"Q" Tests- General Subjects Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are seawater cooled, what statement is true?
A
Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
2
Q
If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
A
The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
3
Q
What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
A
Cross flow
4
Q
If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?
A
The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
5
Q
The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.
A
heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
6
Q
Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.
A
by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
7
Q
In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)? GS-0062
A
800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2)
8
Q
Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil’s viscosity?
A
Pressure
9
Q
The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.
A
gums, varnishes, and acids
10
Q
Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.
A
atmosphere as heat
11
Q
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. GS-0098
A
combined, pump unit
12
Q
An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. GS-0068
A
can be adjusted or varied
13
Q
Item “F” shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________. GS-0103
A
manually operated with one located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the water tight door
14
Q
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. GS- 0097
A
double pump unit
15
Q
Item “B” shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. GS-010
A
shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed
16
Q
Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.
A
accumulator
17
Q
The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.
A
filter
18
Q
Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is represented by figure __________. GS-010
A
A or B
19
Q
The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the __________.
A
braided inner layer(s)
20
Q
The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is __________. GS-0058
A
fixed by the pump housing angle
21
Q
To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?
A
Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
22
Q
In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided by __________. GS-0118
A
A
23
Q
Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.
A
prevent foaming
24
Q
Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?
A
Compound gauge
25
Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?
Duplex gauge
26
Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?
Differential pressure gauge
27
Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?
Compound gauge
28
If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
58.5 psia
29
What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?
Liquid-in-glass thermometer
30
What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?
Bimetallic thermometer
31
What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a thermocouple pyrometer?
Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.
32
If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?
After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
33
What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?
The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
34
What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
35
What statement best represents the characteristics of an ullage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
36
What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.
37
When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?
The actual water level in the hydro pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the
sight glass.
38
Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?
cubic meters
39
Which of the following measurements would be an example of flow rate?
cubic meters per hour
40
Which of the following is an example of a flow meter which has associated with it a float for flow indication purposes?
A variable volume flow meter (rotameter)
41
For any piece of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important lubricating oil property in meeting the operating conditions?
Viscosity
42
For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.
43
What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes.
44
What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
Lithium-based grease
45
If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
46
An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an after cooler to __________.
increase compressor efficiency and economy
47
For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________.
decrease the power required for compression
48
The usual method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by __________.
holding the suction valve open
49
Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?
A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a
safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
50
One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________. GS-0119
act as a lube oil sump
51
One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________. GS-0119
act as a lube oil sump
52
The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________. GS-0153
inlet weir and inlet baffle
53
The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. GS-0153
prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
54
The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______. GS- 0175
clean water flushing line
55
The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______. GS- 0175
separated oil outlet
56
If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________. GS-0153
not turned on
57
In order to obtain the best performance with a lube oil purifier, the lube oil inlet temperature should __________.
be maintained in a temperature range of 160°F to a maximum of 180°F
58
Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct?
They should be operated at maximum design speed and recommended operating capacity.
59
The water seal in a centrifuge, operating at normal speed, prevents the lube oil from discharging from the water outlet. Another function of the seal is to __________.
provide an area for separated water to pass and create a path to remove the water from the
bowl
60
Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?
Diesel fuel oil
61
Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?
Sludge
62
Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a __________.
high temperature and a low viscosity
63
For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.
throughput
64
Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?
The specific gravity of the fuel.
65
Which of the following sewage handling technologies would be associated with maintaining a culture of aerobic bacteria?
Biological sewage plant
66
By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?
Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of
disinfection.
67
Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
68
Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.
water-tube forced circulation
69
Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.
remove settled solids from the water drum
70
The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
provide an alternate means of determining the water level, if the gage glass fails
71
The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by __________.
fire-tubes and stay-tubes
72
The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________.
explosions in the boiler furnace
73
The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How this temperature is normally controlled?
The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient air into the exhaust stream.
74
How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships?
The trash is admitted manually via a loading door.
75
In burning oily-waste sludge in a solid-waste/sludge incinerator, what statement is true?
Heating of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion on sludge alone.
76
Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?
Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
77
What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?
Properly locking out and tagging out the machine before work begins.
78
Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?
Electrical maintenance work
79
What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and air-borne abrasives?
Eyecup safety goggles
80
What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?
Self-contained breathing apparatus
81
The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
manufacturer's numerical code
82
Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?
They are well adapted to variable speed operation.
83
Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
Spring bearing
84
An example of an anti-friction bearing is a __________.
ball bearing
85
Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
Ball
86
Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
They have a greater contact area.
87
In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.
spring force
88
To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.
25-50% of the original void space in the bearing
89
Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.
a path of expansion is provided for the grease
90
When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.
apply even force to the inner race
91
Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
An arbor press
92
Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?
They are usually pressed onto their shafts.
93
Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
high temperatures to develop as result of churning
94
A ball bearing will overheat if __________.
completely packed full of grease
95
What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?
Zinc
96
When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?
The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
97
Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
98
In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
Wire brush
99
What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?
Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
100
When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?
Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only.
101
When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
Red
102
Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.
103
When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
Yellow
104
Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?
When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
105
What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?
Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.
106
What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?
Heavy residual fuel oil.
107
What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily- water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
108
What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water separator?
The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of the filter housing.
109
Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? (GS-0175)
The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
110
Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
Flash point
111
Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
Viscosity
112
The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy is known as its __________.
heating value
113
The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.
calorimeter
114
Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?
Sulfur
115
What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?
It allows for the operation of valves that would otherwise be out of reach.
116
In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?
A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.
117
Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the gearbox?
The gearbox may be used to change the orientation of the hand wheel to the valve stem, or it may be used to reduce the turning effort, OR both.
118
In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?
Fuel oil transfer pump
119
What type of valve would be fitted with a quarter-turn power actuator, such as a rack- and-pinion?
Butterfly valve
120
On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?
4 hours on watch followed by 8 hours rest
121
On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?
Fifteen minutes before the hour
