in detained area before additional detailed inspection carried out Notify APHA immediately If required by APHA take samples etc Make decisions in terms of fitness

Answer 87

Often encapsulated Granuloma with caseous and often partly mineralised centre Can liquefy and become suppurative

Answer 88

Non viable = caseous/calcified | Can determine by incubating in 1 70% saline solution and 30% bile at 37C for 30 mins - evagination of head if viable

Answer 89

Rejection of affected tissues All unfit if ongoing septicaemia e.g. multiple sites with abscesses ABP 2

Answer 90

Mycoplasma like and Pasteurella like pneumonia in sheep: ABP 2, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption Dictyocaulus filaria/viviparus: ABP 2, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption Muellerius capillaris and lung melanosis: ABP 3, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption

Answer 91

Petechial/echymottic haemorrhages on sub pleural surface of the lung and epicardial surface of the heart Predisposed by stress and dehydration at time of stunning Sudden increase in BP at electrical stunning

Answer 92

Dark unclothed blood from openings Suspect and animals in direct contact must be detained, isolated and reported to APHA duty VO immediately If suspected at PM: - carcase and associated parts detained away from human contact until results received - all other carcases/offal should be detained - stop entry of further animals - lairage not to be cleaned or waste removed unless APHA authorised (if confirmed/inconculisve FBO to thoroughly clean and disinfect)

Answer 93

DOA reported to APHA/referred to LA as a suspected welfare in transport case Ov not to perform necropsy since no conditions in lairage DOA/DIL - carcass should not be opened, risk of anthrax, APHA notified immediately Bovines >48mo FBO reports to a collector to be later tested for TSE If TB reactor, OV reports APHA which will inform if samples required

Answer 94

Taenia hydatigena Sheep ingest eggs, larvae migrate through interstitial wall to liver, migrate through liver to abdominal cavity Bladder like cysts Can be mineralised Not zozonotic Affected tissues unfit (local rejection, affected organs disposed at category 2 ABP)

Answer 95

Echinococcus granulosus Thickened outer membrane, filled with clear fluid and 'hydatid sand' Human infection by ingestion of eggs in soil Generalised (multiple locations) - whole carcass unfit If not generalised, rejection of affected part Disposal as category 2 ABP on public health grounds

Answer 96

Haemorrage with immature parasites Fibrosis of bile ducts Nodular hyeprplasia Human ingestion of metacercaria shed by water snails ``` Only liver unfit, unless lesions indicate hepatic function impaired greatly (in which case whole carcass unfit) ABP 3 (if no evidence of hepatic function impairment) ```

Answer 97

All unfit if septicaemia (multiple sites with abscesses) Otherwise just rejection of affected tissue ABP 2 Yellow pus with Staph/Strep Green pus with Pseudomonas Aeruginosa Onion ring like abscess with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Answer 98

Must consider possibility of enzootic bovine leukosis (notifiable) Otherwise, entire carcass unfit if malignancy (infiltrative behaviour, metastases) or just affected tissues if benign ABP 2

Answer 99

Affected lobes of liver unfit (milk spot) | ABP 3

Answer 100

``` SOP GGP If >1000 animals, AWO with GoC CoC for all stadd handling live animals Keeping records for 1 year ``` Responsible for HACCP and good practices (GAP, GMP etc) and risk assessments and FCI - OV audits the FBOs decision

Answer 101

If routine processing would not cause additional suffering: - process routinely and OV to collect evidence If routine processing would cause additional suffering: - if FBO has not put procedures in place yet, instruct for animal to be killed in situ ASAP - if FBo not aware and didn't take measures, see where system failed and take enforcement measures - if FBO aware take enforcement measures

Answer 102

If systemic condition, all carcass unfit If localised, affected tissues trimmed and unfit Can detain carcass/parts as evidence when enforcement is to be followed

Answer 103

If ruminant with SRM = ABP 1 | If other = ABP 2

Answer 104

``` Clinical exam recordings Videos (e.g. lameness) Photos Detention of carcass CCTV Info regarding haulier/farmer etc ```

Answer 105

If urgent, reported to LA for transport or referred to APHA and reported to LA for farm If non urgent, reported to APHA who will then contact LA if required Recorded in FSA day book Owner informed by FBO and allowed to also examine evidence

Answer 106

Score 1 = compliance achieved Score 2 = no immediate risk Score 3 = potential risk to welfare but no harm caused (e.g. inadequate maintenance) Score 4 = welfare critical (if unavoidable enforcement will not apply) - e.g. severely lame animal moved to stunning pen, DOA

Answer 107

Ruminants: - must be held upright in approved restraining pen, a head restraint required - support to animal is required during and after slaughter - not allowed in restraining pen unless ready - fast and continuous incision through both carotid arteries and both jugular veins with sharp knife - can't be moved before 20 seconds (sheep) or 30 seconds (cattle) and until animal is unconscious - animal can't be further dressed before death - back-up stunning system for emergencies Birds: - fast and continuous incision through both carotid - can't be further dressed/scalded before death and not before 2 mins in turkeys/geese and 90 seconds for others

Answer 108

Retained in lairage on clean bedding to clean/dry possibly overnight (no more than 48h) Clipped to remove contaminated areas of wool/hair Particular attention paid to areas where the first incision is made through the skin inc. ventral neck, sternum, linea alba and hocks Killed in the lairage and carcase disposed - ABP disposal category dependent on species and material contained Animal is slaughtered with a reduction in line speed to allow special care to be taken Rejected if category 3 or 4 unless animal welfare grounds etc Rejected if category 5

Answer 109

E.g. Gi content, foreign material Best practice is to trim affected area Avoid washing as can spread contamination

Answer 110

``` Anthacosis = black pigment (carbon) in lung Carotenosis = yellow pigment of adipose tissue (most often in corn fed animals or older due to age related pigment accumulation) - fit for human consumption (ddx jaundice - unfit) ```

Answer 111

Dark red discolouration in the most ventral position of the carcass (head and neck when shackled by feet) and multifocal larger sized clots Affected tissues unfit (more perishable) If severe may be whole carcass unfit

Answer 112

Minimal clotting if happened close to death If 8h pre-slaughter, fibrin strands usually apparent If within 24h pre-slaughter, red to red-blue and jelly like substance If more than 24-48h prior to death tissue pigment will start being apparent and a soapy texture develops 72h post trauma Fibrosis if older

Answer 113

Hold carcass for 24h and perform boiling test to assess if ureic smell prevails

Answer 114

If evidence of systemic involvement e.g. uraemia - entire carcass unfit If localised lesion, only affected parts unfit ABP 2

Answer 115

If localised only affected parts unfit If systemic involvement ie uraemia all unfit ABP 2

Answer 116

Synthesis (milk fat, protein, lactose) and diffusion (water, minerals, vitamins) Milk secretion: - merocrine = movement through epithelial cell membrane without injuring membrane (cows) - holocrine = entire epithelial cell disintegrates to become part of the secretion (goats) - apocrine = migration of secretory products to apex of epithelial cell, rupture of cell membrane to release (goats)

Answer 117

Yogurt: 4.4 Butter 6.1-6.4 Milk: 6.4-6.8 Cheese 4.8 (cottage) - 7.4 (camembert)

Answer 118

D value = heat resistance of an organism, time at given temperature required to reduce population by 1log10 (90%) Z value = temperature change required to alter D value by factor of 10

Answer 119

Low temp long time (LTLT): 63.5C for 30 mins High temp short time (HTST): 72C for 15 seconds (25s recommended) Flash: 88C for 1s UHT: 135C for 1s

Answer 120

Partially: up to 25% solids Totally: no more than 5% water

Answer 121

Milk treatment and standardisation Acidification: lactic acid producing bacteria or vinegar Coagulation: proteins coagulate at low pH (rennet) Suneresis: concentrating fat and protein in the curd Maturation: secondary cultures plus drying

Answer 122

Salmonella | Listeria

Answer 123

Statutory test to assess efficiency of pasteurisation Phosphatase enzyme should be inactivated during pasteurisation Activity indicates pasteurisation not complete/contaminated

Answer 124

Lactoperoxidase is the enzyme most abundant in milk Destroyed when >78C for 15s Decrease indicates overheating = qualitative test

Answer 125

Oxidation-reduction indicator in cell viability assays for bacteria and mammalian cells Indicates contamination

Answer 126

Femernation leads to release of alcohol and lactic acid | Indicates spoilage of normal milk

Answer 127

Presence of antibacterial substances Based on inhibition go growth of Bacillus stearothermophilus var calidolactis (thermophilic bacteria v sensitive to many antibiotics and sulpha compound)

Answer 128

Raw milk for consumption tested by farmer/processing/retailer: - plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <100,000 (2 samples per month, 2 month average) 0 SCC <400,000 (1 sample per month, 3 month average) Raw milk for direct human cnsumtpino: - plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <20,000 - coliforms/ml <100 Raw milk by manufacturer: - plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <300,000 Processed milk by manufacturer: - plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <100,000

Answer 129

Not been heated beyond 40C Banned in Scotland and Ireland May only be sold by registered holdings Tb free cow/buffalo herd Brucella free Must have health warning (harmful in england, advise against children etc drinking in Wales) Inspections twice a year for cow herds, only on risk basis for sheep/goats/buffalo Cows: sampled and tested quarterly for TVC and coliforms

Answer 130

Salmonella enteriditis - vertical transmission | Residues - pesticides, PCBs, anthelmintics, coccidiostat, antibiotics

Answer 131

Cuticle: made of glycoprotein, covers shell's pores She: calcium carbonate Inner and outer membrane: protein fibres Albumin: viscosity impedes microbe movement, pH 9.2, proteins: - avidin: binds with biotin - lysozyme: against gram positives - ovotransferrin or conalbumin: antimicrobial - ovoinhibitor: inhibits fungal proteases

Answer 132

``` Eggs that go for further processing: - from infected farms - damaged eggs - dirty eggs - old eggs Temperature at storage 20C for no more than 28d ```

Answer 133

Class A: normal, clean, undamaged shell and cuticle, air space <6mm Class B: normal shell, dirty, damaged cuticle, air space <9mm Class C: Cracked or misshapen etc shell dirty, damaged cuticle, air space >9mm or damaged

Answer 134

``` 0 = organic 1 = free range 2 = barn 3 = cage Plus individual producer code ``` Council Regulation (EC) 5/2001

Answer 135

Double yolk = young, highly productive laying hen had 2 ovulations Blood spot = normal in or around yolk, blood vessel broke at time of yolk release, increased if high disturbance, less with free range due to rooting

Answer 136

Meat spots = brown spot in albumin, more common in brown hens, small pieces of body tissue eg internal wall of oviduct Watery whites = usually older birds, old eggs, IB

Answer 137

Green yolks = consumption of green herbage to excess | Mobile bubbly airspace = shell structure fault, airspace in albumen caused by ruptured inner membrane

Answer 138

Bacterial or fungal contamination

Answer 139

Additional calcium (pink/lilac colour) when in shell gland for extended period of time, often in young flocks

Answer 140

2 eggs in shell gland at same time

Answer 141

Brown laying hens Older laying hens in free range flocks Disease

Answer 142

Most common reason for downgrading Inadequate egg shell being laid or poor handling

Answer 143

Egg is warmer than surroundings when laid As it cools contents contract and air space forms between inner and outer shell membranes As egg ages moisture and CO2 are lost through the pores SO height of air space indicates quality and age of egg

Answer 144

Fresh good quality egg = jelly like, cloudy Becomes transparent and watery as ages Water migrates into yolk and shell so may become mottled and yolk enlarges Albumin assessed by height in mm of outer thick albumin

Answer 145

Reduction of water activity

Answer 146

1. Hazard analysis (biological, chemical or physical) 2. Identify critical control points (CCPs) (steps used to eliminate a hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level) 3. Establish critical limits for CCPs (max and min values, must be quantifiable e.g. temperature, water activity) 4. Monitor the CCPs 5. Establish corrective actions for when a CCP is not under control 6. Verification and validation procedures to ensure procedures are working effectively (e.g. product testing) 7. Documentation and records = A preventative approach

Answer 147

``` Facility and equipment design Pest control Cleaning and sanitation Purchasing requirements Supplier approval Employee training Personal hygiene Foreign material control Water/ice/air control Product specifications Product storage control Equipment maintenance Transportation Product traceability/ retrieval/recall Record maintenance Allergen and chemical control ```

Answer 148

Total rejection of carcass and samples collected for further examination Animal health/legal grounds

Answer 149

Local/partial rejection (if <4 locations?) Affected organ disposed as Category 2 animal by-products Aesthetic grounds

Answer 150

Total rejection of carcass and disposal as category 1 ABP

Answer 151

No further action regarding the carcasses

Answer 152

Carcass detained until test results return from lab | Public health grounds

Answer 153

Partial rejection of carcass. Samples collected for further examination

Answer 154

Cryptosporidiosis

Answer 155

Appropriate level of protection = The level of protection deemed appropriate by the member (country) establishing a sanitary or phytosanitary measure to protect human, animal and plant life or health within its territory

Answer 156

Food safety objective = the maximum frequency and/or concentration of a hazard in a food at the time of consumption that provides or contributes to the ALOP (point of food chain where the hazard level can no longer change)

Answer 157

Performance objective = the maximum frequency and/or concentration of a hazard at a specified step in the food chain, before the time of consumption that provides or contributes to an FSO or ALOP

Answer 158

Performance criteria = the effect in frequency and/or concentration of a hazard in a food that must be achieved by the application of one or more control measures to provide or contribute to a PO or an FSO E.g. 6D reduction of Salmonella when cooking ground beef = 'acceptable level' to be achieved at a critical control point (CCP) in HACCP context

Answer 159

Process criteria = The physical process control parameter (e.g. time, temperature) at a specified step that can be applied to achieve a Performance Objective or Performance Criterion (CAC, 2005) E.g. control parameters for milk pasteurisation are 71.7C for 15s to assure at least 6 log reduction of Listeria monocytogenes and destruction of Coxiella brunetti = critical limits on Critical control points (CCP)s in a HACCP plans

Answer 160

Risk assessment/characterisation: - hazard identification: is particular agent a public health hazard when present in food? - hazard characterisation: what is the nature of the adverse effects associated with the agent in the food on the consumer? - exposure assessment: what is the level of the agent in the food at the time of consumption? - so overall risk characterisation: what is the overall probability of occurrence and severity of adverse health effects in population Risk communication Risk management

Answer 161

Reduce the percentage of chickens that have a higher level of contamination (>1000 CFU per gram) Because higher counts are associated with increased public health risk

Answer 162

Regulation (EC) No 852/2004 Regulation (EC) No 853/2004 Approval recommended by FSA veterinary official

Answer 163

= Hazard, Analysis, Critical, Control, Point | = a scientific preventative approach

Answer 164

England and Wales - Food Standards Agency Scotland - Food Standards Scotland Northern Ireland - Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs

Answer 165

Good manufacturing Practices Created in consultancy between government and stakeholders/industry = Guidelines to ensure products are consistently produced to a standard that complies with statutory requirements More descriptive than regulations Covers all aspects of production including: - Sourcing - Equipment and its maintenance - Training, health certificates and personal hygiene of staff

Answer 166

Good hygiene practices = Guidance on good hygiene practice for the control of hazards in primary production and associated operations. More descriptive than regulations GHP cover all aspects of production: - checks on food chain information - the design and maintenance of premises and equipment - pre-operational, operational and post-operational hygiene - personal hygiene - training in hygiene and in work procedures - pest control - water quality - temperature control - controls on food entering and leaving the establishment, and any accompanying documentation

Answer 167

FCI received 24h in advance Inspection of live birds - listening to the birds and observation, checking posture, wattle colour Health certificate: on farm, MHI on site Dead on arrivals (DOAs) reported to APHA if smaller poultry >1.5%, larger poultry >2.5%

Answer 168

Slaughter: - last in the day - or any other time provided cleaning and disinfection - separate slaughter hall

Answer 169

Notifiable Inform VO at APHA If slaughter necessary prior to arrival of VO, the carcass and hide along with identifying ear tag should be detained for inspection by VO A 7ml vacutainer sample of clotted blood should be collected at sample

Answer 170

Bovine - brainstem | Ovine/caprine - brainstem and cerebellum

Answer 171

``` 1 erupted: 541-806d 2 erupted: 536-825d 2 in wear: 584-1019d 3 erupted: 689-961d 4 erupted: 715-937d 4 in wear: 732-1275d 5 erupted: 902-1277d 6 erupted: 978-1304d 6 in wear: 980-1498d 7 erupted: 1038-1742d 8 erupted: 1098-1715d 8 in wear: 1103d+ ```

Answer 172

``` Change Humans Organ Repercussions Disease status ``` Refers to meat fitness decisions

Answer 173

Visual Palpation Incision But varies with species and age e.g. pigs need visual inspection by default

Answer 174

Visual inspection of head and throat: - incision of the sub-maxillary, retropharyngeal and parotid lymph nodes - examination of the external masseters, in which two incisions must be made parallel to the mandible - examination of the internal masseters, which must be incised along one plane - tongue must be freed to permit detailed visual inspection of mouth and fauces and must itself be visually inspected and palpated - tonsils must be removed

Answer 175

Inspection of the trachea and oesophagus Visual examination and palpation of the lungs Incision and examination of the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes (Lnn. bifucationes, eparteriales and mediastinales) The trachea and the main branches of the bronchi must be opened lengthways and the lungs must be incised in their posterior third, perpendicular to their main axes These incisions are not necessary where the lungs are excluded from human consumption

Answer 176

Visual inspection of the pericardium and heart | Heart is incised lengthways so as to open the ventricles and cut through the interventricular septum

Answer 177

Visual inspection of the diaphragm Visual inspection and palpation of the liver and the hepatic and pancreatic lymph nodes, (Lnn portales) Incision of the gastric surface of the liver and at the base of the caudate lobe to examine the bile ducts Visual inspection of the gastro-intestinal tract, the mesentery, the gastric and mesenteric lymph nodes (Lnn. gastrici, mesenterici, craniales and caudales) Palpation and, if necessary, incision of the gastric and mesenteric lymph nodes

Answer 178

Visual inspection Residue sampling if applicable FBO compliance with TSE testing and/or other ongoing protocols

Answer 179

APHA/trading standards

Answer 180

Unfit for human consumption (should not have been transported in the first place!)

Answer 181

Non septic mild arthritis: - clear or opaque synovial fluid - very little cartilaginous wear - slight hyperaemia of synovial membrane - fit for consumption Non septic more severe arthritis: - increased, cloudy or blood coloured synovial fluid - proliferation of synovial villi so synovial membrane appears covered in red pile - synovial villi may be hypertrophied so much that they resemble polyps - may be a chronic condition undergoing a flare up - reject affected joint and check carcass and organs for signs of systemic disease (e.g. haemorrhages in kidneys and heart) Septic or purulent arthritis: - swollen joint - marked increased of serosanguinous, turbid or purulent synovial fluid - flocculi may be present in the synovial fluid - joint villi are severely reactive - synovial membrane is oedematous and thickened - adjacent tendon sheaths may be infiltrated - related lymph nodes are enlarged, congested, acutely inflamed and may also be endocarditis, kidney infarcts or pulmonary or uterine infectious foci - condemn affected joint if mild/localised - reject carcass if per-articular abscesses present in more than one joint - reject carcass if severe case - reject carcass if septicaemia - check other organs and reject as necessary

Answer 182

The accumulation of plant or endogenous porphyrins in the blood resulting in tissue pigmentation and photosensitisation This is a hereditary disease and is observed in cattle, swine and sheep In porphyric cattle, exposure to light will initiate the development of photodynamic dermatitis In swine, photodynamic dermatitis does not occur

Answer 183

Baccilary haemoglobinuria (Clostridium haemolyticum) Spores reside in kupffer cells Proliferate in low oxygen tension and form necrotic nidus Release toxins including phospholipase C Hepatocellular necrosis and intravascular haemolysis

Answer 184

Pockets of green, semiliquid pus

Answer 185

``` Auditing Inspection of: - FCI - ante-mortem - animal welfare - PM - SRM - lab testing ```

Answer 186

``` Traceability met FCI Adequate facilities for examination: - lighting - facilities: crush for cattle, access to all animals, detention pen Operational requirements: - adequate training - AWO (animal welfare officer) ```

Answer 187

Online prior to delivery

Answer 188

Corrective measures - clipping, bedding overnight | Or decrease speed of line so more attentive dressing

Answer 189

Declared unfit for human consumption and disposed of as ABP

Answer 190

meat - 28d | milk - 7d

Answer 191

``` Not detected: - Salmonella enterica - Yersinia enterocolitica - Campylobacter spp. - Clostridium spp., - Listeria monocytogenes - VTEC - Antimicrobial resistance - HEV - Sarcocystis suihominis - Toxoplasma gondii Detected: - T sodium cysticercus (low se) - Trichinella (reliably) ```

Answer 192

``` Bovines: - human pathogenic STEC - Salmonella enterica Ovines/caprines: - human pathogenic STEC - Toxoplasma gondii Porcines: - Salmonella enterica Solipeds: - Trichinella Poultry: - Campylobacter - Salmonella enterica ```

Answer 193

1. Assemble HACCP team 2. Describe product 3. Identify intended use and consumers 4. Construct flow diagram which describes the process 5. Confirm (verify) on-site flow diagram 6. List all potential hazards, conduct a hazard analysis and consider control measures (HACCP principle 1) 7 - 12. Apply principles 2 - 7

Answer 194

``` Advantages: - proactive and preventative - owned by the producers and staff - specific, systematic, scientific and documented Disadvantages: - expensive in the start - demanding of staff and time - difficult for small operators/large number of products ```

Answer 195

Industry: - ensure proper application of HACCP principles and implementation of HACCP plan - provide evidence of this to government authorities when requested Government: - facilitators: clarify goals and scope of HACCP, provide expertise when requested - regulators: assess correct application and implementation of HACCP - trainers: assist in or provide training programmes

Answer 196

Vets (after FBO implements it)

Answer 197

Article 5 of regulation (EC) No 852/2004

Answer 198

STEC - cause diarrhoea, haemorrhagic colitis and fatalities from haemolytic uraemia syndrome and ARF in humans (get from hamburger type food/ground meats)

Answer 199

Physical - metal fragments, wedding rings Biological - bacteria, viruses, moulds, parasites, toxins Chemical - lubricants, disinfectants, cleaning products, antibiotics, lead

Answer 200

De-hiding (hide is highly contaminated, meat is sterile)

Answer 201

63 degrees as allows hair follicles to open up to be removed Not hot enough to kill bacteria but any hotter would cook the product Scalding tanks actually increase contamination risk Singing process helps lower bacterial load

Answer 202

``` Temperature Time pH Water activity Metal detection (number of metal pieces detected) ``` NOT rat bait for vermin control or PPE maintenance

Answer 203

A criterion defining the acceptability of a product, a batch of foodstuffs or a process, based on the absence, presence or number of microorganisms, and/or on the quantity of their toxins/metabolites, per unit(s) of mass, volume, area or batch - food safety criteria are applied at retail level Must include: - the microorganisms of concern stated - a qualitative or quantitative analytical method validated and chosen to give a sufficiently reliable estimate - critical limits based on data appropriate to the food - a sampling plan including the sampling procedure and decision criteria for a lot Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005 on microbiological criteria for foodstuffs

Answer 204

Food safety criteria: - criterion defining the acceptability of a product placed on the market - e.g. Salmonella absence in 25g of each of 5 samples of minced meat made from poultry meat during their shelf life on market Process hygiene critieria: - criterion indicating the acceptable functioning of the production process - e.g. a presence of Salmonella in a maximum of 5 of 50 tested neck skin samples from 10 sampling sessions of poultry carcasses after chilling

Answer 205

Mandatory criteria Used to determine the acceptability of a food with regard to a regulation or policy Established by regulatory authorities Foods not meeting the standard are subject to removal from the market

Answer 206

Used by buyers of a food or ingredient to reduce the likelihood of purchasing a product that may be of unacceptable safety or quality Buyers throughout the food systems establish microbiological specifications for materials they purchase Specifications are advisory and the materials are sampled periodically

Answer 207

Established by either regulatory authorities, industrial trade associations or companies Indicate the expected microbial content of a food when best practices are applied Food companies use microbiological guidelines as a basis to design and assess their control systems (GHP, HACCP) Advisory in nature and may not necessarily lead to rejection of a food

Answer 208

General microbiota: - synonyms: total aerobic (viable) count (TAC/TVC) or aerobic plate/colony count (APC/ACC) - indicates hygiene status of process, total bacterial load of product Faecal coliforms, enterobactericeae, E.coli - indicates faecal contamination

Answer 209

Used almost exclusively for pathogens Based on presence/absence Consists of specifications: - n = number of sample units to be examined - m = maximum acceptable number of relevant bacteria/gr - c = maximum acceptable number of sample units that may exceed the value of m (lot is rejected if this number is exceeded) Interpretation: - satisfactory if counts or values are below m - unsatisfactory if counts or values are greater than m

Answer 210

Often applied for indicator organisms Consist of specification: - n = number of sample units to be examined - m = maximum acceptable number of relevant bacteria/gr - M used to separate acceptable from unsatisfactory - c = number of sample units giving values between m and M Interpretation: - satisfactory if values are below m - acceptable if a maximum of c/n values are between m and M, and the rest of the values observed are m or lower - unsatisfactory if one or more of the values observed are >M or more than c/n values are between m and M

Answer 211

``` Moderate: - S aureus toxin - V parahaemolyticus - B cereus - C perfringens Serious: - Salmonella (non Typhi) - Shigella - Listeria monocytogenes Severe: - EHEC (STEC, VTEC) - V cholerae O1 - C botulinum - EPEC - Cronobacter - L monocytogenes ```

Answer 212

Affects metabolism of glycogen in muscles: - following slaughter, glycogen is converted to lactic acid - amount of glycogen pre-slaughter affects pH after slaughter - pH range for muscle following slaughter in range 7.0 - 5.0 Affected meat doesn't eat or keep well Acute stress: - heightened awareness and increased metabolic activity before slaughter so fast excessive drop in pH to 5.2-5.4 - cooking losses - pale, soft, exudative (PSE) - predominantly pigs Chronic stress: - depletes glycogen so pH less acidic after slaughter (6-6.2 or up to 6.8) - dark, firm, dry (DFD) - shorter shelf life - commonly beef - also pigs and occasionally sheep

Answer 213

``` Invasive: - impact with skull to produce stun - penetration of brain to prevent recovery Non invasive: - impact with skull to produce stun - skull fracture reduces effectiveness - mild tissue damage (haemorrhage) - limited to ruminants under 10kg live weight ```

Answer 214

Cattle: - crossing point between 2 imaginary lines drawn between eyes and centre of base of opposite horns - bolt at right angle to skull so directed at brainstem Polled sheep: - highest point on head aiming straight down Horned sheep: - behind ridge between horns, aiming towards base of tongue Pigs: - 20mm above eye level on midline of forehead, aiming towards the tail

Answer 215

``` Pigs: 1.3 Sheep/goats: 1.0 Lambs/kids: 0.6 Calves: 1.0 Cattle: 1.2 ```

Answer 216

Produces cardiac arrest | Animal killed at point of stun

Answer 217

``` Fractures and dislocations - legs, wings, necks Bruising Over stocking in crates Problems reduced by: - paper trail - education and training ```

Answer 218

Owner and flock details including their vets Mortality % at 14 days and to date Vaccinations, medications and withdrawal periods For this batch: - history of disease - other reasons for mortality e.g. floods - tests and their results For the holding: - disease history particularly notifiable diseases and restrictions - 2 previous consignments rejections and the main reasons for them Signed by FBO and OV for approval

Answer 219

Approx 12s

Answer 220

DOA Injured birds Small birds (likely to miss stunner, effects on current passing through other birds)

Answer 221

Was: - no more than 3 minutes for turkeys - no more than 2 minutes for other birds New legislation for shackle design: - no more than 1 minute - ducks, geese and turkeys no more than 2 minutes

Answer 222

Stun to kill: - low frequency - likelihood of regaining consciousness before the neck cutter is significantly reduced High frequency stunning: - improves meat quality (less broken bones, blood splashing) - >100hz doesn't generally induce heart attacks so stunned but alive - bleeding must be accurate (severance of both carotid arteries)

Answer 223

``` Arched neck with head held vertically Eyes open No rhythmic breathing Rigidly extended legs (but can't use this identifier when shackled) Constant rapid body tremors Wings held tightly against body ```

Answer 224

Applies to transport of live vertebrate animals in connection with an economic activity: - to slaughter - to markets - export

Answer 225

domestic legislation (Article 4 of WATEO 2006 and parallel legislation in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland)

Answer 226

If >65km: - must apply for and be granted a transporter authorisation - driver must hold a valid certificate of competence If >8h: - vehicle must be inspected and approved Animals must be accompanied with an animal transport certificate or a journey log

Answer 227

``` Short journey (Type 1): - journeys >65km and up to 8h duration Long journey (Type 2): - >8h - covers both long and short journeys ```

Answer 228

No more than 8h unless additional requirements carried out for long journeys (cows, sheep, pigs, goats) If long journey provisions are met: - unweaned calves, lambs, piglets and kids: max 9h, then at least 1h rest (given liquid, and if necessary fed), then max further 9h - cattle sheep and goats: max 14h, then at least 1h rest (liquid +/- feed), then further max 14h - pigs: max 24h, if >8h must have continuous access to water, except if <12h in total can just be offered at appropriate intervals Journey time is from first animal loaded to last animal unloaded If after this time, have not reached final destination, must be unloaded, fed and watered and be rested for 24h at EU approved control post

Answer 229

No maximum journey time Must be provided food and water after 12h for adults, or after 24h for chicks (provided journey completed within 72h of hatching) Journey time does not include time spent loading and unloading No inspection and approval of poultry containers or vehicles is needed (even if >8h)

Answer 230

``` Day old chicks: 21-25cm2 per chick <1.6kg: 180-200cm2/kg 1.6-3kg: 160cm2/kg 3-5kg: 115cm2/kg >5kg: 105cm/kg ```

Answer 231

Jewish method: by a jew who holds a license (rabbinical commission) Muslim method: by a muslim who holds a slaughter man license to perform religious slaughter Qurbani/Udhia now also permitted: by a licensed muslim slaughter man in a licensed slaughterhouse which is under OV supervision Can only be performed at approved red meat slaughterhouses

Answer 232

Kosher: stunning not allowed Halal: stunning accepted in many situations, approx 80% of animals are stunned

Answer 233

Regulation (EC) No 852/2004 Hygiene provisions with regards to: - Contamination arising from the air, soil, water, feed, fertilisers, veterinary medicinal products, plant protection products and biocides and the storage, handling and disposal of waste; - Measures relating to animal health and welfare and plant health that have implications for human health, including programmes for the monitoring and control of zoonoses and zoonotic agents. - Maintenance of equipment/facilities - Hygiene of animals - Potable water - Training of staff - Storage of hazardous substances - Adequate response to test results - Remedial action after problems identified during official controls - Etc E.g.: - FCI - lavatories for staff - washing facilities in processing area - BSE testing - clean livestock policy - actions following unsatisfactory results on HACCP - non porous surfaces, including ceilings - cleaning of equipment - handling of food waste - adequate protective clothing - cold chain maintenance - hygienic rapping materials

Answer 234

REGULATION (EC) No 854/2004 OF THE EUROPEAN PARLIAMENT AND OF THE COUNCIL of 29 April 2004: - laying down specific rules for the organisation of official controls on products of animal origin intended for human consumption Commission Regulation (EU) No 142/2011 of 25 February 2011 implementing Regulation (EC) No 1069/2009 of the European Parliament: - and of the Council laying down health rules as regards animal by-products and derived products not intended for human consumption and implementing Council Directive 97/78/EC as regards certain samples and items exempt from veterinary checks at the border under that Directive Text with EEA relevance The Disease Control (England) (Wales) Order 2003: - laying down rules as regards to movement restrictions - ex. no animals to leave slaughterhouse except under the authority of a licence issued by APHA. - licenses, cleansing and disinfection, enforcement etc

Answer 235

Traceability met | FCI

Answer 236

Campylobacter? Salmonella Most deaths = Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 237

The Animals, and Animal Products (Examination for Residues and Maximum Residue Limits) Regulations 1997 as amended (the ‘Residue Regulations’): - offence to give any veterinary medicine to an animal unless has a marketing authorisation for their use in the UK The Veterinary Medicines Regulations 2013: - veterinarian must keep records of their use. - vet can give other products under a ‘prescribing cascade’ when no medicines available - level 1: use of a UK-authorised veterinary medicine indicated for the same species but for another condition or indicated for use in another species - level 2: use of a UK-authorised human medicine or veterinary medicine authorised in the EU but not the UK, requires a Special Import Certificate - level 3: specially prepared medicine made by a veterinary surgeon, pharmacist or suitably authorised manufacturer

Answer 238

Table 1 of Commission Regulation (EU) 37/2010 | Maximum residue level is specified per product and prohibited

Answer 239

Annex 1 COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No 122/2013 | Withdrawal period of 6 months

Answer 240

The maximum concentration of residue accepted by the EU in a food product Set for each edible tissue to endure the acceptable daily intake (ADI) is not exceeded ADI calculated by adverse/observed effect level divided by an 'uncertainty' or 'safety factor' (amount eaten per day, metabolism, tissue distribution) Withdrawal period calculated taking into account the rate of residue depletion, to below the MRL, in all edible tissues and products - conducted at European and national level (VMD)

Answer 241

APHA: live animals, animal feed, eggs and milk on farms CEFAS: fish farms in England and Wales Marine Scotland: fish farms in Scotland National Bee Unit: honey samples in England and Wales SGRPID: egg and honey samples from farms in Scotland DARD: Northern Ireland

Answer 242

``` Lairage - AM Stunning Shackling Bleeding Dehiding (flaying) Evisceration Splitting of the carcass Final washing Chilling Deboning and cutting ```

Answer 243

``` AM Electrical/gas stunning Bleeding Scalding Dehairing Evisceration PM inspection Delivery ```

Answer 244

(EC) 852/2004 dealing with the hygiene of foodstuffs. (EC) 853/2004 laying down specific hygiene rules for food (EC) 854/2004 laying down specific rules for the organisation of official controls on products of animal origin intended for human consumption. (EC) 2073/2005 on microbiological criteria for foodstuffs (EC) 2075/2005 laying down specific rules on official controls for Trichinella in meat and The domestic Food Safety and Hygiene (England) Regulations 2013 Food Hygiene (Wales) Regulations 2006.

Answer 245

The Food Safety and Hygiene (England) Regulations 2013 and The Food Hygiene (Wales) Regulations 2006: - provide enforcement powers in respect of the obligations that apply in Regulations (EC)852/2004, 853/2004,854/2004, 2073/2005 and 2075/2005. The Official Feed and Food Controls (England / Wales) Regulations 2009- as amended - Note: These provide enforcement powers in respect of the obligations that apply in Regulation (EC) 882/2004 The General Food Regulations 2004 (Wales) The Food Safety and Hygiene (England) Regulations 2013 (England): - Provide enforcement powers in respect of the obligations that apply in Regulation (EC) 178/2002.

Answer 246

Producers supplying small quantities of meat from poultry and lagomorphs slaughtered on farm directly to the final consumer / local retailers. Butchers’ shops (retailing meat to the final consumer or exempt under marginal, localised and restricted). Any of the following not co-located with slaughterhouses, cutting plants or game handling establishments: - meat preparations establishment - minced meat establishment - mechanically separated meat establishment - processing plant (for meat products, rendered animal fats and greaves, treated stomachs, bladders and intestines, gelatine and collagen) - cold stores where storage is the only activity Premises manufacturing composite products containing meat and other edible co products. Collection centres and tanneries that handle raw material for the production of collagen and gelatine

Answer 247

(a) from animals that have not had AM inspection, except for hunted wild game; (b) from animals the offal of which has not undergone PM inspection, unless otherwise provided or under this Regulation or Regulation (EC) No 853/2004; (c) from animals which are dead before slaughter, stillborn, unborn or slaughtered under the age of 7; (d) results from the trimming of sticking points; (e) derives from animals affected by an OIE List A or, where appropriate, OIE List B disease, unless otherwise provided for in Section IV; (f) from animals affected by a generalised disease, such as generalised septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia or viraemia; (g) is not in conformity with microbiological criteria laid down under Community legislation to determine whether food may be placed on the market; (h) parasitic infestation, unless otherwise provided for in Section IV; (i) contains residues or contaminants in excess. (j) from animals or carcases containing residues of forbidden substances or from animals that have been treated with forbidden substances; (k) liver and kidneys of animals more than 2yo from regions revealed to have generalised presence of heavy metals in the environment; (l) been treated illegally with decontaminating substances, ionising or UV-rays; (n) contains foreign bodies (except, in the case of wild game, material used to hunt the animal); (o) exceeds the maximum permitted radioactivity levels laid down under Community legislation; (p) indicates patho-physiological changes, anomalies in consistency, insufficient bleeding (except for wild game) or organoleptic anomalies, in particular a pronounced sexual odour; (q) from emaciated animals; (r) contains specified risk material (SRM), except as provided for under Community legislation; (s) shows soiling, faecal or other contamination; (t) consists of blood that may constitute a risk to public or animal health owing to the health status of any animal from which it derives or contamination arising during the slaughter process; (u) in the opinion of the OV, after examination of all the relevant information, it may constitute a risk to public or animal health or is for any other reason not suitable for human consumption

Answer 248

Not carried out - poultry all assumed to be infected

Answer 249

European Council Directive 2009/158/EC Applies when: - export >20 birds or hatching eggs to another EU member state or countries that require compliance with EU legislation - sell birds or eggs to other PHS members

Answer 250

Salmonella testing of each flock at least once a year Mycoplasma testing 4 weeks before point of lay and then every 12 weeks after during lay Tested in a lab officially approved by DEFRA

Answer 251

``` Health certificate (3 days) signed on farm by an approved vet including all this information Trained meat hygiene inspector (MHI) checks welfare and health ```

Answer 252

Lairage Stunning - gas (not ducks, unless argon) or electrical Slaughter - automatic or manual (backup always needed) Bleeding - severance of both carotids and jugulars Scalding (average 55-57C for 2 minutes) Plucking Evisceration Washing Refrigeration to reach 4C

Answer 253

``` Always need a backup Manual dislocation: - up to 3kg live weight - person cannot do >70 birds/day If 3-5kg: - mechanical cervical dislocation must be used ``` Either can only be for back up, not routine

Answer 254

2 mins for turkeys and geese | 90s for other birds

Answer 255

animal carcases, parts of carcases or products of animal origin that are not intended for human consumption Includes catering waste, used cooking oil, former foodstuffs, butcher and slaughterhouse waste, blood, feathers, wool, hides and skins, fallen stock, pet animals, zoo and circus animals, hunt trophies, manure, ova, embryos and semen

Answer 256

Dogs Act 1906 | Made it an offence to leave any carcass on agricultural land where dogs can gain access

Answer 257

Gives the local authority the power to dispose of any carcase suspected of being affected by anthrax by incineration on the infected place

Answer 258

Specified Risk Materials Regulations 1997: - controls in abattoirs for identification, removal and disposal of designated risk material from carcases Animal By-Products Order 1999: - introduced testing for enterobacteria risks - Offence to allow access of ruminant animals to ruminant carcases The Animal By-Products (Amendment) (England) Order 2001: - banned feeding waste food to pigs Animal By-Products Regulations 2003/2005/2009 made in accordance with Regulation (EC) 1774/2002: - requires approval of all premises handling animal by products Current: 2011:REGULATION (EC) No 1069/2009

Answer 259

Incineration in licensed incinerators and the ash disposed in specially licensed landfills Rendering with all products marked with glyceroltriheptanoate (GTH) Regulation (EC) 1432/2007 Special landfills for catering waste Special derogations for remote areas Has to be stained a nice blue… (patent blue V E131 an approved food additive)

Answer 260

Incineration in licensed incinerators and the ash disposed in specially licensed landfills Rendering with all products marked with glyceroltriheptanoate (GTH) Regulation (EC) 1432/2007 - composting and biogas after rendering Oleochemical plants Hunt kennels, maggot farms and zoos Special derogations for remote areas Has to be stained black (though it may look blue-gray…) with a solution of black PN or brilliant black BN (if >25kg or entire poultry carcass, surface opened by multiple deep incisions first) Manure can go on land

Answer 261

``` Pet food Composting and biogas Oleochemical plants Hunt kennels, maggot farms and zoos Special derogations for remote areas ```

Answer 262

Category 2 ABP | If was a cow, would be category 1

Answer 263

Pigs or poultry which have passed AM inspection | Ruminants which have passed AM and PM inspection

Answer 264

ABP regs 2003

Answer 265

Cattle >24mo

Answer 266

Category 1: - anything that has to do with TSEs - whole ruminant carcasses - zoo animals - pets - sick wild animals - certain residue containing products - international catering waste Category 2: - all meat unfit for human consumption except if has to with TSEs - manure and digestive tract contents - some residue containing products - animals killed for disease control Category 3: - meat fit for human consumption but not intended for that - all by products from animals that have undergone inspection and were found fit with some exceptions

Answer 267

Slaughterhouse material that was passed fit for humans to eat but is unwanted for commercial reasons Fish by-products from factories and ships that prepare fish for human consumption Game that was passed fit for humans to eat but rejected for commercial reasons, not due to disease Material from animals that passed an ante-mortem test, that is unfit for humans to eat, eg liver with fluke

Answer 268

Category 3 ABPs from carcasses passed fit for human consumption Slaughterhouse by-products, like hides, skins, horns, feet, pig bristle, feather or blood Heads of poultry Milk production by-products Materials from on-farm slaughter of rabbits or poultry Hatchery waste, eggs, egg by-products and day-old chicks

Answer 269

On farm incinerators have to be approved by local authority or environment agency for ABP and others, or AH for carcasses Low capacity incinerators (<50kg/hr): gas in the secondary chamber must achieve 850C for 2s (temp monitored by temp sensor) High capacity incinerators (>50kg/hr): same as low, plus each line must have at least one axillary burner to assure the temperature is 850C during combustion

Answer 270

Composting = biological degradation under aerobic conditions Biogas = biological degradation under anaerobic conditions to produce biogas Heat treatment for at least 1h Microbiological standards: absence of Salmonella in 25g

Answer 271

Rendering = cooking parts of animals at high temperatures to make animal safe and reduce the water content to a storable level, then mechanical separation of tallow (fat) from solid residue which is put in storage for later incineration To reduce scrapie to undetectable level, would need 133C at 3 bar pressure for min of 20mins

Answer 272

Process rendered fats for the production of fatty acids, rosins, terpenes etc

Answer 273

VO/APHA FSA responsible for enforcement relating to ABP within approved slaughterhouses and cutting plants (local authorities responsible elsewhere, environment agency for very large incinerators)

Answer 274

After 2-3 weeks Better tenderness and flavour Involves acidification, rigor mortis and conditioning

Answer 275

In the presence of oxygen: - Glycogen breaks down to pyruvic acid and then to CO2 i H2O (with synthesis of ATP) Without oxygen (post mortem): - Glycogen breaks down to lactic acid - = acidification (from pH 7.2 to pH 5.5) - pH drops in beef muscle 36-48 hours, pig 4-8 hours Effect: - Protein denaturation, meat paler and more opaque - its ability to bind water decreases

Answer 276

Ultimate pH between 5.6-6.2 | pH 1h PM: >6

Answer 277

Controlled by the availability of ATP ATP can no longer be generated by glycolysis and is eventually exhausted, so muscles lose relaxed state and pass into rigor Stressed animals: less glycogen and ATP so more rapid rigor

Answer 278

Fixes the length of the sarcomeres and therefore the muscle's length and potential texture Muscles entering rigor is a very contracted state -> tough meat Muscles entering rigor in a relaxed or stretched state -> tender meat (hip suspension during chilling mechanically reduces shortening of the main muscles)

Answer 279

Muscles should enter rigor mortis at 10-15C for optimum tenderness Cold shortening = tough meat due to very fast chilling of carcassess immediately after slaughter (especially lamb, T<10C, pH>6) Muscle temperature drop shouldn't be below 10C in first 10h (beef) or 7h (pork)

Answer 280

Aim is to accelerate the pH decline after death in order to chill without risk of cold contraction/shortening Electrical current passed through carcass to endure the meat is tender under rapid chilling It accelerates the normal PM changes (depletion of glycogen and ATP) so muscle sets in rigor mortis sooner and can be chilled

Answer 281

The resolution of rigor mortis Natural process which improves eating quality of beef (flavour and tenderness) Held under refrigerated and controlled storage conditions Enzymatic proteolytic degradation -> tenderness Rate of tenderisation differs with species and increases with temperature Recommended ageing times before meat is consumed: - poultry: 1 day - pork: 4-10 days - lamb: 7-14 days - beef: 10-21 days

Answer 282

Critical for meat hygiene, safety, product shelf life, appearance and eating quality Carcass chilling should start within 1h of exsanguination and occur so that a temperature of 4C or less is reached within 24h And then cold chain until consumption!

Answer 283

Slow air refrigeration: - used rarely, in small abattoirs - 1. carcass 'draining' or 'drying' at ambient temperature for a few hours - 2. pre-refrigeration (around 10C, 75% relative air humidity - RH) - 3. refrigeration (4-7C, 85-90% RH) - long time at ambient temperature for growth of microbes, relatively high weight loss (3%) Rapid air refrigeration: - most common - carcasses exposed to air at 1 to -1C, 90% RH and 1-3m/sec circulation for 24-36h (cattle) or 18-24h (pigs, lambs) - weight loss less (1.5-2%) Ultra rapid air refrigeration: - carcasses exposed to intensive circulation (2-4m/sec) of very cold (-4 to -6C) and humid (90-100%) air in special tunnels for 1-3h - then refrigeration at -1 to 2C for 18-22h (cattle) or for 14-16h (pigs) with slow air circulation (0.1-0.3m/s) - low weight loss (1%) - problem is cold shortening

Answer 284

Poultry offals and/or poultry if sold frozen | Problem is cross contamination and water absorption

Answer 285

``` Beef: 3-4 weeks Veal: 3 weeks Lamb: 1-2 weeks Pig: 10-14 days Offals: 3 days ```

Answer 286

Putrefactive type spoilage: proteins -> polypeptides -> amino acids -> ammonia -> hydrogen sulphide and amines Souring type spoilage: carbohydrates -> acids Rancidity: oxidation of fats -> free fatty acids -> aldehydes/ketones Colour change to grey, brown or green: changes of myoglobin into oxidised form

Answer 287

= unpleasant sensory characteristic consequence of the accumulation of a mixture of microbial metabolites First stage: sweet, fruity odour (ethyl esters) Advanced stage: putrid odour (accumulation of sulphur compounds, ammonia and amines): - particularly if Pseudomonas is dominant - and acetoin, diacetyl and 3-methylbutanol if Brochothrix thermosphacta is dominant Ultimately signs of spoilage include meat greening (with or without fluorescence) and slime layer

Answer 288

Prevents secondary contamination, but doesn’t extend shelf life (shelf life 1-2 weeks) Signs of spoilage become noticeable at microbial levels between 107/g (off-odour) and 108/g (slime), but not always The composition of microbiota and their metabolic patterns more relevant for spoilage than the microbial numbers At <5oC, dominant is Pseudomonas (lower pH; beef) At >5oC, Brochotrix thermosphacta more dominant (higher pH; pork, lamb) Poultry – similar but faster (higher initial contamination)

Answer 289

Poorer microbial status due to: - usually higher initial levels - distribution of surface meat contamination throughout the product during mincing - higher growth rate of bacteria due to damaged tissue membranes, finer structure and larger surface area in minced meat Dominant spoilage organisms: - Pseudomonas - psychotrophic Enterobacteriaceae

Answer 290

Vac-pac technology: exclusion of air from the package prevents growth of aerobes (e.g. Pseudomonas) Problems: - But proliferation of micro-aerophilic microbiota (lactic acid bacteria: Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Carnobacterium), in the case of low-pH - Lactic acid produced: ‘dairy’ or ‘cheesy’ odour/flavour Shelf life of 3 months for beef Requirements: - low bacterial level - hygienic handling - pH< 5.8 (otherwise green sulphomyoglobin) - T< 2C (Clostridium botulinum)

Answer 291

Gas impermeable packaging materials supress aerobes CO2 eliminates oxidative rancidity of fats Carbon dioxide dissolves in water on the meat surface - produces carbonic acid - lowers the surface pH of the meat Dominant microbiota on saturated carbon dioxide packaged meat include Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc and Carnobacterium (similar to vacuum packaging) Storage significantly longer (several months) 100% CO2 causes a brown colour of the meat - normal red colour recovers when packaging opened

Answer 292

Use of selected gases within an impermeable plastic pack Oxygen: red colour - oxymyoglobin) CO2: bacteriostatic, fungiostatic Generally comprise of 60-75% CO2, 10-25% oxygen and 15-30% nitrogen Type of spoilage depends on the gas composition: - If high level of oxygen: pseudomonas (putrefactive) - If higher level of CO2: lactic acid bacteria

Answer 293

Freezing in industrial abattoirs normally carried out in ‘freezing tunnels’: - air between 20-40C - relative humidity of 95-100% - circulation of 2-4 m/s. Meat freezes (cryoscopy points) at between -1.5 and -1.8C (muscle tissue) and -2.2°C (fatty tissue) Only 75% of water in meat frozen at - 5C, around 90% at - 30C and 100% at -60C Bacteria inhibited at -7C, yeasts at 12C Slow freezing: better survival of bacteria Rapid freezing: water inside bacterial cell crystallises leading to cell death Shelf life at -18C, RH 95-100C: - beef: 12 months - lamb: 8-9 months - pork: 6-7 months - poultry: 4-5 months - oily fish: 2-3 months

Answer 294

Enzymes concentrated in liquid phase and active in frozen meat 1. If frozen meat is stored non packaged, the surface ice can evaporate (sublimation) and the exposed meat can oxidise -> dry, discoloured patches (freezing burns) 2. chemical spoilage: oxidation of fat (free fatty acids -> aldehydes/ketones) -> rancidity Fatty tissues with a higher content of unsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids (soft fat) become rancid sooner

Answer 295

2-6% salt and nitrate <200mg/kg Salt reduces aw Generates N-nitrosamines: carcinogenic Gives a nice red/pink colour when cooked (nitrosylhaemochrome)

Answer 296

Phase of intensive growth and metabolism of lactic acid bacteria, accompanied with rapid fall of pH Natural: - aerobic gram negative flora of chilled meat (pseudomonas) replaced by gram-positive facultative anaerobes and micro-aerophiles (Micrococcus, Staphylococus, Lactobacillus) - more acid-tolerant gram-negatives (E. coli O157, Salmonella) may persist - gram-positive pathogens may grow if pH fall is slow or insufficient Fermentation with starter cultures: - same but faster - competitiveness of starter organisms is a prerequisite

Answer 297

Cheese, yogurt Salami and fermented sausages Buttermilk

Answer 298

= A result of aerobic or anaerobic pyrolysis of woods, their polysaccharides: cellulose, hemi-cellulose and lignin Starts at around 170°C, and at temperatures up to 270°C is endothermic, and above that has an intensive exothermic nature Cold (30C), warm (40-60C) or hot (70-80C) smoking Can be hardwood smoke or liquid (injected): - Drying - Phenols and formaldehyde - Temperature

Answer 299

Removal of water Methods: - most often carried out by keeping product suspended in air - lyophilisation: meat first frozen and then exposed to very low pressure of 5-6mbar in vacuum at 20-40C, 90% of water is removed, product remains same volume but 70% of the weight

Answer 300

1. High-moisture products - having an aw value of 0.9-1.0 (e.g. cooked sausage, cooked ham) - those with aw >0.95 and pH >5.2 have to be refrigerated at <5°C - those with aw 0.91-0.95 and pH >5.2 have to be refrigerated <10°C - those with aw 0.9-0.95 and pH <5.0 can be stored without refrigeration 2. Intermediate-moisture products: - having an aw value of 0.6-0.9 (e.g. dried ham, salami), that can be stored without refrigeration 3. Low-moisture products: - having an aw value of <0.6 (e.g. lyophilized meat) that are self-stable

Answer 301

1. Pasteurisation - in water or steam <100C - various sausages (70-80C), canned hames (62-68C) and hot smoked meats - normally destroys all vegetative cells of psychrophilic and mesophilic microorganisms, but some vegetative cells of thermophilic bacteria, as well as all spores, can survive - then stored with refrigeration 2. Boiling in water >100C - product centre reaches 80-90C - e.g. liver pate, black pudding, sausage - kills all vegetative forms of microbes, but not spores - products need refrigeration 3. Commercial 'sterilisation' at >100C - usually in pressurized steam autoclaves, e.g. with canned meats sealed in a metal container treated at 105-130C (this kills all vegetative forms) - spores either destroyed or injured to such an extent that they are rendered unable to germinate in the product - Sterilized cans, such as so called botulinum-treated (e.g. 121C for 20 min in the centre), can be stored for years with no refrigeration

Answer 302

``` After dehiding (initially, carcass meat is sterile if animal is healthy) E. coli O157, Salmonella and Listeria monocytogenes ```

Answer 303

E. coli O157, Salmonella and Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 304

"Gluing" of bacteria to the hide 23% solution of food grade insect produced resin Shellac in ethanol Spraying post slaughter, pre-skinning

Answer 305

``` Steam pasteurisation: - 105C - Meat temperature >80C (>85C causes permanent damage) - if visible faecal spots <1in Knife trimming: - if >1" Hot water washing: - 80C Organic acids (lactic, acetic, citric, fumaric): Irradiation: Bacteriophage treatments Electricity (high voltage pulsed field) High pressure (400-450MNm-2) ```

Answer 306

``` Zoonosis surveillance (e.g. rabies, schmallenberg, Salmonella) Advise on control measures within veterinary remit (husbandry, hygiene, farming practices, disinfection) ```

Answer 307

``` Legislative criteria in food Food Safety Criteria Process Hygiene Criteria Primary production controls Food Chain Information FBO controls / FSA Audits ``` Consumer advice regarding burgers Supplier testing ``` Functions outside slaughterhouses: - dairy hygiene inspections - shellfish controls (scotland) - wine standards inspections At slaughterhouses: - enforcement of animal welfare regulations - notifiable disease controls - TSE/BSE testing requirements - meat production adhering to legislation Veterinary surveillance at abattoirs: - AM, PM - drug residues - health marks ```

Answer 308

Import of live animals and/or products of animal origin | Document check, identity check and physical check

Answer 309

Caudal lung lobes | Retropharyngeal and bronchomediastinal lymph nodes

Answer 310

Inhalation Bacteria enter macrophages in lungs Reproduce in macrophages Caseous necrosis -> liquifies

Answer 311

``` Progressive weight loss Weakness Chronic low moist cough Loss of appetite Fluctuating pyrexia Mastitis Enlarged lymph nodes ```

Answer 312

EU directive 64/432/EEC | Also national legislation since 1950s

Answer 313

Requirement to notify: - suspected disease in bovines or deer - suspected disease in a carcase of any bovine animal or other farmed or pet mammal - presence of M. bovis which is identified by a laboratory examination of a sample taken from any mammal (except man) or from the carcase, products or surroundings of any such mammal

Answer 314

TB is confirmed Complete herd depopulation -> restock 60 days -> test 6 and 12 months Or test and remove program with specified herd plan -> test until 2 clear tests

Answer 315

If low risk area - 1 clear test 60 days | If high risk area - 2 clear tests 60 days

Answer 316

1. Movement restrictions - immediately after suspicion through testing or PM inspection 2. Repeated testing (short interval testing): - tuberculin skin tests every 60 days - must have 1 or 2 clear consecutive tests before regain bovine TB free status (depending on PM findings) - gamma interferon blood testing may also be used (compulsory for new lesions or culture positive TB breakdown in low incidence areas and edge areas) 3. Slaughter of any cattle that react to the test 4. Cattle tracing 5. Testing neighbourhood herds - risk basedd

Answer 317

``` Can be used at shorter intervals Can detect infected animals earlier Could reduce the duration of herd restriction Less specific - more false positives More sensitive? ```

Answer 318

Pre movement and post movement in Scotland | Pre movement in England and Wales (and post movement for low risk areas)

Answer 319

``` Anthrax BSE Brucella abortus Bluetongue CBPP Enzootic bovine leukosis FMD Lumpy skin disease Rabies Rift Valley fever Rinderpest TB (M bovis) Vesicular stomatitis Warble fly (Scotland only) ```

Answer 320

A disease which is named in section 88 of the animal health act 1981 (cattle plague, pleuropneumonia, FMD, sheep pox, sheep scab, swine fever) Or in an order made under the animal health act Suspicion must be reported to APHA

Answer 321

Public health significance (e.g. TB, anthrax, rabies) Economic impact on agricultural industry (e.g. FMD, CSF, CBPP) Impact on trade Animal welfare impact (e.g. FMD) Prevent introduction of exotic disease (e.g. FMD) To collect information (e.g. Aujeszky's) To confirm absence (e.g. blue tongue, PED)

Answer 322

C imicola in Mediterranean C obsoletes and/or C pulicaris in Europe No public health risk

Answer 323

All ruminants - sheep, cattle, deer, goats, camelids | Notifiable

Answer 324

Pig keepers, their vets, or vet labs must report suspect and confirmed cases in pigs kept in England to APHA APHA is permitted to share identifying details of suspected and confirmed cases to AHDB Pork (industry levy board) for disease control purposes Unlike other notifiable diseases in pigs, no legislative requirement for official testing, culling, movement controls or other restrictions (Industry led rather than APHA)

Answer 325

``` To collect information To confirm absence To detect quickly To control as part of compulsory disease control programme by the state To facilitate international trade To prevent risks to the public ```

Answer 326

``` Anthrax Brucella melitensis Bluetongue Contagious agalactia Contagious epididymitis FMD Peste Des Petits Ruminants Rabies Rift Valley Fever Sheep and goat pox Scrapie ```

Answer 327

``` African Swine Fever Anthrax Aujeszky’s disease Classical Swine Fever FMD Rabies Swine Vesicular Disease Teschen Vesicular stomatitis Porcine Epidemic Diarrhoea ```

Answer 328

Newcastle disease Avian Influenza Pigeon Paramyxovirus

Answer 329

``` African Horse Sickness Contagious Equine Metritis Dourine Epizootic Lymphangitis Equine Infectious Anaemia Equine Viral Arteritis Equine Viral Encephalomyelitis Glanders and Farcy Rabies Vesicular Stomatitis West Nile Fever ```

Answer 330

``` TB Epizootic haemorrhagic virus disease Rabies Warble fly Anthrax FMD ```

Answer 331

An EU system to allow rapid exchange of information between authorities responsible for animal health and disease Allows monitoring of outbreaks and for measures to be taken to prevent spread

Answer 332

A disease which has statutory requirement to report laboratory confirmed isolation of organisms Zoonoses Oder 1989: - Salmonella and Brucella - gives power to take samples, declare infected places, and to require cleansing and disinfection Specified Animal Pathogens Order 2008: - Trichinella - Mycobacterium bovis

Answer 333

``` Aetiology: - Picornaviridae, Aphthovirus - ssRNA - 7 distinct serotypes, not cross protective Animals affected: cloven hoofed (cattle, sheep, goats, camelids, pigs, deer) Tranmission: - aerosols or droplets - oral infection poor route in ruminants - pigs usually initially via oral - excreted in saliva, resp excretions, milk, semen, faeces, urine Morbidity: 100% Mortality: 2-20% Incubation period: 2-12 days Recovery: 2 weeks unless secondary infections Diagnosis: - virus isolation: tissue culture - antigen detection: ELISA, PCR - Ab detection: ELISA, SNT ```

Answer 334

``` Drop in milk yield Rectal temperature 40.5C Drooling thick 'ropey' saliva Lip smacking Depressed, sick Uncomfortable on feet Vesicles on mouth - tongue, dental pad, hard palate, lips, muzzle, gums Vesicles on feet - coronary band, interdigital space Vesicles on teats and udder Vesicles rupture in 24h and heal after 1 week Abortion or still birth Death in young animals (myocarditis) ```

Answer 335

Mild, if any, signs Fever Oral lesions Lameness

Answer 336

``` Foot lesions - more severe than cattle, coronary band, heel, interdigital space Lameness Snout vesicles Oral vesicles less common Drooling is rare ```

Answer 337

``` Pigs: - Vesicular stomatitis - Swine vesicular disease - Vesicular exanthema of swine - Foot rot - Chemical and thermal burns Cattle: - Rinderpest, IBR, BVD, MCF, Bluetongue - Bovine mammilitis, Bovine papular stomatitis ```

Answer 338

1. Restrict and control national movement of animals: (Licensing) 2. Identify disease (reporting and surveillance, Vet inspections) 3. Impose 3km protection zone and 10km surveillance zone 4. Cull all animals on confirmed infected farms within 24 hours of first report. 5. Cull all animals on dangerous contact farms 6. Rapid and safe disposal of carcasses. 7. Cleaning, disinfection and restocking

Answer 339

Food Safety Act, 1990 and General Food Law (Regulation (EC) No 178/2002)

Answer 340

<0.5mg/kg Pb

Answer 341

Rodenticide poisoning

Answer 342

Pregnant women | Those on warfarin

Answer 343

Hepatotoxicity Pulmonary toxicity Increased long term cancer risk (carcinogens) Food contamination can occur e.g. as a result of bee exposure Likely low risk from milk and meat (lack of data)

Answer 344

Tested for Salmonella 3 weeks prior to slaughter FCI received 24h in advance and be available for inspection AM inspection done by OV evaluation of FCI and inspection of 20% of all live animals in batch Must be alive prior to further processing (except for foie gras)

Answer 345

All total rejection | Except localised overscald >2mm deep -> local rejection of affected area

Answer 346

Due to severe hypostatic congestion of head and neck region due to inadequate exsanguination If stun to kill: public health concern If stunned with electrical bath and killed by exsanguination: public health and animal welfare concerns DOA - lateral congestion as most ventral surface

Answer 347

Report the case to APHA and make a referral to Trading Standards as a suspected in welfare transport case FBO should report the case to a collector so it can be tested later for BSE OV should not perform the PM in the large because conditions are inadequate

Answer 348

Presence of unclotted blood oozing from nostrils and sudden death are suggestive of anthrax APHA must be notified immediately Carcase should be detained and so should all direct contacts (whilst alive) until further instructions

Answer 349

Suggets infectious as multiple affected Blisters besides ulcers has FMD as ddx APHA should be notified immediately Batch should be detained whilst alive until further instructions

Answer 350

Tubercles in mesenteric and mediastinal lymph nodes | Tubercles in udder and parotid lymph nodes

Answer 351

Not delivered by FBO so FBO doesn't have control over it

Answer 352

Foodborne intoxication = organisms that produce specific toxins in the food that is ingested: - Clostridium botulinum (adults) - Staph aureus heat stable enterotoxin - Bacillus cereus (emetic syndrome) Invasive infections = bacteria ingested through food consumption, the organism invades and penetrates intestinal mucosa - local enteric infection (non-typhoid Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter) - systemic infection (typhoid Salmonella, Listeria monocytogenes) Toxico-infection = bacteria ingested through food consumption, the organism produces toxins while in the GIT - E coli O157:H7 - Vibrio cholerae - Clostridium perfringens - Bacillus cereus (diarrhoea syndrome) Clostridium botulinum (infants)

Answer 353

``` Enterobacteriaceae (facultatively anaerobic): - Salmonella - Yersinia enterocolitica - E coli O157 (and other VTEC) - Shigella Others: - Campylobacter (micro-aerophilic) - Vibrio (facultatively anaerobic) ```

Answer 354

``` Yersinia enterocolitica (more prevalent) and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Characteristics: - gram negative, non-sporogenic rods - facultatively anaerobic - non-motile at 35-37С - usually motile at 22-25С - temperature range 1-44C (28-29C optimal) - salt: can grow 5-7% NaCl - pH: 4.0-4.7 ``` Incubation: 1-11 days (1-1.5 day) Infection routes: - pigs most important source: Y enterocolitica very common in throat, tonsils and faeces - raw, minced pork - also found in water, soil and dogs Disease in humans: - acute disease: fever, gastroenteritis, sometimes bloody diarrhoea, lymphadenitis (mesenteric), pseudo-appendicitis, septicaemia, liver (and other) abscesses - secondary complications (1-3 weeks later): arthritis, erythema nodosum, myositis

Answer 355

1) Pigs and pork: - asymptomatic carriers of Y. enterocolitica biotype 4 serotype О:3 - evisceration (handling heads-tonsils and tongue) - psychrotroph - raw pork products (meat, tongue) 2) Cattle and beef products - asymptomatic carriers of serotype О:9 - possible cross-contamination from pork to beef during handling in butchers and retail 3) Milk and milk products - inadequately pasteurised milk ideal environment for growth of psychrotrophic Y. enterocolitica 4) Vegetables 5) Others - dog and cats - wild rodents (biotype 1B serotype О:8 i О:21) - water, ponds, lakes

Answer 356

Pigs originated from controlled herds? | Seropositive (but unstable immune response)

Answer 357

Head removal before carcass splitting and removal of the tongue - hygienic transfer to separate line for further handling and inspection Avoid palpation and incision during inspection Tying the rectum

Answer 358

Maintaining cold chain (potential problems due to pychrotrophic nature) Pasteurise milk and dairy products Raw pork kept separate from other foods Proper cooking - 72C for 2-3 mins

Answer 359

Vibrio cholerae, parahaemolyticus and vulnificus Characteristics: - facultatively anaerobic halophilic (0.5-10% NaCl), alkaliphilic (pH 7.8-8.6), straight or curved, motile rods - seawater or 2 to 3% (range 0.5 to 10%) NaCl is required for survival and growth - growth in water: minimum 10-19C Primary source is faecally contaminated water - marine water, estuaries

Answer 360

Incubation 6h - 5 days Toxico-infection Disease caused by action of an enterotoxin produced by mainly the O1 & O139 serogroups High infectious dose, 10^6 cells Sources: - poor sanitation, using contaminated water for food preparation or to drink - shellfish - filtrate sea water and concentrate V cholerae - seafood, including raw, lightly cooked or recontaminated shellfish or fish Symptoms: - profuse watery diarrhoea with ‘rice water’ stools (up to 10 litres per day) - severe abdominal pain - vomiting - fluid loss can lead to severe dehydration, acidosis, shock and circulatory collapse - death in few hours if not rehydrated

Answer 361

1. Consume only potable water 2. Dispose of sewage correctly 3. Use only potable water in seafood harvesting and preparation 4. Do not harvest seafood from waters containing Vibrio cholerae 5. Avoid raw seafoods 6. Chill seafood to <4°C at harvest and after 7. Exclude infected individuals from handling food

Answer 362

Similar characteristics and sources to V. cholerae (fish and shellfish) Invades gut epithelial cells producing a haemolytic cytotoxin  leading to diarrhoea Incubation 12-24h ``` Milder symptoms than cholera: - abdominal pain - diarrhoea - cramps - nausea - sometimes vomiting - low fever - chills - headache The disease is usually self-limiting ``` = The most common foodborne disease in Japan (raw sea foods) Control measures similar to other Vibrio spp.

Answer 363

Similar characteristics to V. cholerae Similar sources Incubation 16-38h Severe symptoms: - septicaemic invasive infection - fever - nausea - necrotic skin lesions - death Low infection dose, up to 100 cells Control measures similar to other Vibrio spp. People with liver disease or other chronic disease should not eat raw shellfish, particularly oysters

Answer 364

Invasive infection Sources: - animal intestines (asymptomatic carriers) and humans - ubiquitous in soil, water, plants, silage etc - working surfaces in the food industry (can form persistent biofilms) - ready to eat (RTE) foods: raw milk, soft cheeses, sliced deli products, vegetables, salads, unpasteurised juice, cooked meats, smoked fish Characteristics: - motile rod at 20-25C, non-motile at 37C - facultative anaerobe, but prefers a microaerophilic atmosphere if O2 is present - very resistant to drying - growth at 4C (can grow at 0°C, even -1.5C) to 45C - tolerates 10% NaCl - tolerate low aw - pH: 4.1-9.6 Invasive listeriosis: - incubation 1-21 days - invades GI mucosa -> macrophages -> bloodstream to CNS (meningitis) or foetus - problem in immunocompromised people (pregnant, AIDS, cancer, young, elderly): - septicaemia - meningitis - encephalitis - abortion Non-invasive listeriosis: - mostly enteric diarrhoea, mild fever, headache, myalgia - 1-3 day incubation - healthy individuals at risk

Answer 365

1. Use GHP and HACCP in food production. 2. Immunocompromised individuals and other target populations should avoid high-risk foods. 3. Pasteurize milk and dairy products; don’t consume unpasteurized products. 4. Prevent cross-contamination and recontamination of heat-treated foods. 5. Completely separate raw and cooked products during meat product manufacture. 6. Re-heat ready-to-eat foods adequately.

Answer 366

S aureus: 10^6 C botulinum: 10^4 - 10^5 B cereus: 10^7 - 10^8

Answer 367

= Staphyloenterotoxicosis Characteristics: - non-motile, facultative anaerobe - extremely resistant to desiccation - 8 toxins (A, B, C1, C2, C3, D, E, F) most common type A, then D - growth at 7-46°C (enterotoxin not produced <8°C) - pH: 4-9.8 - tolerate low aw - tolerate 10% NaCl (and produce enterotoxin A) - enterotoxin highly heat resistant (not inactivated by boiling at 100C) Main sources: - skin, hands, anterior nares (30-50% of people harbour it), skin lesions - milk - environment (dust vegetations) ``` Incubation 1-6h Main symptoms at 6-24h: - nausea - vomiting - diarrhoea - abdominal pain - no fever! - collapse and dehydration in severe cases ```

Answer 368

1. Use good personal hygiene practices when handling foods. 2. People with skin infections should not handle foods. 3. Use GHP when handling foods. 4. Chill cooked food rapidly in small quantities. 5. Store cooked or heat-treated foods at <4°C or >60°C. 6. Avoid extensive handling of foods. 7. Avoid delays between cooking and eating.

Answer 369

Source: - typically foodborne form caused by poorly canned, bottled foods or in honey - major scares in 1970s from tinned salmon and corned beef - soil, water, vegetables - animal and human faeces (asymptomatic) Pathogenesis: - germinating spores in anaerobic environment lead to formation of vegetative cells that release a potent toxin - toxin acts to block nerve synapsis causing paralysis and death 2 types of food borne disease: 1. Botulism (intoxication) 2. Infant botulism (toxico-infection) ``` 12-36h onset Duration days to several months Symptoms: - nausea - vomiting - visual disturbances - vertigo ``` Proteolytic: - toxins A, B, F - Toxic dose: 0.005-0.2mcg - minimum pH 4.6 - maximum NaCl 10% - minimum Aw 0.93 - temperature range for growth 12.5-48C - decimation reduction time of spores at 100C: 25 mins - D value at 121C = 0.2 min Non proteolytic: - toxins B, E, F - toxic dose 0.1-0.5mcg - minimum pH 5 - maximum NaCl 3% - minimum Aw 0.97 - temperature range for growth 3.5-48C - decimation reduction time of spores at 100C: <0.1 min - D value at 80C = 1 min The ‘Botulinum cook’ is a 12D reduction of  C. botulinum spores, i.e. 2.5 min at 121C F0 of 3 minutes is the heat process required  for a low acid canned food and will kill at least 10^12 spores Toxin is sensitive to heat: - treatment at 80C rapidly denatures toxin - approx. 1000 x reduction of types A and B in 1 minute - all toxins inactivated by heating at 80C for 30 minutes

Answer 370

Children under 1 year old do not have established gut microflora, so pathogen may colonize more easily Organism is ingested and proliferates in GIT, producing toxin Honey most common source Neuromuscular symptoms similar to botulism, resulting in constipation, weak cry and respiratory distress Usually self limited

Answer 371

1. Avoid home canning of vegetables, fish and meats. 2. Discard cans with faulty seals. 3. Heat any suspect food to 80°C for 15 minutes to destroy toxin. 4. Store home-canned foods at <3°C. 5. Do not feed honey to babies or infants. 6. Do not feed infants non-heat treated foods

Answer 372

Characteristics: - gram positive, spore forming, motile rod - produces two toxins which are heat stable - highly resistant spores and toxins - D value of 0.02-0.06 minutes at 121C = 0.3-27 minutes at 100C Sources: - mainly pulses and rice - also other raw food: cereals, dried vegetables, potatoes, milk, cream, spices - also cooked: roast/fried meat products, soups, cooked/fried rice meals - soil, dust, water, vegetation Most often associated with cooked rice products kept at room temperature 2 syndromes: 1. Emetic syndrome: intoxication: - Infectious dose high (>10^5) so pathogen growth in food required - vegetative cells killed by cooking, spores are not - if cooked rice/pulses are not chilled, spores can germinate, bacteria grows and toxins produced -> ingestion of pre-formed toxin (intoxication) - toxins are not destroyed by re-heating - emetic toxin induces rapid and profuse vomiting (around 15 minutes after consumption, but up to 14h later) - symptoms last 6-36h 2. Diarrhoeal syndrome: toxicoinfection - spores or vegetative cells are ingested, and toxin is produced in the GIT (toxicoinfection) - infectious dose high (10^5 - 10^8), so pathogen growth in food required - enteric toxin induces profuse, painful but short-lived watery diarrhoea and abdominal pain(4-16 hours after consumption) - symptoms last 12-24h

Answer 373

Prepare food in small batches Chill cooked food rapidly in small quantities Store cooked food at <5°C or >60°C Re-heat cooked foods thoroughly to kill vegetative cells

Answer 374

Characteristics: - infection dose >10^6 (growth in the food) Sources: - Main type A toxin producing strains survive in animal GI tract (asymptomatic carriers) and soils, water, dust - spores contaminate meat and may survive cooking (thermo resistant) - contaminated foods, cooked in bulk and inadequately cooled - cooking activates C. perfringens spores which germinate in the anaerobic conditions - foods containing gravy, with long slow cooking, in bulk and in advance - POORLY STORED COOKED MEAT (e.g. Xmas Turkey) including meat re-heated in mass catering allows germination and massive numbers of vegetative cells (>106) Ingestion leads to sporulation of vegetative cells to produce enterotoxin production in small intestine leading to diarrhoea (toxicoinfection) Incubation 8-24 h Symptoms: - Severe abdominal pain with profuse diarrhoea The illness last for up to 2 days, recovery is usually complete (could be fatal in IC people)

Answer 375

Cook food thoroughly to kill vegetative cells Chill cooked food, especially meat dishes, rapidly in small quantities Store cooked food at <5°C or >60°C to prevent growth Limit the storage interval for cooked food to reduce growth of survivors Reheat food to at least 75°C to kill vegetative cells and to inactivate toxin if pre-formed in food

Answer 376

``` Listeria monocytogenes Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens Clostridium botulinum Bacillus cereus ```

Answer 377

Foodborne infection = infection with an agent (usually bacterial or viral) that results in (often diarrhoeal) disease - frequently zoonotic - e.g. Salmonella, E. coli, Norovirus Food poisoning = the exposure to toxins (microbial or other) that results in disease - frequently caused by contamination, poor storage or poor handling - e.g. Staphylococcus toxin, Bacillus enterotoxin, afalotoxins from fungi

Answer 378

Main sources: - meat - eggs - raw milk - faecally contaminated fruit/veg Symptoms: - gastroenteritis - diarrhoea and vomiting - fever - sometimes invasive septicaemia

Answer 379

Main sources: - beef - raw milk - faecally contaminated fruit/veg Symptoms: - haemorrhagic diarrhoea - renal failure

Answer 380

Campylobacter jejuni and coli: - gram negative spiral rods - microaerophilic and slightly thermophilic (41-42C) Most common worldwide cause of human bacterial gastroenteritis Main sources: - POULTRY meat (persists well in the caeca) - also red meat and water Incubation: 1-10 days (usually 2-5) Symptoms (last 3-6 days usually): - gastroenteritis: diarrhoea (frequently with blood) and vomiting - abdominal pain - headache - fever - sometimes invasive septicaemia - CNS based sequelae Main at risk groups? - <5 - >65 - bowel cancer patients - those taking proton pump inhibitor drugs (increases gastric pH)

Answer 381

``` Bacteraemia Hepatitis Pancreatitis Miscarriage Post-infection complications: - reactive arthritis - neurological disorders such as Guillain-Barré syndrome (polio-like form of paralysis that can result in respiratory and severe neurological dysfunction or death in a small number of cases) ```

Answer 382

Automated plucking, evisceration and scald and wash tanks - process up to 200 birds per minute

Answer 383

Main FSA target is to reduce contamination of carcasses >1000 cfu/g Secondary target is to reduce lower level contamination No current targets for liver or deep muscle contamination which appear to be increasing

Answer 384

```   EPEC = Entero Pathogenic E. coli  (Childhood diarrheoa)  ETEC = Entero Toxigenic (Travellers diarrhoea) EIEC = Entero Invasive EHEC = Entero Haemorrhagic (STEC/VTEC)  EAEC = Entero Aggregative (persistent diarrhoea -  increasingly food associated) ```

Answer 385

5% | Distal rectum - requires LEE T3SS to colonise

Answer 386

Sources: - often poorly cooked ground/minced beef (hamburger disease) or cross contamination of cooked meats from raw infected meat

Answer 387

Usually part of normal gut flora | May cause diarrhoea following antimicrobials or chemotherapy - disruption of normal flora (major problem in hospitals)

Answer 388

ssRNA calicivirus Highly infectious-main  ‘Winter Vomiting Bug’ Largest cause of diarrheoal disease in UK Associated with outbreaks in schools, hospitals, nurseries, cruise ships etc. (and hotels hosting Veterinary conferences) Symptoms: - fevers - headache - abdominal pain - vomiting and diarrhoea Most cases through person-to-person transmission but around 70,000 foodborne cases each yea

Answer 389

``` ssRNA picornavirus that is excreted in high amounts in faeces of infected humans (up to 108 infectious doses/g) Now rare in UK Transmission: - person-to-person (poor hygiene) - anal intercourse - faecal contamination of food and water Some protection through passive (Ig) or active vaccination High risk groups include sewage workers ``` Foodborne hepatitis A: - main source is contaminated shellfish (oysters in particular) - virus replicates in GI tract, migrates to liver causing cell damage - symptoms include nausea, diarrhoea, vomiting, jaundice and ‘flu-like’ illness

Answer 390

Usually causes a short-lived, self-limiting hepatitis but can lead to severe disease and death Pigs considered likely source

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