Pulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

How Is Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) Defined?

A

○ According to the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, OSA is a breathing disorder characterized by narrowing of the upper airway that impairs normal ventilation during sleep.
○ Recurrent episodes of complete upper airway obstruction (apnea) or partial upper airway obstruction (hypopnea) may occur.
○ The number of these episodes occurring per hour, the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI), determines the severity of the condition.

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2
Q

Is There Any Difference Between OSA and OSA Syndrome?

A

○ OSA resulting in excessive daytime sleepiness (hypersomnolence) is known as OSA syndrome.
○ It is associated with systemic hypertension, pulmonary hypertension, coronary artery disease, atrial fibrillation, cerebrovascular disease, and diabetes mellitus type 2

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3
Q

How Is Severity of OSA Classified?

A

○ OSA is classified according to the number of apneas and/or hypopneas per hour of sleep observed during a sleep study.
○ This frequency is called the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI).
○ Scoring is outlined in Table 13.1.
○ Apnea is defined as cessation of air flow for 10 seconds.
○ Hypopnea is a reduction of air flow (≥30%) for 10 seconds.

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4
Q

What Is the Prevalence of OSA in the General Population? How Does the Prevalence Change in the Presence of Obesity?

A

○ Prevalence of OSA in the general population is approximately 10–20% .
○ In the obese population, the prevalence of OSA is increased markedly especially in those undergoing bariatric surgery where the prevalence of OSA approaches 70%.
○ OSA is undiagnosed, and subsequently untreated, in many patients, including those who are scheduled for surgery

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5
Q

What Are the Risk Factors
for the Development of OSA?

A
  1. Obesity.
  2. Advancing age – risk for development of OSA increases
    from the third decade and peaks in 60–80-year-olds.
  3. Males are more prone than females [9].
  4. Medical conditions – congestive heart disease, renal
    failure, COPD, hypothyroidism, and polycystic ovarian
    disease are some medical disorders that are associated
    with an increased incidence of OSA.
  5. Smoking – this is controversial. While the association is
    plausible, the evidence is less than conclusive [10].
  6. Craniofacial abnormalities – more of a concern with chil-
    dren, e.g., adenotonsillar hypertrophy, cleft lip/palate, and
    abnormalities of the mandible or maxilla.
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6
Q

How Is OSA Diagnosed?

A

For a diagnosis of OSA, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine’s International Classification of Sleep Disorders (3rd edition) [11] requires either:
1. Signs and symptoms (e.g., associated sleepiness, insomnia, fatigue, snoring, observed apnea) or an associated medical or psychiatric disorder (e.g., hypertension, atrial
fibrillation, coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, stroke, diabetes, mood disorder) coupled with an AHI of 5
or
2. AHI ≥ 15
○ The gold standard for measurement of AHI is a Level 1 sleep study (full-night polysomnography). This requires considerable resources including the attendance of a trained technician overnight in a sleep laboratory.
○ Level 1 studies capture multiple points of data: EEG (minimum of three channels), air flow, chin muscle tone, leg movement, eye movement, heart rate and rhythm, oxygen saturation, and chest and abdominal movement.
○ The technician observes live video feed of the subject and comments contemporaneously on the data being recorded.
○ Level 1 sleep studies provide a comprehensive assessment of changes occurring
during sleep.
○ Level 2 studies capture similar data to Level 1 studies but without the presence of a technician.
○ Level 3 studies use portable monitors which the patient can take home; they usually record at least three channels of data: oxygen saturation, air flow, and respiratory effort. ○ There are no EEG data to determine sleep or arousal. According to the American
Academy of Sleep Medicine Clinical Practice Guidelines, a Level 3 study (termed in the guideline “home sleep apnea testing”) is appropriate for the diagnosis of uncomplicated
adult patients thought to be at risk of moderate to severe sleep apnea.
○ Level 1 studies are recommended for those with “significant cardiorespiratory disease, potential respiratory muscle weakness due to a neuromuscular condition, awake hypoventilation or suspicion of sleep-related hypoventilation, chronic opioid medication use, history of stroke, or severe insomnia.”
○ Level 3 studies provide reasonable diagnostic accuracy compared to Level 1 studies in adult patients with a
high probability of OSA and no unstable comorbiditie

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7
Q

What Is Central Sleep Apnea (CSA)?

A

○ As distinct from OSA, an obstructive issue, CSA occurs as a consequence of lack of ventilatory drive. It accounts for <10% of patients referred for Level 1 sleep studies.
○ Examples include Cheyne-Stokes respiration (seen in patients with heart failure, dementia, and neuromuscular disorders) and the use of CNS depressants such as opioids, alcohol, and benzodiazepines.
○ OSA and CSA can be present in the same patient.
○ Level 1 studies are required to assess patients suspected to have CSA or combined OSA/CSA

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8
Q

How Is OSA Screened for Preoperatively?

A

○ A number of questionnaires and screening tools have been developed to identify patients at high risk of OSA. These screening tools tend to have higher sensitivity than specificity, i.e., a low score indicates that the patient is unlikely to have OSA, but a high score warrants further consideration for a sleep study.
1. STOP-Bang is a validated screening tool for pre-surgery patients (see Fig. 13.1). STOP is an acronym for Snoring, Tiredness, Observed apnea during sleep, and
high blood Pressure. Bang is an acronym for BMI > 35 kg m−2, Age > 50 years, Neck circumference >16 inches/40 cm, and male Gender.
- Patients with five or more positive responses are deemed to be high risk for OSA. It has a sensitivity of 93% and 100% for AHI > 15 and AHI > 30, respectively.
2. The Berlin questionnaire is comprised of questions on snoring, excessive daytime sleepiness, sleepiness while driving, hypertension, age, sex, and BMI. The questionnaire is meant to be self-administered and is not as straightforward as the STOP-Bang questionnaire, with a slightly reduced sensitivity of 87% for AHI > 30.
3. The Perioperative Sleep Apnea Prediction Score (P-SAP) was derived from an observational study of over 43,000 adult anesthesia cases.
○ Three demographic variables (age > 43 years, male sex, and obesity), three history
variables (snoring, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension), and three airway measures (large neck circumference, Mallampati score 3 or 4, and reduced thyromental distance) were identified as independent predictors for a diagnosis of OSA.

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9
Q

What Percentage of Patients Who Screen
Positive for OSA with STOP-Bang Test
Positive with Sleep Studies?

A

A retrospective study by Guralnick et al. reported that, of 211
patients who screened high risk for OSA with STOP-Bang (≥5)
over a 2-year period, 2.5% did not have OSA, 16.1% had mild
OSA, 26.3% had moderate OSA, and 55.1% had severe OSA
on completion of a diagnostic polysomnogram

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10
Q

What Comorbidities Are Associated
with OSA?

A

• Cardiovascular complications, including hypertension,
coronary artery disease, arrhythmia, and stroke, are more
common in OSA [16, 17].
• Type 2 diabetes has been shown in a number of studies to
be independently associated with OSA [18, 19]. Several
possible explanations for this link have been posited,
including sympathetic activation, oxidative stress, inflam-
mation, and hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis dysfunc-
tion [19].
• Pulmonary hypertension has been shown to occur to vary-
ing degrees in 20–40% of OSA patients in the absence of
other known cardiopulmonary disorders. Pulmonary
artery pressure (PAP) responds well to CPAP treatment in
these patients [20]. However, the elevation in PAP appears
to be mild (mean PAP of 20–30 mm Hg), similar to that
seen in COPD patients with pulmonary hypertension.
• Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is frequently
seen in OSA patients

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11
Q

How Can the OSA Patient Be Optimized
Preoperatively?

A

• Associated comorbidities should be assessed and
optimized.
• Compliance with preoperative use of CPAP, as prescribed,
should be emphasized.
• Consideration should be given to commencement of
CPAP therapy preoperatively in the newly diagnosed
OSA patient, particularly when OSA is severe.
• There is insufficient evidence to recommend weight loss
as a means of preoperative optimization

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12
Q

What Are the Perioperative Complications
of OSA?

A

• Cardiovascular complications
– OSA increases the risk of myocardial ischemia and infarction, arrhythmias, pulmonary embolism, and cardiac arrest. A large meta-analysis of 13 studies with almost 4000 patients demonstrated that the risk of a postoperative cardiac event was over twice as high in OSA patients [22].
• Respiratory complications
– OSA has been associated with difficult mask ventilation and intubation [23, 24]. This may be independent of BMI [25].
– Postoperative oxygen desaturation, respiratory failure requiring noninvasive or invasive ventilation, reintubation, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), and aspiration and bacterial pneumonia are seen with
increased frequency postoperatively in patients with OSA .
• Longer duration of stay
• Unanticipated ICU transfer
• Acute renal failure
• Delirium

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13
Q

What Circumstances May Exacerbate the Risk of Perioperative Complications Occurring in the OSA Patient?

A

○ Patients undergoing major surgery, general anesthesia, surgery requiring postoperative opioids, and those with higher grades of OSA may be at increased risk.
○ A scoring system developed by the American Society of Anesthesiologists (Table 13.2) can be useful in determining the overall risk of postoperative OSA-related complications, but it is not evidence-based or clinically validated

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14
Q

Is There Any Reason Why This Patient Should Not Have an Interscalene Brachial Plexus (ISBP) Block to Reduce Perioperative Opioid Use?

A

○ ISBP blockade, as a result of a concomitant phrenic nerve block, is associated with diaphragmatic hemiparesis, the incidence of which approaches 100%.
○ This is usually subclinical but may become problematic in the presence of chronic respiratory disease.
○ OSA patients with a predisposition toward postoperative hypoxia might be
considered at greater risk after ISBP block.
○ However, the benefit of avoidance or reduction of postoperative opioid analgesia must also be taken into account.
○ A large retrospective review of over 15,000 shoulder surgery patients who received ISBP blockade showed that the incidence of respiratory complications was similar in OSA and non-OSA populations. When particularly concerned about postoperative respiratory compromise, a low-volume block with a short-/medium-acting local anesthetic, e.g., lidocaine, can be injected as a bolus via an ISBP catheter followed by a continuous low-dose infusion.
○ This can be calibrated to the patient’s pain needs as tolerated.

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15
Q

What Factors Determine Whether Surgery
Should Be Performed on an Inpatient or
Outpatient Basis?

A

○ This decision must be individualized to each patient. Factors taken into consideration include OSA severity, invasiveness and nature of the surgery, presence of coexisting diseases, general versus regional anesthesia, postoperative opioid use, and patient age.

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16
Q

True/False
(a) The apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) is the number of episodes of complete or partial upper airway obstruction occurring per day.
(b) An AHI of 15–25 signifies severe sleep apnea.
(c) Males are more prone to OSA than females.
(d) OSA can be diagnosed with an AHI ≥ 15.
(e) Full-night polysomnography is never used in the diagnosis of OSA.

A

1a.F
1b.F
1c.T
1d.T
1e.F

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17
Q
  1. (a) The STOP-Bang screening tool is a highly sensitive
    questionnaire for the diagnosis of OSA
    (b) The STOP component of STOP-Bang is an acro-
    nym for Snoring, Tiredness, Obesity, and high
    blood Pressure
    (c) CPAP therapy should not be commenced in newly
    diagnosed OSA patients preoperatively.
    (d) Pulmonary hypertension is seen in up to 40% of
    OSA patients.
    (e) Interscalene brachial plexus block is contraindicated
    in OSA patients undergoing arthroscopic shoulder
    surgery
A

2a.T
2b.F
2c.F
2d.T
2e.F

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18
Q

What Is COPD?

A
  • COPD is a progressive inflammatory disease of the airways and/or alveoli.
  • It is characterized by expired airflow limitation that arises because of chronic long-term exposure to smoke or occupational/environmental air pollution.
  • Inhalation of smoke produced by combustible tobacco products is the key
    risk factor in over 75% of cases.
  • Patients suffer from persistent respiratory symptoms, chronic and progressive dyspnea, which may be accompanied by cough and sputum production.
  • The diagnosis of COPD is confirmed by spirometry (post-bronchodilator
    FEV1/FVC < 0.7).
  • Due to the insidious nature of the disease, COPD-related symptoms, particularly dyspnea, are frequently underreported.
  • Susceptibility to develop COPD is influenced by genetic factors, reduced intrauterine and childhood lung growth (low birth weight, prematurity, and exposure to smoke), and a history of airway hyperresponsiveness, particularly asthma
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19
Q

What Are the Pathophysiological Consequences of COPD?

A
  • The chronic inflammatory process induces
    (1) obstructive bronchiolitis, a narrowing and obstruction of small airways
    with gas trapping during expiration leading to hyperinflation;
    (2) emphysematous change, destruction of lung parenchyma with minimal fibrosis, breakdown of elastin (loss of elastic recoil), and remodeled enlarged acinar units with a reduced blood/gas exchange interface;
    (3) mucus hypersecretion in some but not all individuals; and
    (4) pulmonary vascular bed destruction and hypoxic vasoconstriction leading over time to pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular dysfunction.
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20
Q

How Is the Severity of COPD Assessed?

A

The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) (https://goldcopd.org/) provides a structured process for quantification of disease status incorporating the Refined ABCD assessment tool (Fig. 14.3) [1]. This involves the following:
1. Determining the FEV1, the key ongoing metric for severity of airflow limitation.
Grades of airflow limitation range in severity from 1 to 4:
(a) GOLD 1 (mild) individuals have an FEV1 ≥ 80% of predicted values.
(b) GOLD 2 (moderate) 50% ≤ FEV1 < 80% predicted.
(c) GOLD 3 (severe) 30% ≤ FEV1 < 50% predicted.
(d) GOLD 4 (very severe) FEV1 < 30% of predicted.
2. Eliciting a history of exacerbation episodes in the previous 12 months.
An exacerbation of COPD is defined as an “acute worsening of respiratory symptoms that results in additional therapy” [1]. Exacerbations can be considered:
(a) Mild/moderate (treated medically out of hospital)
(b) Severe (hospital emergency room treatment or admission)
A history of two mild/moderate exacerbations or one severe exacerbation in the last 12 months places the patient in the severe, as opposed to the moderate, exacerbation category in the GOLD assessment schema.
3. Assessing symptom severity.
- Dyspnea is the most common presenting symptom of COPD.
- A simple well-validated measure of COPD-related dyspnea is the Modified Medical Research Council (mMRC) Dyspnea Scale.
- This scale involves self-assessment of breathlessness severity experienced during physical activities ranging from strenuous exercise to dressing and undressing.
- A score of ≥2 in the mMRC places the patient in the higher-risk groupings according to the GOLD assessment schema. A weakness of mMRC is the focus on dyspnea solely, exclusive of cough and sputum production.

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21
Q

What Is the Utility of GOLD Grading
and Grouping in the Perioperative Period?

A

COPD is underdiagnosed and undertreated in the commu-
nity. Appropriate pharmacological interventions decrease
symptoms and the risk and severity of exacerbations, also
reducing perioperative morbidity and mortality. The GOLD assessment structure allows the application of appropriate
treatment algorithms tailored to the stage of the disease in
the individual patient.
Furthermore, there is emerging evidence that GOLD
grouping can be helpful in predicting perioperative
complications. Patients in high-risk GOLD groups (C and D)
have been shown to be a higher risk of postoperative
complications, especially infection and wound issues, than
those in low-risk GOLD groups (A and B)

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22
Q

What Coexisting Conditions Should One
Consider in a Patient with COPD?

A

Lung cancer, cardiovascular diseases (especially right-sided
heart failure and coronary artery disease), obstructive sleep
apnea, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and depres-
sion are all associated with COPD and are important causes
of morbidity and mortality in this population.

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23
Q

What Are the Two Classes of Bronchodilators
Commonly Used in the Treatment of COPD?

A

Bronchodilators are either short-acting bronchodilator
(SAB) or long-acting bronchodilator (LAB). The former is
used for immediate relief of symptoms and the latter for
long-term management. SABs and LABs in current use are
muscarinic antagonists or beta-agonists. In more severe
cases, combination therapy involving administration of both
classes is employed. The prototypical long-acting musca-
rinic antagonist (LAMA) is tiotropium and is frequently co-
prescribed with long-acting beta-agonist (LABA), salmeterol.
Both these drugs have been extensively studied, and,
although concern has been raised about possible adverse car-
diovascular effects involving both classes of drugs, they are
considered very safe for long-term administration.

24
Q

What Are the Current Recommendations for Maintenance Bronchodilator and Steroid Therapy in COPD?

A

○ The GOLD groupings are very helpful in guiding pharmaological therapy in COPD.
- For group A (few symptoms and mild exacerbation history), a SAB, taken as needed, is indicated.
- For group B (more symptoms but mild exacerbation history), a LAB is suggested.
- For group C (few symptoms and severe exacerbation history), single or dual LAB is recommended ± inhaled steroid (IS).
- For group D (more symptoms and severe exacerbation history), dual LAB with IS ± roflumilast (a PDE-4 inhibitor) ± macrolide antibiotic therapy is recommended.

25
Q

If My Patient Is not on Current Recommended Therapy, Should I Initiate
Treatment in the Preoperative Period?

A
  • Appropriate bronchodilator therapy decreases the risk of perioperative respiratory failure and postoperative exacerbations in patients with COPD.
  • Postoperative pulmonary complications in patients with COPD, in particular pneumonia and respiratory failure, are associated with very significant morbidity and mortality.
  • Patients with mild COPD do not require any special management perioperatively apart from advice to quit smoking and continue on usual
    medications.
  • However, it is essential in patients with GOLD group C and D diseases presenting for major elective procedures, to optimize medical management of COPD before proceeding to surgery.
  • If the patient is not under the care of a respiratory physician or internist, referral to same is indicated. In general, dual LAB ± IS has proven to be safe
    and effective in reducing both symptoms and exacerbations of COPD in these patient populations
26
Q

How Useful Is a Chest Radiograph in the Diagnosis and Assessment of COPD?

A
  • The classic chest radiograph findings associated with COPD are hyperinflation, hyperlucency of the lungs, and rapid tapering of the vascular markings.
  • A chest radiograph is not considered useful in making the diagnosis of COPD [1].
  • If coexisting conditions are suspected, for example, lung cancer, a chest radiograph may be helpful in management.
27
Q

Does the Type of Anesthetic Influence Postoperative Outcome in Patients with COPD?

A
  • It is clear from analysis of the American College of Surgeons national Surgical Quality Improvement Program (ACS NSQIP) database that patients undergoing hip arthroplasty who have COPD are more likely to have a postoperative complication, including mortality, myocardial infarction,
    pneumonia, and readmission, than those patients without COPD [6].
  • Hausman et al. [7], using the same database and propensity score matching, have convincingly demonstrated a reduction in complications, but not mortality, if regional rather than general anesthesia is used in patients with COPD undergoing an array of surgical procedures.
28
Q
  1. The following should be considered in assessing a stable
    COPD patient preoperatively:
    (a) A FEV1 determination
    (b) A chest radiograph
    (c) The mMRC dyspnea score
    (d) A pulmonary CT
    (e) An ECHO to rule out pulmonary hypertension
A

1a.T
1b.F
1c.T
1d.F
1e.F

29
Q
  1. Appropriate management of a COPD patient with GOLD
    Grade 4 and Group D diseases presenting for elective
    major surgery should include:
    (a) Smoking cessation
    (b) Tiotropium bromide 2.5 mg OD
    (c) Fluticasone propionate/salmeterol 100 μg/50 μg BID
    (d) Preferential choice of regional/local anesthesia
    (e) An ICU consultation
A

2a.T
2b.T
2c.T
2d.T
2e.T

30
Q

What Is Asthma?

A
  • The Global Initiative for Asthma has termed asthma as “a heterogeneous disease, usually characterized by airway inflammation.
  • It is defined by the history of respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, shortness of breath, chest tightness and cough that vary over time and in intensity, together with variable expiratory airflow limitation”.
  • There has been an evolution in our understanding of asthma with the recognition that different phenotypes exist that can, to a degree, be characterized by biomarkers and responsiveness to particular therapies.
  • Overlap between phenotypes frequently occurs .
  • Commonly described phenotypes include asthma where allergic mechanisms predominate (childhood and seasonal asthma), asthma where allergy does not appear to be the dominant mechanism (obesity- and
    exercise-induced asthma), drug-induced asthma (aspirin and NSAIDs), adult-onset asthma (includes the eosinophilic cohort and that associated with upper airway allergic pathology), and asthma-COPD overlap syndrome.
31
Q

How Is Asthma Diagnosed?

A
  • Asthma is a probability-based diagnosis, made after consideration of the presenting symptoms and the presence of variable airflow limitation [4].
  • In routine practice, airflow characteristics are determined by measuring the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), the forced vital capacity (FVC), and peak expiratory flow (PEF).
  • A significant decrease in the FEV1/FVC (compared to standardized data
    for equivalent age, sex, and ethnicity), evidence of reversibility of the decrease in FEV1 in response to bronchodilator therapy, a positive provocation test, and evidence of week-to-week FEV1/FVC and PEF variability all support the diagnosis of asthma
32
Q

How Is Asthma Managed?

A

○ While there are differences in asthma management depending on the phenotype at presentation, the standard approach is to reduce exposure to environmental triggers, modify life-style (e.g., obesity management), and, if appropriate, initiate pharmacological therapy.
- A stepwise pharmacological approach to asthma symp-
tom control is recommended involving the use of “controller” and “reliever” medications [1].
- The cornerstone of “controller” therapy is the use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) - airway inflammation is a major component of disease pathogenesis in most phenotypes.
- The key “reliever” medications are short-acting β-agonists and long-acting β-agonists (SABA/LABA).
• Step 1 (symptoms < twice per month/no waking due to symptoms/no exacerbation risk factors) → no ICS, but this is controversial given the inflammatory nature of the disease [5], use SABA as required.
• Step 2 (infrequent asthma symptoms but has risk factors for exacerbations) → low-dose ICS with optional use of a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is suggested for control and SABA for symptom management.
• Step 3 (symptoms or need for SABA between twice per month and twice per week or greater or waking with symptoms ≥ once per month) → low-medium dose ICS and LABA with optional LTRA for control and SABA for symptom control.
• Steps 4 and 5 (symptoms or need for SABA more than twice per week/symptoms most day and escalating) → medium-high dose ICS and LABA with add-on therapy which may include oral steroids and specific inflammatory mediator management.

33
Q

What Are Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists?

A

LTRAs such as montelukast are selective antagonists at the
cysteinyl leukotriene-1 receptor (cysLT1R) [6]. Cysteinyl
leukotrienes are eicosanoids released via the 5-lipoxygenase
pathway within inflammatory cells including mast cells,
eosinophils, and basophils. CysLT1R agonists mediate
edema formation, airway smooth muscle proliferation/
bronchoconstriction, and mucus production. CysLT1R are
found in abundance in the upper airway in patients with
allergic rhinitis and in the large and small airways in patients
with asthma. LTRAs are not as effective as ICS in the
management of asthma but are a useful adjunctive therapy,
particularly in the subset of patients who present with asthma
and concomitant allergic rhinitis.

34
Q

What Other Pathogenesis-Modifying Agents
Are Available to Treat Asthma Phenotypes?

A

There are several agents in development targeted at specific
pathways responsible for asthma symptoms [7]. One drug,
omalizumab, an anti-immunoglobulin E monoclonal anti-
body, is approved for treating severe allergic asthma not well
controlled with standard agents. Interleukin 5 monoclonal
antibodies mepolizumab and reslizumab are available for the
treatment of severe asthma in patients where eosinophilia is
a predominant feature.

35
Q

How Is Asthma Control Assessed?

A

Optimal asthma control involves reducing or eliminating the symptoms of asthma and decreasing the risk of future exacerbations.
The occurrence and frequency of asthma symptoms in the 4 weeks prior to the clinic visit provide a good indication of symptom control status. The Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) symptom control questionnaire provides a simple
and valuable tool in this regard [1]. Ask the following questions:
1. Any daytime symptoms?
2. Any night waking due to asthma?
3. Have you needed to use your SABA more than twice/week?
4. Any activity limitation due to asthma?
- An individual who is well controlled will have none of the above, partly controlled patients will answer yes to one to two questions, while those in a poorly controlled state will have positive responses to three to four of the above.
- Determine the PEF – it is helpful if the patient is aware of his baseline value when asymptomatic. A nomogram of height-, age-, and sex-adjusted values is widely available. A reduction to 50–79% of baseline “usual” values is concerning, and consideration should be given to adjusting medication dosing or adding another agent. A >50% reduction is indicative of severe bronchoconstriction, and medical
assistance should be sought immediately.

36
Q

What Are the Risk Factors for a Future Exacerbation of Asthma?

A

The major risk factors for exacerbation of asthma are as follows:
1. Uncontrolled current status as determined by GINA symptom assessment score (videsupra)
2. Low lung volumes
3. Previous history of intubation or admission to an ICU for asthma management
4. Requirement for oral corticosteroid therapy in the past 12 months
5. Recent or ongoing upper airway infection
6. Severe asthma uncontrolled with standard therapy (patient on monoclonal antibody therapy)

37
Q

Is Medication Compliance a Problem
in Asthma Management?

A
  • Poor compliance with ICS, incorrect technique of administration of ICS, and erroneous use of a SABA rather than an ICS are ongoing issues in asthma management [5].
  • Patients should be advised to use all their prescribed asthma medications (except SABA) for at least 5 days before an elective surgical procedure even if that is not their usual practice
38
Q

What Is Samter’s Triad?

A
  • Nasal polyps, asthma, and sensitivity to aspirin (or other
    NSAIDs) constitute Samter’s triad, otherwise known as aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD).
  • This diagnosis should be considered in patients who have asthma and
    sinus disease, as many may be sensitive to NSAIDs.
  • NSAID or aspirin use precipitating respiratory symptoms is suggestive in this setting, and further investigation is indicated, as NSAID use perioperatively would be contraindicated and the long-term outcome of surgery could be compromised [8]
39
Q

What Is a Suggested Approach
to the Asthmatic Patient Presenting
for Surgery?

A
  1. Determine factors that trigger asthmatic attack.
  2. Determine symptom control status using the GINA questionnaire.
  3. Determine the risk of exacerbation.
  4. Postpone elective surgery if symptom control is not optimal:
    (a) Determine compliance with the current treatment.
    (b) If clinically indicated, obtain simple spirometry to assess FEV1 and FVC:
    (i) Compare with previously obtained values and assess reversibility.
    (ii) If marked deterioration, refer for further assessment.
  5. Strongly encourage smoking cessation as this is a risk factor for perioperative bronchospasm.
  6. Advise daily use of prescribed asthma medications (except SABA) for 5 days before the day of surgery in all patients even if they are asymptomatic at the time of
    assessment.
  7. Supplement with oral methylprednisolone 20–40 mg
    5 days preoperatively if patient has risks factors for exacerbation.
  8. Initiate preoperative intravenous steroid therapy if patient has uncontrolled asthma and requires urgent surgery and cannot take oral medication.
40
Q

True/False Questions
1. Asthma is well controlled:
(a) If the patient is no longer taking ICS
(b) If the patient has had no symptoms in the past year
(c) If the patient is only using SABA three times a week
(d) If the only symptom present is cough
(e) If SABA is effective in managing symptoms

A

1a.F
1b.T
1c.F
1d.F
1e.F

41
Q
  1. The following suggest that the patient is at risk of exacer-
    bation of asthma perioperatively:
    (a) Admission to ICU for asthma management in the past
    (b) Oral corticosteroid use for asthma control in the last
    6 months
    (c) Ongoing daily use of ICS
    (d) Ongoing daily use of ICA and leukotriene receptor
    inhibitors
    (e) Recent upper airway infection
A

2a.T
2b.T
2c.F
2d.F
2e.T

42
Q

How Is Restrictive Lung Disease Classified?

A

Restrictive lung disease is classified according to whether it
is caused by an intrinsic or extrinsic disease process.
Pulmonary restrictive lung disorders include the
following:
• Interstitial lung disease (ILD)
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Lung resection
• Atelectasis
• Pneumonia
• Advanced pneumoconiosis
Extrapulmonary restrictive lung disorders include the
following:
• Disorders of the chest wall or body habitus. e.g., ankylos-
ing spondylitis, kyphoscoliosis, pregnancy, and obesity
• Respiratory muscle disorders, e.g., diaphragmatic paraly-
sis, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and amyo-
trophic lateral sclerosis
• Pleural cavity disorders, e.g., pleural effusion, pneumo-
thorax, chronic empyema, and asbestosis

43
Q

What Are the Causes of Interstitial Lung
Disease?

A

Causes of ILD are categorized according to whether the
underlying cause is known or unknown. A common approach
to classification of ILD is outlined in Fig. 16.1 [1]. IPF is the
commonest ILD of unknown cause.

44
Q

What Are the Characteristics of IPF?

A

• It is a chronic, progressive, fibrosing, interstitial pneumo-
nia diffusely affecting the lung parenchyma.
• Incidence is estimated at 7–17/100,000 [2].
• It affects males more than females.
• Patients present in sixth and seventh decades.
• It has unknown etiology.
• Diagnosis requires exclusion of identifiable causes of
ILD.
• Diagnosis is made using high-resolution computed
tomography (CT) +/− biopsy.
• Most cases are spontaneously occurring, but familial
disease has been described.
• It is associated with cigarette smoking, exposure to metal
and wood dusts, and a particularly high prevalence of
gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• The natural history is one of gradual and progressive
decline to respiratory failure over a median period of
3–4 years [3]. Approximately 25% of patients with milder
disease will survive to 10 years or beyond [3].

45
Q

What Complications Is the Patient with ILD
Subject to in the Perioperative Period?

A

• Acute exacerbation of ILD
• Pneumonia
• Acute respiratory distress syndrome/acute lung injury
• Prolonged mechanical ventilation
• Mortality

46
Q

What Are the Independent Risk Factors
for the Development of Postoperative
Pulmonary Complications in Patients
with ILD

A

Risk factors for postoperative pulmonary complications,
regardless of the presence of ILD, can be classified as
follows:
Surgical:
• Thoracic and abdominal procedures
• Procedures requiring cardiopulmonary bypass
• Surgery lasting longer than 3 hours
Anesthetic:
• General anesthesia
• Prolonged neuromuscular blockade
• Invasive ventilation
Patient:
• Advanced age (risk significantly increases with each
decade after 60 years) [4]
• Smoking
• BMI > 40
• Obstructive sleep apnea
• Pre-existing chronic lung disease
For ILD patients undergoing pulmonary resection for
lung cancer, decreased preoperative diffusing capacity of the
lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO) and pre-existing comor-
bidities (e.g., ischemic heart disease, renal failure, and
COPD) have been shown to be the most significant risk
factors for the development of postoperative pulmonary
complications [5]. For all major operative procedures, BMI
< 23, emergency surgery, lung surgery, and longer anesthesia
time have been associated with an increased risk of
postoperative pulmonary complications [6]

47
Q

What Are the Characteristic Pulmonary
Function Test (PFT) Features of Restrictive
Lung Disease?

A

• Reduction in total lung capacity (TLC).
• Forced expiratory volume in the first second (of expira-
tion) (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) reduced
proportionally.
• FEV1/FVC normal or increased.
• DLCO is reduced when restrictive lung disease is caused
by intrinsic lung disease but is normal when secondary to
extrapulmonary causes, e.g., musculoskeletal

48
Q

How Should the Patient with Restrictive
Lung Disease Be Evaluated Preoperatively?

A

The purpose of clinical evaluation is to determine the degree
of preoperative pulmonary reserve and the severity of pul-
monary compromise.

49
Q

History and Physical Examination

A

A focused assessment of pulmonary symptoms, including
dyspnea, cough, and exercise tolerance, should be per-
formed. Risk factors for postoperative pulmonary complica-
tions as discussed above must be ascertained and
documented

50
Q

Investigations

A

• Spirometry (especially FEV1) and DLCO can be predictive
of failure to wean from mechanical ventilation.
• Chest radiograph may provide little in the way of new or
unexpected information and is unlikely to influence
perioperative management.
• Arterial blood gas analysis is frequently performed to
obtain a preoperative baseline. However, arterial hypoxia
and hypercapnia are not significant independent predictors
for postoperative pulmonary complications in respiratory
disease [7].
• Echocardiography: Patients with respiratory disease may
have comorbid cardiovascular disease. Moderate-to-
severe restrictive lung disease may be accompanied by
pulmonary hypertension.
• The 6-minute walk test can be used to quantify the clinical
significance of restrictive lung disease. It is a submaximal
measurement of aerobic capacity that has been shown to
be a useful predictor of patient mortality [8].

51
Q

How Is Disease Severity in IPF Classified?

A

Disease severity and progression are assessed using a combination of clinical, radiological, and pulmonary function test findings.
- Clinical parameters used to monitor disease progression are primarily degree of dyspnea, exercise capacity, and severity of cough. Patients with mild IPF may complain of a mild or nonproductive cough and dyspnea on considerable exertion. Patients with severe IPF will have dyspnea on moderate exertion and require oxygen at rest.
- Pulmonary function testing is frequently performed every 3–6 months in patients with IPF – varying depending on disease progression. FVC (or more specifically, rate of decline of FVC) and DLCO are especially important, being
strong predictors of mortality and need for lung transplantation [9].
- The Gender-Age-Physiology (GAP) clinical prediction model uses gender, age, FVC, and DLCO to predict likelihood of mortality at 1-, 2-, and 3-year intervals (Table 16.2) [10].
- Chest X-ray may be useful at the time of diagnosis when searching for possible etiologies but is not especially useful for monitoring disease progression.
- High-resolution CT is useful at the time of diagnosis and can be performed annually to monitor disease progression [9].

52
Q

What Risk Scores Provide an Estimate of Postoperative Respiratory Failure?

A
  • A number of multifactorial risk scores are available that stratify the risk of postoperative pulmonary complications and/or failure to wean from mechanical ventilation.
  • The ARISCAT (Assess Respiratory Risk in Surgical Patients in Catalonia) risk index uses seven independent risk factors that are assigned a weighted score and used to predict the risk of postoperative complications (Table 16.3) [11]. - The Gupta validated risk calculator predicts failure to wean from mechanical ventilation within 48 hours of surgery or unplanned reintubation postoperatively [12].
  • Five preoperative predictors of postoperative respiratory failure were
    identified: type of surgery, emergency surgery, functional status, preoperative sepsis, and higher American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) class.
53
Q

What Specific Medications Should We Expect to See in the Preoperative Patient with IPF?

A

Treatment of IPF is largely supportive, consisting of supplemental oxygen, pulmonary rehabilitation programs, education, and vaccination against influenza and pneumococcus. No drug has been found to be curative for IPF. However, two medications, nintedanib and pirfenidone, appear to slow disease progress.
- These medications are not widely available and are usually restricted to adult patients with mild to moderate IPF confirmed by a respiratory physician and a high-resolution CT scan within the previous 24 months. After an initial approval period, typically around 6 months, PFTs are performed to demonstrate that the disease has not progressed. (For example, in the authors’ institution, disease progression is defined as a decline in predicted FVC of ≥10% from initiation of therapy.) The only definitive treatment for IPF is lung transplantation. It is the second most common reason for lung transplant after COPD/emphysema [13]. Among patients awaiting lung transplant, IPF has the highest mortality rate, and, as a result, IPF patients tend to be referred early for transplant [14].

54
Q

What Complications of IPF Should
the Patient Be Evaluated For?

A

• Emphysema
• Pulmonary hypertension
• Arrhythmias
• Congestive cardiac failure
• Coronary artery disease
• Obstructive sleep apnea
• Lung cance

55
Q

True/False Questions
1. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis:
(a) Is a rare cause of interstitial lung disease.
(b) Affects men more than women.
(c) Is the commonest reason for patients referred for lung
transplant.
(d) Is usually familial.
(e) Onset is in the third to fourth decades.

A
56
Q
  1. Concerning the PFT characteristics of restrictive lung
    disease:
    (a) FEV1 is reduced to a greater degree than FVC.
    (b) FVC is normal or increased.
    (c) TLC is reduced.
    (d) DLCO is normal if restrictive lung disease is second-
    ary to extrapulmonary causes.
    (e) DLCO can be used as a predictor of postoperative pul-
    monary complications.
A