Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharm 1 > Pulm > Flashcards

Pulm Flashcards

1
Q

What meds are First line for acute/chronic asthma symptoms and exercise-induced bronchospasm?

A

SABAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What meds cause tachycardia, hypokalemia, tremors?

A

SABAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

should LABAs be used as monotherapy?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“ipratropium (Atrovent®)

Albuterol/ipratropium (Duoneb®, Combivent®)”

A

SAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is 1st line for severe status asthmaticus ?

A

systemic corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes Moon face, Buffalo hump, Hirsuitism (dark hair in abnormal places, poss deeper voice in F), Weight gain, Muscle wasting & weakness, Bruising, Skin thinning, Mood changes, Growth retardation, Peptic Ulcers, Hyperglycemia, Hypertension, Hypokalemia, Osteoporosis, Cataracts, Glaucoma, Immune suppression

A

systemic corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
"Beclomethasone HFA (Qvar®)
Budesonide nebs, DPI (Pulmicort®)
Ciclesonide HFA (Alvesco®)
Fluticasone furoate (ArnuityEllipta ®) DPI
Fluticasone propionate (Flovent HFA® or Diskus® DPI), Mometasone (Asmanex®)"
A

ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1st line treatment as long-term controllers in persistent asthma.

A

ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Severe COPD w/ increased exacerbation risk that is not controlled by 1st line LAMAs and LABAs

A

ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which meds cause Oral candidiasis, dysphonia, cough?

A

ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

major 3A4 substrate.

Interaction with 3A4 inhibitors: ritonavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole

A

ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Asthma + COPD: Formoterol (Perforomist® nebulization), Salmeterol (Serevent®)
COPD only: Indacaterol (Arcapta Neohaler®), Olodaterol (Striverdi Respimat®), Arformoterol (Brovana®)
1 inhalation Q12 hrs”

A

LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the BBW for LABAs?

A

BBW: do not use as monotherapy (increased mortality risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

put LABA, LAMA, and ICS in order of use for ashtma and copd

A

“Asthma : use ICS, then add LABA, then LAMA.

COPD: use LAMA, the LABA, then ICS”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

“Asthma + COPD: tiotropium (Spiriva®). Onset: 30 minutes; Duration: 24+ hours
COPD: Umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta)
Aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair)
Glycopyrrolate (Seebri Neohaler)”

A

LAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is 1st line in copd?

A

LAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

“Montelukast (Singulair®), Zafirlukast (Accolate®), Zileuton (Zyflo CR®)
PO”

A

Oral leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the BBW for montelukast?

A

Black Box Warning for montelukast: neuropsych side effects (Agitation, depression, sleeping problems, suicidal thoughts and actions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

main SE of Zafilukast and Zileuton:

A

hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

meds for eosinophilic asthma

A

IL-5 receptor antagonists (type of mab biologic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which drug for ashmta / COPD has many many interactions?

A

Theophylline (theo-24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

only drug that decreases mortality in COPD

A

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Roflumilast (Daxas®, Daliresp®)

A

Phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE-4) inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SEs: Arthralgias, fever, rash, increased risk of infection, new malignancy, anaphylactic reaction (rare)

A

biologics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what med should you look for in the charts of a kid w/ psych problems?
montelukast
26
CAp outpatient w/o comorbities | treatmetn
amoxicillin 1g PO tid X 5+ days, doxy, or macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin)
27
CAP outpatient w/ comorbities | treatment
"Monotherapy (1st line for COPD/PCN allergic): levofloxacin or moxifloxacin Combo (1st line for others): augmentin OR cefuroxime OR cefpodoxime + macrolide OR doxy Alt: lefamulin PO, IV"
28
CAP inpatient non-severe no MRSA or pseudo | treatmnet
resp fluoroquinolone OR [beta-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, Unasyn, ertapenem) + macrolide/doxy/FQ] X 5d
29
for which CAP pts should you obtain cultures and treat empircally?
inpatient non-severe w/ prior MRSA/psuedo. inpatient severe w/ MRSA/psudo risk
30
for which CAP pts should you obtain cultures and wait to treat? no empiric treatment
inpatient non-severe w/ hospitalization and prior IV abx w/in 90d.
31
CAP inpatient MRSA or pseudo risk
"P: [levofloxacin OR cipro] + Zosyn / cefepime / meropenem / ceftazidime / imipenem X 7d MRSA: [ceftriaxone + azithromycin, OR levofloxacin/moxifloxacin] + vancomycin OR linezolid"
32
CAP inpatient severe no MRSA or pseudo
beta lactam (ceftriaxone / Unasyn / cefotaxime / ertapenem) + macrolide/doxy / levofloxacin/moxifloxacin X 5d
33
list CAP comorbities
"DM; chronic heart, lung, liver, or renal disease; alcohol use disorder; malignancy; or asplenia; on immunosuppressants; or have been on antibiotics in the last 3 months
34
Aspiration PNA | outpatient
augmentin OR moxifloxacin
35
aspiration PNA hospitalisation + not severe
Unasyn
36
Tx for aspiration PNA hospitalisation + severe
Zosyn
37
flu antivirals
neuraminidase inhibitors: oseltamivir (Tamiflu) PO or susp, Peramivir (Rapivab) IV only, Zanamivir (Relenza) inhaled powder baloxavir (Xofluza) PO 1 tab
38
flu antivirals must be started in what timeframe?
w/in 48 hrs of symtom onset
39
bronchitis non-opioid Rx
Benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) 100mg PO Q8 hr PRN cough
40
mod to severe croup tx
dexamethasone Po/IV/IM/inhaled + nebulized epi + supportive (humidified O2, fluid, antipyretics)
41
covid antivirals
Nirmatrelvir and ritonavir (Paxlovid) bid X 5d | Remdesivir (Veklury) Qd IV X 5-10d
42
covid mab
Bebtelovimab IV infusion
43
covid antivirals w/in what timeframe?
5 days of symptom onset
44
covid mab w/in what timeframe?
7 days of symptom onset
45
tamiflu dosing
bid for treatment, Qd for prophylaxis. Adult = 75mg X 5d. Kids <15 kg = 30mg; 15-23kg =45mg; 23-40kg =60mg. Infant <1yr = 3mg/kg.
46
What med would you give to an asthma pt who cannot tolerate ICS?
OLTAs (montelukast)
47
Arthus-Type vs Serum Sickness: which appears 24 hrs after vaccine?
arthus
48
Arthus-Type vs Serum Sickness: which has systemic symptoms?
serum
49
Arthus-Type vs Serum Sickness: which can happen from bug bites?
arthus
50
initial tetanus vaccine, given to kids<7 y/o
DTaP
51
when would you give a Tdap shot to a person w/ a dirty wound?
if last Tdap was >5 years ago or do not have access to their medical records
52
What are the live vaccines?
``` MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) Varicella Rotavirus Intranasal FluMist  Smallpox Yellow fever BCG (Bacillus-Calmette-Guerin) for tuberculosis/treating bladder cancer ```
53
who should not receive live vaccines? 2 groups
AVOID in immunocompromised patients (pregnant, stem cell transplant, organ transplant)
54
Pts taking TNF-alpha inhibitors should be screened for what lung disease?
Tb
55
etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab, certolizumab pegol
TNF inhibitors
56
gold standard test for Tb
QuantiFERON Gold, an Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)
57
first line agents against Tb
Isoniazid (INH) Rifampin Ethambutol Pyrazinamide (=PZA)
58
which 1st line TB drug is never given as monotherapy for active infx?
isoniazid (INH)
59
how to you prevent peripheral nerupathy from INH?
give vitamin B6
60
AE: Peripheral neuropathy Hepatitis/elevations in liver enzymes (transient elevation in ~20%, severe liver injury ~1%) CNS toxicity (memory loss to psychosis or convulsions) Hypersensitivity reactions; drug-induced lupus erythematosu
Isoniazid (INH)
61
combining INH and rifampin increases risk of what?
elevated LFTS
62
which TB drug turns all body fluids red/orange?
rifampin
63
rifampin alt therapy in HIV pt w/ used protease inhibitors
rifabutin
64
which TB drug lowers the effectiveness of OCP?
rifampin (and that class(
65
which 1st line TB drugs induce CYP450?
rifampin, rifabutin
66
for which 1st line TB drug should you monitor LFTs monthly in pts w/ pre-existing liver dz?
INH
67
TB drug w/ AE: N/V, Moderate rises in LFTs to hepatotoxicity, Hyperuricemia
pyrazinamide (PZA)
68
which 1st line TB drugs can affect the kidneys?
pyrazinamide (PZA) and ethambutol
69
which TB drug causes optic neuritis?
ethambutol
70
4 month active TB regimen is what drug combo?
rifapentine-moxifloxacin
71
contraindications for 4 month TB regimen
kids under 12, weight <40kg, pregnant or breastfeeding, extrapulmonary TB, prolonged QT, on drugs w/ interactions
72
treatment regimens for LTBI
3 mo of once weekly INH + rifapentine (3HP) for age 2+; 4 mo of Qd rifampin (4R), 3 mo of Qd isoniaxid + rifampin (3HR)
73
2nd line TB drugs w/ AE: renal toxicity and ototoxicity
"Aminoglycosides (injectables) | Streptomycin IV, amikacin IV, and kanamycin"
74
WHICH 2nd line TB drugs can cause cause bone/joint growth delay, pain, inflammation in children <18 years old. Use with caution.
fluroguinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
75
can FQ be used in pregnancy?
no
76
``` "Aminoglycosides (injectables) Streptomycin IV, amikacin IV, and kanamycin" Capreomycin (injectable) "Fluoroquinolones PO or parenteral Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin " Cycloserine Ethionamide p-Aminosalicylic acid Linezolid Bedaquiline ```
2nd line drugs for TB
77
AE: (long-term): Bone marrow suppression, Peripheral neuropathy, Blindness
linezolid
78
at least __ drugs must be used to treat MDR-TB
4
79
what are the set 3 drugs that must be used to treat MDR-TB?
1) any 1st line PO that is likely to be effective, 2) injectable aminoglycoside or polypeptide (Kanamycin, amikacin, capreomycin, streptomycin), 3) FQ
80
how often are sputum smears and cultures req'ed in MDR-TB?
monthly until conversion
81
how long does treatment continue (non-injectables) after MDR-TB culture is negative?
minimum 18 months
82
what vaccine can cause a + skin Tb test?
BCG
83
is it ok to prescribe meds w/ low levels of known nitrosamine?
yes
84
what intake of meds w/ nitrosamines at or below acceptable daily intake limits is known to be ok?
a person taking a drug that contains nitrosamines at-or-below the acceptable daily intake limits every day for 70 years is not expected to have an increased risk of cancer. 
85
what meds have nitrosamines?
Rifampin, Zantac, Metformin, Losartan, Chantix
86
active TB treatment regimen if 4 month option is contraindicated
6 or 9 month RIPE (all 4)
87
AquADEKs, DEKAs, MVW Complete, Choiceful
fat soluble vitamins (for CF)
88
Class: Creon, Pancreaze, Zenpep PO
Pancrealipase
89
Ursodiol (Actigall, Urso Forte) role in CF
for liver dz in CF
90
Class: Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme), Hypertonic saline for inhalation (HyperSal), N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
mucolytics
91
2 anti-inflammatories | for CF
high dose ibuprofen; azithromycin
92
abx for CF
Inhaled tobramycin, aztreonam, colistin
93
cyproheptadine, dronabinol, Mirtazapine(Remeron), Megestrol (Megace
appetite stimulants
94
ivacaftor (Kalydeco®), lumacaftor/ivacaftor (Orkambi ®), tezacaftor/ivacaftor (Symdeko®, Trikafta® (elexacaftor/ivacaftor/tezacaftor)
gene regulators in CF
95
hepatic or renal adjustments necessary in pancrealipase?
no
96
counseling: take w/ meals. Can mix microbeads for kids w/ food but NOT hot food
pancrealipase
97
what CF med can prevent or dissolve gallstones?
Ursodiol (Actigall, Urso Forte)
98
AEs of what CF drug? HA, dizziness, diarrhea, constipation, dyspepsia, n, back pain, URI
Ursodiol (Actigall, Urso Forte)
99
would you use inhaled and IV abx together for CF?
no
100
adrenal suppression is AE of what CF drug?
megastrol
101
which CF drugs? Contraindication with strong CYP3A inducers
ivacaftor (Kalydeco®), lumacaftor/ivacaftor (Orkambi ®), tezacaftor/ivacaftor (Symdeko®, Trikafta® (elexacaftor/ivacaftor/tezacaftor)
102
AE of what CF drugs? May cause elevated liver enzymes (LFTs)
gene regulators
103
do CF gene regulators req dosage adjustment for hepatic impairment?
yes
104
how to prevent infusion reaction SEs of amphotericin B?
premedicate w/ acetominaphen and benadryl
105
ICS that is ok for pregnancy
budesonide

Pharm 1 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions