Pumping and Aerial Flashcards

1
Q

Main purpose of fire department pumper

A

Provide adequate pressure for water streams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This standard requires a minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and water tank of at least 300 gallons

A

NFPA 1901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These vehicles are designed with more compartment space than a standard pumper

A

Rescue pumper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Class A foam is for:
Class B foam is for:

A

-Ordinary combustibles
-Flammable and combustible liquid and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Foam tanks usually range from

A

20-100 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Scaled down versions of full size pumpers are called

A

Initial attack fire apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

These are used to transport water to areas where water systems are non existent or inadequate

A

Water tanker/tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tender and tankers are equipped with a water tank of at least

A

1,000 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This practice is prohibited by what NFPA standard

A

Riding on the outside of apparatus
NFPA 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These are effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures

A

Class A foam agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Step up transformer that converts a vehicles 12 or 24 DC volt current into 110-220 volt AC current

A

Inverter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The most common power source for the fire service

A

Generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the largest capacity for portable generators

A

5,000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These are used to supply power to several connections from one supply source

A

Junction box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This refers to keeping apparatus in a state of readiness

A

Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This means to restore that which has become inoperable

A

Repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This standard requires drivers to perform certain maintenance tasks

A

NFPA 1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is diesel fuel problematic

A

Sticks to anything it touches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During first 6 months an apparatus is received how should it be washed

A

Frequently with cold water to harden paint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long should you wait to wax or polish a new apparatus

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 types of inspections during a walk around inspection

A

Operational readiness
Pretrip road readiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should the driver work around the apparatus in a walk around inspection

A

Clockwise pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What types of tires should not be mixed on an apparatus

A

Radial and bias-ply tires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tire selection for apparatus is based on what

A

Gross axle weight ratings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The maximum amount of weight an axle system can safely carry
Gross axle weight rating
26
How often should tires be replaced
7 years
27
These are intended to prevent an overload of a vehicles electrical generation system
Load management system
28
Operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity
Overload
29
Load management systems may incorporate
Load sequencers and load monitors
30
This turns on lights at specified intervals so that the load for all devices doesn't happen at once
Load sequencer
31
This "watches" the system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload system
Load monitor
32
The load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent the overload known as
Load shedding
33
Amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission
Free play
34
The amount of travel between turning the wheel and the steering system moves. It should be no more than?
Steering wheel play No more than 10 degree in either direction
35
The weight of an empty fire apparatus fresh off the assembly line
Curb weight
36
Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side to side variance in weight should not exceed
7%
37
Modern fire department pumping apparatus are equipped with what braking system
Air actuated
38
Air horns and other nonessential devices won't operate when the air pressure in the reservoir drops below
80 psi
39
These reduce the possibility of an apparatus from jack knifing, sliding, or spinning during heavy braking
Antilock braking system
40
Devices used in air brake systems that connect between activation pads and brake pads
Slack adjusters
41
Process in which exhaust temps are raised in order to burn off particulate matter in filter
Regeneration
42
Act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger
Reckless disregard
43
Loss of braking function due to excessive use of the brakes
Brake fade
44
Failing to keep the DEF tank full may do what to the apparatus
Reduce torque and limit vehicle speed
45
This occurs when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is in too high of a gear for the demand on the engine
Engine lugging
46
What speeds can an emergency vehicle outrun its audible warning device
Above 50 mph
47
When multiple emergency vehicles are responding along the same route they should travel how far apart
300 to 500 feet apart
48
Time needed to stop the apparatus or perform evasive maneuver at current rate of speed
Visual lead time
49
Distance vehicle travels from time brakes are applied to complete stop
Braking distance
50
Sum of drivers reaction distance and braking distance
Total stopping distance
51
What are the 2 common types of skids
Acceleration and locked wheel skid
52
The drive wheels lose traction on road surface in this skid
Acceleration skid
53
Results from braking too hard at a high rate of speed
Locked wheel skid
54
What are the 4 types of auxiliary brakes
Exhaust Engine compression Transmission output retarder Electromagnetic retarder
55
If feasible, at an incident where no fire is showing, what should the driver do
Pull past the building
56
For wildland fires, where should the driver place the appartus
Downhill of main body of fire
57
Considered the safest position should a collapse occur
Corners of building
58
Apparatus and personnel should maintain a collapse zone of at least
1 to 1 1/2 times height of building
59
Buildings less than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed
Engine (closest to building) Aerial (outside)
60
Buildings greater than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed
Engine (outside) Aerial (closest to building)
61
This is used to increase volume of water at fire scene, while this is used to increase water pressure
-Relay pumping -Tandem pumping
62
Natural or man made barrier that prevents fire from encircling vehicle and crew
Anchor point
63
Apparatus with side mounted pumpers should position facing
Incident scene
64
Which zone can be used for decon for personnel exiting hot zone
Warm zone
65
Water converted to steam occupies approximately
1,700 times original volume
66
Simple measure of weight and expressed in pounds or Newtons
Force
67
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is what
14.7 psi
68
This refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice
Head
69
This refers to the center line of the pump or bottom of static supply source above or below ground level
Elevation
70
This refers to position of object in relation to sea level
Altitude
71
What are the 3 types of master stream appliances
Fixed Combination Portable
72
What is the only true way to measure pressure loss in a hose lay
Measure pressure at both ends of hose line and subtract difference
73
What is the formula for friction loss
FL = CQ(squared)L
74
What is the assumed friction loss for master stream appliances
25 psi
75
What is the assumed friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly
10 psi
76
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in a multistory building
5psi x # of stories minus 1
77
In order to determine the required pressure for a standpipe system, what needs to be calculated
Total pressure loss
78
The total amount of pressure being discharged from the pump is called
Pump discharge pressure
79
What are the safe and efficient nozzle pressures for these fire streams: Solid stream (handline) Solid stream (master stream) Fog nozzle Low pressure fog nozzle
50 psi 80 psi 100 psi 50-75 psi
80
This pressure represents the action of water into the pump, through it, and discharged out
Net pump discharge pressure
81
In the case of a pumper being supplied by a hydrant or another pumper, the net pump discharge pressure is the difference between
Pump discharge pressure and pressure from supply source
82
These reduce the number of pressure calculations for the driver
Flowmeter
83
Every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter should also be equipped with
Pressure gauge
84
Flowmeters must display flow in increments of
10 gpm or less
85
What are the 2 types of flowmeters
Paddlewheel and spring probe
86
Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within
6 inches of control valve
87
Apparatus involved in relay pumping operations should operate in
RPM mode
88
What is the condensed Q formula and when can it be used for operations
FL = Q(squared) To determine friction loss in 3, 4, and 5 inch hose
89
These pumps are self priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water
Positive displacement pumps
90
Positive displacement pumps are considered constant flow machines in that they
Produce same flow at given speed regardless of discharge pressure
91
Positive displacement pumps are now used primarily as
Priming devices
92
What is the most common type of pump used to prime a centrifugal fire pump
Rotary vane pump
93
Centrifugal pumps are considered what type of pump
Nonpositive displacement pumps
94
What dictates the amount of pressure that is developed in a centrifugal pump
Speed of impeller
95
Spiral, divergent chamber of a centrifugal pump in which velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure
Volute
96
What are the 3 main factors that influence a centrifugal pumps discharge pressure
Amount of water discharged Speed of impeller Pressure of water from pressurized source
97
What are the 2 types of centrifugal pumps in the fire service
Single and multistage
98
Hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only
Clapper valve
99
These may be replaced to maintain the preferred spacing between the hub of the impeller and the pump casing
Wear rings
100
Pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle drive engine are considered
Auxiliary pumps
101
The piping system and fire pump must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of
500 psi
102
This is designed to regulate the engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements
Pressure governor
103
Electronic governors feature what kind of protection and what does it do
Cavitation protection Idles engine when intake pressure drops below 30 psi
104
What are the different categories of primers
Positive displacement Exhaust Vacuum Air primer
105
This displays engine speed in rpm
Tachometer
106
A gradual increase in the amount of rpm required to pump the rated capacity indicates what
Wear in pump and possible need for repair
107
This provides a relative indication of battery condition
Voltmeter
108
This indicates the status of the vehicles alternator and charging system
Ammeter
109
The driver should close what valve after transitioning to an external water supply
Tank-to-pump valve
110
When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, the pressure shown on the intake gauge is
Static pressure
111
When the pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge displays
Residual pressure
112
What are the methods used to determine how much more water a hydrant can supply
Percentage First-digit Squaring-the-lines
113
Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately
22 inches of mercury
114
For drafting, all fire pumps are rated to pump their capacity at
10 feet of lift
115
A gradual increase in the vacuum may be noted with no change in flow rate indicates what
Blockage developing
116
If no specific info is given, the general guideline is to discharge ____ into the FDC
150 psi
117
This is the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center of the pump intake
Lift
118
The scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum
Theoretical lift
119
What is the height at sea level for theoretical lift to occur
33.9 feet
120
For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately
0.5 psi
121
Defined as the greatest height which any water can be raised through an intake hose to the pump
Maximum lift
122
In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately
25 feet
123
The height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow
Dependable lift
124
Every fire pump should have a dependable lift of approximately
14.7 feet
125
What depth should strainers be submerged for drafting operations
At least 2 feet
126
An underground water storage receptacle usually found in an area not serviced by a hydrant system
Cistern
127
How many gallons does a cistern usually range from
10,000-100,000 gallons
128
The overall capacity of the relay system is determined by what
Smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used
129
What are the 2 primary types of large tank discharges used on water tenders
Gravity and jet assisted dumps
130
Water tenders dump what percent of their load before leaving the site
90%
131
The most common foam in use, they must be ____ and ____ before use
Mechanical foam Proportioned and aerated
132
Raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with water and air
Foam concentrate
133
Device that injects correct amount of foam concentrate into water stream
Foam proportioner
134
Mixture of foam concentrate and water before air is introduced
Foam solution
135
Class B fuels are divided into what 2 categories
Hydrocarbons and polar solvents
136
These are petroleum based and have a specific gravity of less than one and will float on water
Hydrocarbons
137
These are known as miscible liquids and will mix with water
Polar solvents
138
Class B foam is designed solely for what type of fuel
Hydrocarbons
139
How does foam extinguish or suppress vapors
Separating Cooling Smothering
140
The act of mixing water with foam concentrate
Proportioning
141
What are the 4 basic methods foam is proportioned
Induction Injection Batch mixing Premixing
142
This method uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam into the fire stream
Induction
143
This method uses an external pump to force foam into the fire stream
Injection
144
This method is when an appropriate amount of foam is poured directly into the tank
Batch mixing
145
The formula of class A foam includes this
Hydrocarbon surfactants
146
Chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid
Surfactant
147
What is the shelf life of properly stored foam
20 years
148
What is the concentration of foam for hydrocarbons and polar solvents
3% (hydro) 3% or 6% (polar)
149
Foam expansion is described as being low, medium, or high. What the ratios for each
Low 20:1 Medium 20:1 up to 200:1 High 200:1 up to 1,000:1
150
This is a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam
Fluoroprotein
151
What is he most common used synthetic foam concentrate
AFFF
152
What are the techniques for applying foam
Direct Roll on Bank down Rain down
153
What is the minimum amount of time and pressure for a hydrostatic test
10 minutes 500 psi
154
This test evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks
Vacuum test
155
What test must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank
Tank-to-pump flow test
156
This device measures the velocity of light that travels through a medium
Refractometer
157
The amount of foam concentrate present in the solution is measured using
Refractometer
158
Aerial devices are grouped into what 3 categories
Aerial ladders Elevating platforms Water towers
159
Assembly of bars or rods to form a rigid framework. Engineers have proven that these lend more strength when they form what?
Trusses Triangles
160
What are the 4 main components of a hydraulic system
Actuator Hydraulic fluid Hydraulic pump Hydraulic reservoir
161
A safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning
Interlock
162
This places the max amount of stress on an aerial device
Long extensions at low angles
163
Loads that involve motion
Dynamic loads
164
Electricity will arc across a gap as large as
10 feet
165
The long standing standard has been to provide how much clearance between the aerial and overhead energized lines
10 feet
166
If you're inside a vehicle that contacts or is energized by a power line what should you do
Stay inside the vehicle
167
The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated
Directly over front or rear axle
168
What are the 2 positions which an aerial device can be designed to operate
Unsupported and supported
169
Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept how far from the tracks
At least 25 feet
170
Theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus
Gravity circle
171
What are the more common types of stabilizers for aerial apparatus
Post type Box A-frame/scissor/X-style
172
To deploy the stabilizers and aerial device, what needs to be engaged
Power take off (PTO)
173
Pneumatic PTO systems require how much air pressure for operation
50 to 140 psi
174
Due to the potential for chassis and torque box damage what should not be done
One stabilizer never fully activated alone
175
Where are the primary and secondary controls for an aerial device
Primary at the turntable Secondary at upper tip or platform basket
176
What is the sequence for operating an aerial device
Elevate, rotate, extend
177
What is the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder use
75 degree elevation, 80% extended length, 80 psi nozzle pressure
178
If high temperatures are encountered, what can be done to allow for the hydraulic oil to cool
Shut off PTO
179
What is the order of priority for victim rescue for an aerial ladder
Severely threatened Largest group Remainder in hazard area
180
The best position for victim removal for an aerial device is one in which the extended and rotated device is
Perpendicular to the building
181
When maneuvering the aerial device to reach a victim, the aerial device should initially be aimed
Above victim then lowered
182
Once an aerial device is in place for a rescue, what is the next important step
Engage extension locks
183
When using aerial platforms, most fire departments prefer the platform be placed where at the window
Top rail of platform is even with windowsill
184
When removing victims from a roof, the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed
At least 6 feet above edge of roof
185
When providing access for ventilating a flat roof, the D/E should position the apparatus
On unburned side
186
What is the constant for GPM formula
29.7
187
Friction loss must consider what 2 things
Length and diameter of hose
188
Friction loss is insignificant where flows through appliance are less than
350 gpm
189
What is the formula to calculate gpm
29.7 x D(squared) x square root NP
190
Pumps rated for 750 gpm should have how many discharges
Two 2 1/2 in discharges
191
Gate valves are operated by Butterfly valves are operated by
-Handwheel -Quarter turn