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Step2 CK > Pulmonary > Flashcards

Pulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

MCC atypical Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma

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2
Q

MCC Pneumonia in alcoholics

A

Klebsiella

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3
Q

MCC interstitial Pneumonia in bird handlers

A

Chlamydia pscitissi

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4
Q

MCC Pneumonia in pts exposed to bats

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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5
Q

MCC Pneumonia in pt that has recently traveled to New Mexico /Arizona

A

Coccidiomycosis

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6
Q

What organism is associated with current jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

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7
Q

Organism responsible for Q fever in livestock handlers

A

Coxiella burnetti

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8
Q

Pneumonia associated with air conditioners

A

Legionella

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9
Q

MCC pneumonia in kids

A

RSV

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10
Q

MCC pneumonia in neonates

A

GBS and E. Coli

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11
Q

MCC pneumonia in kids and young adults

A

Mycoplasma

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12
Q

MCC of pneumonia in pts with other health problems

A

Klebsiella

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13
Q

MCC viral Pneumonia

A

RSV and influenza

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14
Q

Organism responsible for wool sorters disease

A

Bacillus anthracis

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15
Q

Common organism responsible for COPD exacerbation

A

H. Influenza

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16
Q

MCC Pneumonia in ventilated pt and in cystic fibrosis

A

Pseudomonas

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17
Q

Organism responsible for Pontiac fever

A

Legionella

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18
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in pairs

A

Strep pneumo

20
Q

Pneumonia with: gram negative rods in 80 year old

A

E.coli

21
Q

Pneumonia with: gram positive cocci in neonates

A

GBS

22
Q

Pneumonia with: gram negative rods in neonates

A

E.coli

23
Q

In a patients with pulmonary edema how can a cardiogenic cause be differentiated from ARDS?

A

PCWP measure via Swan-Ganz catheter. Cardiogenic cause with have elevated PCWP , while in ARDS it will be 18 or lower.

24
Q

Diagnostic characteristics of ARDS

A

PCWP

25
Q

What should you do if you see bilateral lobar pneumonia ?

A

Hospitalize because these patients have a high likelihood of de compensating even of they look alright

26
Q

Substances to avoid in central apnea patients

A

Anything that acts as a sedative or decreases respiratory drive: alcohol, opioids, anti-histamines

27
Q

Shortly after birth a child has stridor, wheezing and shortness of breath despite medical treatment, what is the most likely diagnosis

A

Vascular ring compressing upper airway and trachea; clue here is that it continues despite medical treatment

28
Q

What is a diagnostic result of pilocarpine sweat chloride tests for cystic fibrosis

A

A result of >60 mEq

29
Q

MCC of epiglottis and treatment

A

H. Influenza type b, this is a pediatric emergency. Children should be intubated in OR with anxiety decreased and holding off on examining throat as this can cause spasm. Abx ceftriaxone for 7-10 days

30
Q

MCC croup and treatment

A

Usually caused by Parainfluenza virus and RSV. Treat with steroids if mild, add racemic epinephrine if severe. Administer humidified oxygen.

31
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion

A

Transudative means low protein, mostly water. Caused by heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome renal failure

32
Q

What is xray finding of steeple sign due to?

A

Croup

33
Q

What is the chest xray finding of the thumb-print sign?

A

Epiglottis

34
Q

What is the L:S ratio obtained from amniocentesis that indicates high risk of respiratory distress syndrome and normal fetal lung maturity?

A

2 means mature fetal lungs

35
Q

Dx and Management of Trauma patient is respiratory distress with pleural effusion on cheat xray

A

Most likely Dx is hemothorax since trauma, chest tube for drainage is indicated

36
Q

What size pneumothorax requires chest tube placement?

A

If greater than 15%

37
Q

What medication should be used before intubation of a he injury patient?

A

Lidocaine

38
Q

What is there treatment for RSV bronchiolitis?

A

Oxygen, racemic epinephrine and albuterol neb; steroid are not indicated here

39
Q

What is the most common finding of PE on EKG? What is the “classic” finding on EKG?

A

Most common is sinus tachycardia.

Classic is S1Q3T3; wide s lead I, wide Q and inverted T on lead III

40
Q

MCC Pneumonia in immunocompromised pts

A

PCP

41
Q

List one toxicity/association for each of the four TB drugs (RIPE)

A

Rifampin- red body secretions
Isoniazid- peripheral neuropathy that can be treated with pyridoxine (B6)
Pyrazinamide- hyperurecemia
Ethambutol- optic neuritis with color changes

42
Q

What is the treatment protocol for active TB

A

6 months of treatment total
2 months with full RIPE
last 4 months with rifampin and isoniazid

43
Q

Cases in which TB treatment protocol is extended to 9 months

A

Bone involvement (osteomyelitis)
Military TB
meningitis
Pregnancy

44
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria doe ARDS?

A

pO2/FIO2 ratio of

45
Q

What is the best support/treatment of ARDS?

A

Low tidal volume mechanical ventilation to allow lungs to recover

  • 6mL per kg of tidal volume
  • PEEP is used to try to decrease FIO2

Step2 CK (12 decks)

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