Qbank 2.0 Flashcards

(205 cards)

1
Q

A registered representative is explaining a particular market theory that maintains that the direction of a single stock or any general market is unpredictable. Which theory is he speaking of?

  1. random walk
  2. modern portfolio
  3. odd-lot
  4. dow
A

The random walk theory maintains that the direction of any stock, sector, or market in general is unpredictable. The theory is based on the “efficient market” theory, which holds that the stock market is perfectly efficient with prices reflecting all known information at any given time.

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2
Q

An investor has an established margin account with a long market value of $6,500 and a debit balance of $3,750, with Regulation T at 50%. A maintenance call would be triggered if the long market value decreased below:

  1. 8666.67
  2. 4875
  3. 2812.5
  4. 5000
A

To determine long market value at maintenance, divide the debit balance of $3,750 by 75% ($5,000).

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3
Q

If an investor has an established margin account with a short market value of $24,000 and a credit balance of $30,000, the maintenance call will be for

  1. 7200
  2. 2000
  3. 6000
  4. 1200
A

Minimum maintenance requirement in a short margin account is 30% of the current market value. In this case, 30% of $24,000 is $7,200. The equity in the account is currently $6,000 ($30,000 − $24,000). Therefore, the amount of the maintenance call is $1,200.

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4
Q

The bond placement ratio, as shown in the Daily Bond Buyer, is found by which of the following?

  1. dollar value of new issues sold divided by dollar value of the new issues offered
  2. # of new issues divided by the 30 day visible supply
  3. dollar amount of new issues sold divided by the dollar amount of new issues unsold
  4. number of new issues unsold divided by the number of new issues offered
A

1; The bond placement ratio is the percentage of new municipal bonds offered last week that were sold last week.

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5
Q

Which of the following regarding a Roth IRA are TRUE? I.The contributions are nondeductible.
II.Contributions must cease at age 70½.
III.Withdrawals must begin at age 70½.
IV.Withdrawals after age 59½ can be tax free.

A

1 & 4; With a Roth IRA, the contributions are not deductible from current income. Withdrawals after age 59½ are tax free, provided the account has been open for at least 5 years. There is no age at which withdrawals must begin or contributions must cease.

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6
Q

A young first time investor wants to put $10,000 savings in an investment that she wants to see grow over many years. She intends to add to it in small amounts whenever able. A balanced mutual fund and an equity growth fund are chosen. Which would be the most suitable share class for this initial investment?

  1. D shares
  2. A shares
  3. B shares
  4. C shares
A

3; B class shares have a back-end load (sales charge) only payable when the shares are redeemed and those sales charges dissipate typically over the first 5 to 7 years. Until they disappear completely, the investment is help beyond that time. This is why B shares are generally most suitable for smaller investments (where taking advantage of breakpoints would not be a factor) made with a longer investment time horizon such as this one.

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7
Q

Treasury STRIPS and Treasury receipts are quoted based on

  1. amortization of premiums
  2. 1/8 of a point in dollars
  3. YTM
  4. 1/32 of a point in dollars
A

3; Noninterest-bearing securities, like zeroes, are quoted based on their yield to maturity. They are sold at a discount and mature at par.

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8
Q
A customer wants to buy $12,000 worth of stock using other marginable securities owned as collateral for the purchase. With Regulation T at 50%, what must the current market value (CMV) of the securities deposited be?
1, 18k
2. 6k
3. 12k 
4. 24k
A

3; Stock buys stock dollar for dollar. With $12,000 worth of fully paid marginable securities, the customer can borrow $6,000 against them. The $6,000 can be the 50% initial requirement for the additional $12,000 purchase.

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9
Q

Members of a syndicate receive notice of their share of the offering through the:

  1. prospectus
  2. due diligence meeting
  3. syndicate letter
  4. official statement
A

3; The syndicate letter is sent by a municipal dealer to prospective members, inviting them to join the syndicate and setting forth the conditions of the syndicate. Such conditions include who the manager will be, the percentage participation (each member’s share), and the amount of good faith deposit required.

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10
Q

State securities laws address the:I. regulation of securities exchanges within the state.
II. laws of each state governing the sale of new issues.
III. revocation of the broker/dealer’s registration.
IV. registration of regional exchanges.

A

2 & 3; State securities laws (blue-sky laws) address registration of securities, broker/dealers, and registered representatives at the state level. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 addresses the regulation of securities exchanges.

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11
Q

Super Display Book (SDBK) is the electronic order processing system used by which of the following markets for trading common stocks?

  1. NYSE
  2. CBOE
  3. OTC
  4. Philadelphia Stock Exchange
A

The NYSE uses the Super Display Book system for processing orders.

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12
Q

A customer bought 100 ABC at 60 in January of 1998. In February 2000, the stock is worth $100 per share and the customer donated it to charity. The consequences are:I. a $6,000 deduction.
II. a $10,000 deduction.
III. no tax is due on appreciation.
IV. tax is due on appreciation.

A

2 & 3; When an investor donates appreciated securities to charity, the investor will receive a tax deduction based on their value as of the donation date. There will be no tax due on the amount of appreciation as long as the stock was held long-term as of the date of the charitable donation.

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13
Q

A customer invests $20,000 in a DPP and signs a recourse note for $50,000. During the first year of operation, the customer receives a cash distribution from the partnership of $15,000. At year end, the customer receives a K-1 statement reporting his share of partnership losses of $75,000. How much of the loss may the customer deduct from passive income?

A

A limited partner can only deduct partnership losses to the extent of his basis. To determine basis, add the original investment ($20,000). to any recourse debt assumed by the investor ($50,000). Recourse debt adds to basis as the partner is liable for this amount. Cash distributions received reduce basis ($15,000). At year end, the investor’s basis and the amount he can deduct from passive income is $55,000.

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14
Q

A customer has a margin account which shows a market value of $190,000 and a debit balance of $90,000. In addition, the account has SMA of $5,000. The long market value at maintenance is:

  1. 150k
  2. 120k
  3. 115k
  4. 95k
A

2; Long market value at maintenance is the point to where an account must fall (in market value) to reach minimum maintenance (25% of market value). To compute, divide the debit balance by .75 ($90,000 / .75 = $120,000). If the market value were to fall to $120,000, the account would look like this: $120,000 − $90,000 = $30,000 (25%) (MV − DB = EQ).

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15
Q

A father opens 4 custodial accounts for each of his children with the same mutual fund company. He invests $15,000 in each account. The fund company has breakpoints at $50,000, $100,000, and $200,000. The sales charge is:

  1. ineligible for a breakpoint b/c they are custodial accounts
  2. based on the total $60k investment and qualifies for the $50k breakpoint
  3. based on the total $50k investment and qualifies for the $100k breakpoint
  4. based on a $15k investment and is charged for each account
A

2; An investment made by one person in 4 custodial accounts for his children at the same fund company would qualify for the breakpoint that is applicable to the total amount invested. In this case, $60,000 was invested, so the applicable breakpoint is at $50,000.

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16
Q

A broker/dealer that is a financial advisor to a municipal issuer: I.cannot act as an underwriter of the issuers bonds in a negotiated underwriting and receive compensation for both services.
II.cannot act as an underwriter of the issuers bonds in a competitive bid underwriting and receive compensation for both services.
III.may always act as an underwriter of the issuers bonds in a negotiated underwriting and receive compensation for both services.
IV.may always act as an underwriter of the issuers bonds in a competitive bid underwriting and receive compensation for both service.

A

1 & 2; Broker/dealers acting as financial advisors to a municipality regarding a municipal issue are prohibited by MSRB Rule G-23 to also act as underwriters for the same issue regardless of whether the underwriting process has been done by competitive bid or was negotiated. In the event that an exception is allowed, or the broker dealer performs an advisory function specifically associated with the underwriting, the broker/dealer would be limited to accepting fees for the advisory service only and not be allowed to accept fees for any underwriting services.

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17
Q

Stock of which of the following companies trades on equity?

  1. car manufacturer
  2. steel manufacturer
  3. drug manufacturer
  4. public utility
A

4; Trading on equity relates to a highly leveraged company. Utility companies are normally highly leveraged.

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18
Q

A customer wanting to invest in an oil and gas limited partnership wants to know what her cost basis would be for tax purposes. While there can be a number of variables, cost basis for a limited partner is best defined as

  1. cash investment made - distributions
  2. cash investment made + recourse debt - distributions
  3. recourse debt - cash distributions
  4. noncash contribution + nonrecourse debt - recourse debt
A

2; Cost basis for a limited partner is defined as investment made (cash contributions) + recourse debt (debt the LP is responsible for) – distributions. Nonrecourse debt would only be included for real estate programs. Real estate programs are the only types where LPs can be responsible for both recourse and nonrecourse debt.

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19
Q

Which of the following documents would include information about the issuer’s financial condition?

  1. official statement
  2. trust indenture
  3. bond resolution
  4. notice of sale
A

The official statement is used to disclose all material information about the issuer an investor would need to know to make a decision regarding issue purchase.

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20
Q

Listed options expire at?

A

Options expire on the third Friday of the expiration month at 11:59 pm ET.

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21
Q

GC, Inc., is proposing an additional public offering of common stock. It conducts a rights offering to its current shareholders at $55 per share, plus 5 rights. If the market price of GCI is $70 after the ex-rights date passes, what is the value of 1 right?

A

Since the stock is selling ex (after ex-rights), the formula is ($70 − $55) / 5. ($70 − $55 = $15) ($15 / 5 = $3).

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22
Q

During a period of suspension, a suspended member must:

  1. have no securities dealings of any kind
  2. restrict its securities activities to investment banking
  3. restrict its securities activities to mutual funds
  4. be treated as a nonmember by other members
A

4; A member firm under suspension is essentially a nonmember during the period of suspension.

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23
Q

The doctrine of reciprocal immunity most accurately describes:

A

The principle that neither the states nor the federal government may tax income received from securities issued by the other is known as the doctrine of reciprocal immunity. States may, however, tax the interest on debt securities of other states. This doctrine provides the original basis for the federal income tax exemption on interest paid on municipal debt securities.

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24
Q

Which term describes the following position?

Write 1 DOH Jan 30 call.
Write 1 DOH Jan 40 put

A

A combination is composed of a long call and long put, or a short call and a short put each having different strike prices and/or expiration months on the same underlying security.

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25
The real value of property within the city limits is $100 million. The city uses a 50% assessment rate. A 10 mill tax rate will provide tax revenues of:
1 mill = $.001. 10 mills = .01 (10 X .001). $100 million × 50% assessment rate = $50 million. $50,000,000 X .01 = $500,000.
26
All of the following are primary objectives in a DPP EXCEPT: 1. long term capital gains 2. deferment of taxes 3. deductions against other income 4. short term capital gains
4; DPPs are used to defer present income into the future and take advantage of time.
27
Smith and Co., Inc. has 1 million shares of common stock outstanding and plans to sell 200,000 new shares via a rights offering. Joe Wilson, a common stockholder, owns 200 shares of the company. How many rights will he receive in the mail, and how many rights will it take to purchase one of the new shares?
Stockholders receive one right per share owned. Hence, Joe receives 200 rights. The purpose is to maintain shareholders' proportionate interest in the company. Since the number of shares outstanding will increase by 20%, Joe needs to purchase 40 new shares (200 / 40 = 5 rights per share).
28
Each of the following is a characteristic of money market funds EXCEPT: 1. stable NAV 2. high beta 3. offered without a sales load 4. portfolio of short term debt instruments
2; Money market mutual funds invest in a portfolio of short-term debt instruments such as T-bills, commercial paper, and bankers acceptances. They are offered without a sales load or charge. The principal objective of the fund is to maintain a stable NAV ($1 per share). Beta is a measure of volatility; money market funds have low betas.
29
Moody's Investment Grade (MIG) rating would be applicable to: 1. a NY State revenue anticipation note 2. NY State university bond 3. NY State GO bond 4. NY state revenue bond
A MIG rating is provided for short-term municipal debt commonly referred to as notes (revenue anticipation notes).
30
If a customer has a margin account with a long market value of $140,000 and a debit balance of $60,000, what is the buying power in the account? 1. 20k 2. 5k 3. 0 4. 10k
The buying power of a margin account is twice the amount of SMA. This account has equity of $80,000, and the Regulation T requirement is $70,000. Therefore, the excess equity is $10,000 or SMA purchasing power equal to $20,000.
31
Which of the following statements about a Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA) is NOT true? 1. Contributions are tax deductible, subject to a modified AGI phaseout. 2. The funds grow income tax deferred and, if used for elementary, secondary, or college educational expenses, the earnings are tax free. 3. Contributions can be made to this type of plan and a Section 529 plan in the same year for the same beneficiary. 4. Contributions of $2,000 per child per year are allowed.
1; Contributions to an ESA are not tax deductible.
32
A customer has a margin account with RTQ Securities, Inc. in which he has securities with a market value of $400,000 and a debit balance of $110,000. In the event of the bankruptcy of RTQ, SIPC covers: 1. $290k 2. $400k 3. $100k 4. $500k
1; SIPC protects each separate customer to a maximum of $500,000 in equity. This account has equity of $290,000 ($400,000 LMV minus $110,000 Dr).
33
Which of the following statements regarding fixed municipal unit trusts are TRUE? I.The trust is managed. II.The trust is not managed. III.The portfolio can be traded. IV.The portfolio cannot be traded.
2 & 4; Fixed unit trusts are not managed; the portfolio of securities does not change. As bonds mature or are called, the proceeds are distributed pro rata to the unit holders. These units are redeemable by the issuer or its agent.
34
An investment company share purchased at its NAV that can always be redeemed later at its then-current NAV is a: Class A, B, C or D share?
Class C; Class A shares are purchased at NAV plus sales charge. Class B shares pay the sales charge upon redemption. Class D shares have a level load plus a redemption fee. Class C shares have only a level load (a 12b-1 fee) which is taken from net assets during the year.
35
All of the following are regulated by the MSRB EXCEPT: 1. quotes 2. issuers 3. dealers 4. sales reps
Quotes, dealers, and sales representatives are regulated by the MSRB; issuers are not.
36
BAKE-ALL, a U.S. manufacturing corporation, has purchased shares of stock in RE-FORM, a U.S. corporation that refines raw materials. RE-FORM pays a dividend to its shareholders. For BAKE-ALL corporation, taxes will be due on what percentage of the dividends received from RE-FORM?
When a U.S. corporation receives dividends from another U.S. corporation it has invested in, 50% of the dividends received are excluded from taxation (tax free). Therefore, it is the remaining 50% of the dividends received that are taxable.
37
All of the following would be excluded from raising capital under Regulation A+ EXCEPT: 1. small manufacturing company 2. venture capital firm raising money for small and medium size companies 3. hedge fund specializing in small startup companies 4. private equity fund
Under Reg. A+ intended to facilitate small to medium size companies raise investment capital, venture capital firms, private equity funds and hedge funds are specifically excluded.
38
When using customer portfolio margining (CPM) to calculate margin, the requirements are 1. Based on the risk associated with the security having the highest volatility in a portfolio. 2. Based on the net risks associated with all the securities in a portfolio. 3. Higher than the margin requirements calculated conventionally. 4. Lower than the margin requirements calculated conventionally.
2 & 4; Customer portfolio margining (CPM) allows margin requirements to be calculated based on the net risk of a portfolio of securities rather than applying margin calculations separately to each position. While a number of criteria must be met before offering portfolio margining to a customer, generally it will result in lower margin requirements than when margin is calculated conventionally.
39
True or false: Margin trading in a trust account is permitted only if it is specifically provided for in the trust agreement.
True
40
An inverted yield curve is the result of:
When investors believe that interest rates may decline soon, they seek to lock in the current rate of return by buying long-term bonds. Increased demand increases the price and causes the yields on long-term debt instruments to fall. In addition, selling short-term bonds depresses prices, causing yields to rise. As a result, the yield curve takes on a negative slope. Short-term yields are then higher than long-term yields, which is the definition of an inverted curve.
41
If a customer buys a corporate bond at a discount in the secondary market, which of the following statements are TRUE if the bond is held to maturity?1. The discount is taxable as ordinary income. 2. The discount is taxable as a long-term capital gain. 3. The interest income is taxable as ordinary income. 4. The interest income is not taxable.
The discount on a corporate bond purchased in the secondary market must be accreted and is taxable as ordinary income, not as a capital gain. Furthermore, the interest income on corporate bonds is fully taxable.
42
The determination as to whether an OTC stock is eligible for purchase on margin is made by:
All decisions regarding initial margin eligibility are the role of the Federal Reserve Board.
43
For municipal bond transactions, data captured and made available to the market place is done by which entity?
MSRB Real Time Transaction Reporting System (RTRS) captures transaction data for municipal bonds and makes it available to the market place via numerous third-party vendors available to the public.
44
A member firm has decided to allow a registered representative to operate from his residence. Which of the following statements are TRUE? 1. Prior consent of the member's self-regulatory organization (SRO) is required. 2. Prior consent of the member's self-regulatory organization (SRO) is not required. 3. The residence may be advertised. 4. The residence may not be advertised.
Prior approval of the member firm's SRO is required when opening any office, including a private residence. The home address and telephone number may be advertised in any normal manner such as business cards, stationery, local newspapers, and so forth.
45
An issuer may direct sales of a new issue to all of the following EXCEPT: 1. officers of its largest supplier 2. officers of the issuer 3. officers of the managing underwriter 4. officers of its largest customer
3; Issuer-directed sales are permitted if the persons to whom the new issue is sold are not restricted. Officers of the managing underwriter are restricted.
46
A New York Stock Exchange specialist (designated market maker) is employed by:
a member of the exchange
47
Your manager notifies you that a new municipal revenue bond issue you have been working on has been oversubscribed. How is the order acceptance priority for this issue determined?
The priority of filling municipal orders is established by the managing underwriter in the release terms letter sent to the syndicate once the bid is won. This letter is an amendment to the agreement among underwriters. The priority is also disclosed in the official statement.
48
Market timing is normally associated with which of the following portfolio management styles?
Tactical asset allocation, which attempts to capitalize on short-term market swings, is a market timing strategy.
49
Which of the following trades settle next business day? 1. U.S. government debt 2. U.S. government agency debt 3. Municipal bonds 4. Listed options
U.S. government debt and listed options settle next day (T + 1); government agency debt and municipal bonds along with corporate securities are subject to regular way settlement of T + 2.
50
True or False: Minimum maintenance requirements for nonexempt securities, as well as margin and maintenance requirements for exempt securities, are set by a firm's SRO.
True
51
Trading in expiring options series concludes the same day as expiration at
The official close is 4:00 pm ET on the 3rd Friday of the expiration month. Expiring options may be exercised until 5:30 pm ET on the same day.
52
What are the four markets?
The secondary trading of securities takes place in four markets: the first market is listed securities traded on an exchange floor; the second market deals with unlisted securities; the third market is where listed securities trade over the counter; and the fourth market is where financial institutions trade directly with each other, utilizing electronic communications networks (ECNs).
53
KPT, Inc. is preparing to report its net income for the past year. An increase in which of the following causes a decrease in the reported net income? 1. Tax rate. 2. Cash dividend. 3. Allowance for bad debts. 4. Retained earnings.
Higher taxes mean less net income. The allowance for bad debts is an expense item; increasing it lowers operating income. Dividends are paid out of retained earnings which have no effect on the net income the company reports.
54
The term that describes options of the same exercise price and expiration date for the same underlying security is:
Options at the same exercise price and expiration date for the same underlying security are known as a series of options.
55
A 52-year-old dentist has a balance of $150,000 in his Keogh plan, composed of $100,000 of contributions and $50,000 of earnings. If the dentist withdrew $100,000 from the Keogh plan, which of the following statements are TRUE? 1. The entire withdrawal is taxable. 2. The entire withdrawal is not taxable. 3. The entire withdrawal is subject to a 10% penalty tax. 4. Only the portion of the withdrawal representing earnings ($50,000) is subject to a 10% penalty.
Contributions to qualified plans are made with pretax dollars and earnings grow on a tax-deferred basis, so the cost basis is zero. Therefore, any distributions will be taxed as ordinary income. In addition, there is a 10% penalty on withdrawals made prior to reaching age 59-½.
56
What occurs in a partnership account if one partner dies?
Upon a partner's death, a partnership account is automatically frozen until a new or amended partnership agreement is received. The deceased partner's share usually goes to an estate, not to the other partners.
57
100 VALDEZ ALASKA MARINE TERM REV P/R @102 6.000 7/01/15 The P/R @102 means the bonds are:
P/R means pre-refunded. These bonds would be rated AAA.
58
Your broker/dealer acts as a prime broker for ABC fund. In this arrangement, your broker/dealer is likely to be providing which of the following services? 1. Execution of all transactions for the fund portfolio 2. Clearing services 3. Lending for trades done on margin 4. Ensuring that all exchange-trading rules are complied by
The prime broker would supply clearing services, lending services for marginable transaction, as well as back office support including cash management, account statements, and transaction processing. Actual executions and abiding by all exchange rules when transactions occur is the responsibility of the executing broker/dealers.
59
Margin requirements on exempt securities (U.S. government securities and municipal securities) are set by:
The FRB sets the initial margin requirements for nonexempt securities. The margin requirements for exempt securities, such as U.S. governments, are set by a firm's SRO or DEA (designated examining authority).
60
The interest on Series EE bonds is received by the holder of the bond:
Series EE bonds are designed for individual investors, sold at face value, and redeemed at an amount that includes the interest income which is calculated and accrues every six months.
61
A covered call could be written to: 1. improve the return of a portfolio 2. lock in a profit 3. purchase future securities 4. protect a short stock position
Writing a call will not necessarily lock in the profit. In the form of increased cash flow, it will improve the return on the portfolio.
62
All of the following statements regarding the 5% markup policy are true EXCEPT: 1. a transaction in common stock typically has a higher percentage markup than a bond transaction 2. the type of security is a factor to consider 3. a riskless transaction is not generally covered by the 5% policy 4. the markup policy doesn't apply to securities sold a t a specific price and with a prospectus
Riskless transactions are covered by the 5% markup policy.
63
Holding Company Depository Receipts (HOLDRs) are 1. traded on exchanges in round lots 2. redeemable by the issuer, just as mutual funds shares are redeemable by an investment company 3. investments that will distribute the cash dividends of the companies held in the portfolio directly to the investor 4. investments that allow no flexibility in managing the tax consequences related to holding shares of the companies within the portfolio
HOLDRs are exchange-traded investments and trade in round lots (100 shares). They are not redeemable by their issuer like mutual fund shares are. Additionally, HOLDRs distribute cash dividends generated by the companies held in the portfolio directly to the owners of the HOLDR shares. These exchange-traded products allow great flexibility in managing the tax consequences of the investment because the securities can be unbundled and traded individually, thus taking losses when advantageous and deferring gains when advantageous.
64
Which of the following order types are available to customers for use in NYSE equity markets? 1. Fill or kill. (FOK) 2. Immediate or cancel. (IOC) 3. All or none. (AON) 4. Order cancels other. (OCO)
IOC and OCO orders are available to customers for use in the NYSE equity markets. FOK and AON orders are no longer permitted in NYSE equity markets.
65
Which of the following statements regarding the flow of funds found within a municipal trust indenture are TRUE?1. It describes the disbursement of funds for revenue bond issues. 2. It describes the disbursement of funds for general obligation issues. 3. It is found within the official statement. 4. It is found within the bond contract.
The term "flow of funds" relates to revenue bond offerings only and describes the priority of disbursing revenues from the project. Generally, the revenues are deposited into a general collection account for disbursement into other accounts as specified in the trust indenture found in the bond contract.
66
U.S. government securities that are deposited with a trustee against which certificates are sold representing principal payments only on the securities are: 1. clipped bonds. 2. stripped bonds. 3. subject to annual taxation on the per year accreted amount. 4. subject to taxation at maturity.
U.S. government securities that are deposited with a trustee and against which certificates are sold representing principal payments only on the securities are referred to as Treasury STRIPS. These are zero-coupon bonds issued by the U.S. government and are subject to annual taxation on the per-year accreted amount.
67
If trading is halted in a listed stock, what happens to the trading in the stock's listed options? 1. it increases 2. it continues to trade 3. it is halted 4. it is restricted to closing transactions
Options trading is always halted when the trading of the underlying security is halted. Options rely primarily on the underlying market value for premium determination.
68
A corporation has $12 million net income after taxes, 5 million common shares outstanding, and $10 million of 6% preferred stock ($100 par). What is the corporation's earnings per share (EPS)? 1. $2.28 2. $1.20 3. $2.52 4 $2.40
Begin by calculating how much of the net income is available for common stockholders (net income after taxes minus preferred dividends equals earnings available for common stockholders). The preferred stockholders received $600,000 in dividends (100,000 pfd shares × $6 per share dividends = $600,000). After subtracting $600,000 from the net income of $12 million, this leaves $11.4 million (earnings available for common stockholders). Compute EPS (earnings available for common ÷ number of common shares outstanding = $11.4 million / 5 million shares = $2.28 per share EPS).
69
Which of the following statements regarding joint accounts/tenants in common are TRUE?1. Each party specifies a percentage of interest in the account. 2. Each party has an equal interest in the account. 3. The interest of a deceased tenant passes to the estate of the decedent. 4. The interest of a deceased tenant passes to the co-tenant.
In a TIC account, each party must specify a percentage of interest in the account. If one party dies, his percentage of ownership passes to his estate, not to any other party to the account.
70
Which of the following is TRUE of the visible supply in "The Bond Buyer"? 1. it is the total of the bonds offered in the Blue List 2. It is a weekly listing of bonds to be offered in the next 30 days 3. It is a weekly listing of bonds sold in the past 30 days
2; The visible supply implies that the supply of bonds will be available for the visible future.
71
The trust indenture of a revenue bond will show all of the following EXCEPT the: 1. rate covenant 2. reoffering yields 3. revenue pledge 4. application of flow of funds
Reoffering yields are unrelated to trust indentures. However, the trust indenture for a revenue bond issue does include covenants (or promises) between the issuer and the trustee for the bondholders' benefit. Among these covenants are the flow of funds and the rate covenant.
72
For a new issue municipal syndicate account, settlement of the account must occur: 1. within 30 calendar days after the issuer delivers the securities to the syndicate 2. within 1 year after the issuer delivers the securities to the syndicate 3. as soon as dealers who are not members of the syndicate request a bond 4. when the last bond is sold with no time limit imposed
The maximum length of time a new issue municipal bond syndicate can exist is 30 calendar days after the issuer delivers the securities to the syndicate. At that time the account must be settled and allocation of unsold bonds be determined in accordance with each members original allocation and whether the syndicate was set up as divided (western) or undivided (eastern).
73
A customer is selling inherited stock. The decedent originally paid $50 per share and on the date of the decedent's death, the stock was worth $60 per share. On the day the customer sells the stock, the price per share is $62. What is the investor's cost basis in the stock?
The IRS allows a step-up in basis for inherited stock. The customer's cost basis is the fair market value of the stock on the date that the decedent died.
74
When operating a Keogh plan, a self-employed individual must make contributions for
Employees must be covered under a Keogh plan if they are at least 21 years old, have been employed a minimum of 1 year, and work full-time (at least 1,000 hours per year). Keogh plans do not include employees who are under 21 or have just started working with the employer
75
You have just received a statement of claim from the Director of Arbitration. One of your customers is claiming that your failure to follow his instructions led to a loss of $36,000. Under FINRA rules, you must respond within:
Under the Code of Arbitration, a respondent has 45 days to respond to both the director and the claimant.
76
A workable indication for a block of municipal bonds is a:
A bid is the price at which a dealer states its willingness to purchase securities from another broker/dealer. A dealer soliciting a workable indication is often working to satisfy a customer's order to sell securities. A dealer giving a workable indication is free to revise its bid if market conditions change.
77
In a new margin account, a customer sells short $60,000 worth of ABC stock and deposits $30,000 to meet the Regulation T requirement. If the value of ABC falls to $55,000, the SMA balance in the account would be:
For every $1 decrease in market value in a short account, $1.50 of SMA is created. Therefore, if the market value falls by $5,000, the SMA balance would be $7,500.
78
The most current information on new releases of municipal bonds can be found in:
"The Bond Buyer" is a daily trade publication containing news about new municipal bond issues.
79
A broker/dealer has put customer’s securities in its own proprietary accounts. This is a violation of industry rules known as:
Mixing a customer's securities in with the accounts of the broker/dealer is commingling and is prohibited by securities industry regulations.
80
The prime rate is the:
The prime rate is the rate on corporate loans at large U.S. money center commercial banks. The federal funds rate is the rate for excess reserves traded among commercial banks for overnight use in amounts of $1 million or more. The discount rate is the charge on loans to member institutions by the New York FRB. The broker call loan rate is the charge on loans to brokers for margin investors.
81
All of the following sources of revenue could be used to service general obligation debt EXCEPT: 1. sales taxes 2. user charges 3. fines 4. ad valorem taxes
Historically, municipalities get most of their revenues from property taxes (ad valorem taxes). Other sources of revenue include sales taxes, income taxes, gasoline taxes, license fees, fines, and assessments. User charges would be used to service revenue bonds.
82
Financial information CANNOT be used in a mutual fund prospectus if the information is older than:
A mutual fund prospectus may not contain information that is more than 16 months old.
83
Long term securities issued by municipalities that use a Dutch auction method to reset short term interest rates known as "clearing rates" are:
Auction Rate Securities (ARSs) are long term securities issued by municipalities that use a Dutch auction to reset interest rates at short term intervals. The reset rate is known as the "clearing rate" and establishes the rate paid during the period following the auction.
84
Characteristics of Inverse Floater CMOs include: 1. low volatility. 2. high volatility. 3. decreasing principal payments as interest rates rise. 4. increasing principal payments as interest rates rise.
Inverse floater CMO tranche types are considered to be highly volatile and suitable only for sophisticated investors willing to assume high levels of risk. As interest rates rise, principal payments to the investor may decrease. The reduction in repayment of principal extends the maturity date which is known as extension risk.
85
If an employee of an NYSE member wants to take a second job, which of the following statements is TRUE? 1. prior written notice to the member firm is required 2. prior written notice to the member firm and prior written permission to the employee is required 3. prior permission of the NYSE is required 4. prior notice to the NYSE is required
Prior written notice to the member firm from the employee is required. While no prior written permission of the firm is required, the member firm does have the right to reject or restrict and outside affiliations if they feel a conflict of interest exists.
86
Which of the following are functions of an investment company's custodian bank?1. Safekeeping of portfolio securities and cash. 2. Providing portfolio advice regarding transactions. 3. Maintaining asset records for the fund. 4. Safekeeping of customer securities.
The custodian bank performs bookkeeping and clerical functions and retains the fund's cash and securities for safekeeping. The adviser offers portfolio advice and management services. The custodian provides for safekeeping of fund securities, not investors' securities.
87
The following dividends were received by a husband, his wife, and both of them jointly: husband-$160; wife-$160; joint-$100. Indicate the amount of dividends that would be subject to taxation if they filed a joint tax return.
$160 + $160 + $100 = $420. This would all be taxable as ordinary income.
88
Which of the following listed option orders can be combined to form a spread order?1. Buy 1 XYZ Jul 30 put. 2. Sell 1 XYZ Jul 35 call. 3. Sell 1 XYZ Jul 35 put. 4. Buy 1 ABC Jul 30 call.
Spreads are deemed to be of the same class; class is defined as the same underlying security and the same type of option. Choices II and III would be a short straddle. The ABC call cannot be combined with anything, since you'd be combining ABC stock with XYZ stock.
89
A company has reverse-split its common stock. The effect on the earnings per share will be:
When a reverse split takes place, the number of outstanding shares is reduced. Since the split has no effect on earnings of the company, dividing those earnings by fewer shares will cause an increase to the earnings per share.
90
SIPC uses which of the following to determine the value of customer claims when a broker/dealer becomes insolvent? 1. market value on the date the trustee pays the customers their balances 2. market value on the date the broker/dealer becomes insolvent 3. market value on the date a federal court is petitioned to appoint a trustee 4. average market value from the time a trustee is appointed to the payment date
customer claims are valued on the day a federal court is petitioned to appoint a trustee.
91
A variable-rate municipal bond investment's main advantage is that:
its price should remain relatively stable; A variable-rate bond has no fixed coupon rate. The coupon is tied to a market rate (for example, T-bond yields) and subject to change at regular intervals. Because the interest paid reflects changes in overall interest rates, the bond price remains relatively close to its par value. Its coupon is always representative of the current market rate. As rates rise, the coupon is adjusted upward. As rates fall, the coupon is adjusted downward.
92
The interest from which of the following bonds might be included in the alternative minimum tax calculation? 1. special assessment bonds 2. GO bonds 3. industrial development revenue bonds 4. TANs
Industrial revenue bonds (IRBs), sometimes called industrial development bonds (IDBs), may be nonpublic purpose bonds, and the proceeds are used to benefit private corporations. As such, the interest income from these bonds is a tax-preference item in the AMT calculation.
93
Which of the following would be the least appropriate investment in a traditional IRA for a 67-year-old client? 1. t-notes 2. corporate bonds 3. variable annuities 4. common stock
Why buy a tax-deferred product in a tax-deferred account? A variable annuity will provide no additional tax savings and will likely increase the expense of the IRA. In addition to sales and surrender charges, variable annuities may impose other charges such as mortality and expense risk charges, administrative fees, etc. In less than 4 years, your client will have to begin making withdrawals regardless of any surrender charges the annuity may impose.
94
An example of a taxable bond issued by a municipal government is:
Build America Bonds (BABs) are municipal issues created under the Economic Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 to assist in reducing costs to issuing municipalities and stimulate the economy. Bonds to fund municipal projects have traditionally been sold in the tax-exempt arena, but BABs are taxable obligations.
95
What has a customer established who buys 5 XYZ Jan 40 calls at 6 and writes 10 XYZ Jan 50 calls at 1 when XYZ is trading at 43?
In theory this position is just like ratio call writing where more calls are written (sold) than stock is owned. When a ratio spread is established a customer writes (sells) more contracts than are being purchased. In this case, the customer is buying 5 calls and selling 10 calls. In a ratio call spread, potential loss is unlimited because the additional calls sold are uncovered (naked).
96
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC at 56.50 and writes 1 ABC Aug 60 call at 2. If the call is exercised, the consequences are1. a cost basis of $56.50 per share. 2. a cost basis of $58.50 per share. 3. sales proceeds of $60 per share. 4. sales proceeds of $62 per share.
The premium of the option affects the basis of the stock (bought or sold) as a result of exercise, adding the premium per share ($2) to the price per share ($60) for a total sales proceeds of $62. The original cost basis is not affected by the exercise, so it remains $56.50.
97
All of the following municipal securities are quoted on a yield basis EXCEPT: 1. secured bonds 2. TANs 3. serial bonds 4. term bonds
Term bonds, or dollar bonds, are quoted like corporate bonds as a percentage of par. All other municipals are quoted in basis.
98
Universal variable life policies 1. have investment risk that is assumed by the investor 2. do not have a separate account 3. can be sold by someone with only an insurance license 4. are purchased primarily for their insurance features
Universal variable life policies are insurance company products that should be purchased primarily for the insurance features they offer rather than as an investment. Because they have a separate account in which the investor assumes the investment risk, they can only be sold by individuals with both insurance and securities licenses.
99
All of the following statements about municipal brokers' brokers are true EXCEPT that they: 1. don't maintain inventories 2. don't perform retail trades with individual investors 3. perform trades on a principal basis only 4. perform specialized trades for institutions
A broker's broker does not maintain an inventory of bonds. Therefore, they do not act as principals; they act as agents only in trades between dealers or between institutions. They do no retail business.
100
According to the Dow theory, reversal of a primary bullish trend must be confirmed by:
Charted price trends can be deceptive, so a trend must be confirmed by the Dow Jones Industrial Average and Transportation Average.
101
What document sets forth the priority of sale of securities?
The syndicate letter lists the terms under which members will conduct the sale of the bonds. It also describes each member's sharing of profits and expenses, the type of business entity (i.e., joint venture or partnership), and the good faith deposit required.
102
Which of the following terms are associated with over-the-counter trading?1. Market maker. 2. Specialist. 3. Auction market. 4. Negotiated market.
The over-the-counter market is a negotiated market. Within it, market makers are broker/dealer firms that provide a source for stock that customers wish to buy and a repository for stock that customers wish to sell.
103
A Tier 1 securities offering under Regulation A+ allows small to medium sized companies to raise up to:
Tier 1 of Regulation A+ allows small to medium sized companies to raise up to a maximum of $20 million in a 12-month period
104
If LMN, Inc. has filed for bankruptcy, in what order would interested parties be paid? 1. Holders of secured debt. 2. Holders of subordinated debentures. 3. General creditors. 4. Preferred stockholders.
The liquidation order is as follows: the IRS (and other government agencies), secured debt holders, unsecured debt holders and general creditors, holders of subordinated debt, preferred stockholders, and common stockholders.
105
Which of the following is NOT true in jurisdictions that recognize the marital property designation known as community property? 1. community property laws don't apply to gifts 2. community property laws don't apply to inheritances 3. there may be tax implications regarding the dissolution of community property at the time of a divorce, marriage annulment or death 4. community property applies to property owned individually before a marriage once the marriage has occurred
Community property applies to property obtained during a marriage but does not apply to property owned individually by one spouse before the marriage. In addition, it does not apply to inheritances or gifts. There can be federal tax implications for property designated as community property and laws in states that recognize community property ownership differs from jurisdiction to jurisdiction.
106
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding tax-deferred, noncontributory, defined benefit plans?1. Contribution amounts are fixed. 2. Contribution amounts vary. 3. Benefit payments are fixed. 4. Benefit payments vary.
In an employer-sponsored defined benefit plan, the contribution amounts vary according to the assumptions used. The benefit amount, however, will be fixed per person based on a formula combining age, years of service, salary, etc.
107
A municipal issuer publishes an official notice of sale to indicate that the offering will be made: 1. on a negotiated basis 2. on a competitive basis 3. through a private placement 4. none of these
An official notice of sale is the issuer's method of inviting competitive bids on a new issue. It sets forth all of the information about the issue that a dealer would need in order to make a bid, including the size of the offering, the maturity dates, and the date, time, and place of the sale.
108
An investor long 100 shares of stock writes a call against the long stock position. If the call is exercised and the investor must deliver the stock, which of the following tax consequences will occur? 1. sales proceeds are adjusted for the stock 2. both cost basis and sales proceeds must be adjusted 3. cost basis is adjusted for the stock 4. there are no adjustments for cost basis or sales proceeds for tax purposes
When the call is exercised the owner of the stock will be obligated to sell the shares owned at the strike price. The sales proceeds for the stock will be adjusted upwards by the amount of the premium received when the call was sold.
109
The portion of a municipal bond underwriting spread that remains after the syndicate manager subtracts the management fee is:
The total takedown is that portion of the municipal underwriting spread that remains after the underwriting manager takes the management fee. The total takedown consists of the additional takedown and the concession.
110
Which of the following statements describe the conduit theory of taxation?1. A fund is not taxed on earnings it distributes provided distributions equal 90% or more of net investment income. 2. Earnings distributed by a regulated investment company are taxed three times. 3. Dividends and interest are passed through to the investor without the fund being taxed. 4. Dividends and interest accumulate tax free to the shareholder.
1 & 3; Under the conduit, or pipeline, theory of taxation, a fund is liable for taxes only on the income retained, provided it distributes at least 90% of its net investment income. The investor benefits because the income is only taxed twice (at the corporate level and at the individual level), and avoids taxation at the fund level. There is no tax-free accumulation for the shareholder.
111
A city's day-to-day operational expenses may be met by the issuance of:
When a city needs short-term cash flow to meet ordinary operating expenses (e.g., to meet the payroll for city employees), it issues TANs. These notes are paid off when the city collects the expected tax revenues.
112
A stock pays a $.50 quarterly dividend. The company had earnings per share last year of $10. The company’s dividend retention ratio is:
The dividend retention ratio is the reciprocal of the dividend payout ratio. If the company pays a $2 dividend on earnings of $10, it pays out 20% of the earnings available to common shareholders in the form of the dividend. That means it retains 80% of the available monies.
113
If a corporation begins a nonqualified retirement plan, which of the following statements is TRUE? 1. employee contributions grow tax deferred if they are invested in an annuity 2. employer contributions are tax deductible 3. employee contributions are tax deductible 4. the employer must abide by all ERISA requirements
Earnings accumulate tax deferred if the plan is funded by an investment vehicle that offers tax deferral, such as an annuity contract. Tax has been paid on all amounts the employees and the employer contribute to the plan. Nonqualified plans need not comply with all ERISA requirements.
114
If an investment company invests in a fixed portfolio of municipal or corporate bonds, it is classified as a:
A unit investment trust issues shares that represent units of a particular portfolio; management has no authority, or only limited authority, to change the portfolio. The portfolio is fixed, it is not traded.
115
Under the rules regarding the sales of new equity issues, which of the following are restricted purchasers? 1. Aunts and uncles. 2. In-laws. 3. Supported persons. 4. Grandparents.
Restricted purchasers include spouses, parents, children, siblings, and in-laws. Aunts and uncles, as well as grandparents, are excluded. A person supported by an employee of a member can never buy a new equity issue.
116
Which of the following are TRUE of the Bond Buyer Revenue Bond Index (Revdex)? 1. It includes 30-year bonds. 2. It includes 20 bonds. 3. It is compiled weekly. 4. It is compiled monthly.
The Bond Buyer Revdex is computed weekly just like the Bond Buyer's GO index. Revdex consists of 25 revenue bonds with 30-year maturities. The GO index includes 20 bonds, each with approximately 20 years to maturity.
117
A customer purchases 200 shares of ABC Health Care at $60 per share and meets the initial margin requirement. If ABC announces an acquisition and its stock appreciates on the news to $75, how much cash can the customer withdraw after this market move?
The customer could withdraw cash equal to the SMA. A purchase of 200 shares at $60 per share would require an initial deposit of $6,000 on a market value of $12,000. The customer would have $6,000 in equity and a $6,000 debit. After a rise to $75 a share, the stock's market value would be $15,000. The customer's debit balance would remain unchanged at $6,000, but the equity would increase to $9,000 ($15,000 CMV − $6,000 DR). The customer needs to have 50% equity (50% × $15,000 = $7,500). Because the customer only needs $7,500 equity but now has $9,000, the excess equity of $1,500 is credited to SMA, which is the amount the customer can withdraw.
118
Regulation T permits borrowing money for the purchase of each of the following EXCEPT: 1. listed warrants 2. listed options with expirations of less than 9 months 3. listed stocks and bonds 4. unlisted stocks and bonds
Options with expirations of less than 9 months must be fully paid without exception. With some exceptions, warrants, stocks, and bonds may be purchased on margin.
119
Which of the following is federally tax exempt for a corporation? 1. municipal bond interest 2. foreign corporate stock dividends 3. preferred stock dividends 4. capital gains
Municipal bonds are tax exempt for corporations as well as for individuals. Preferred stock dividends are taxable but at a reduced rate for corporations due to the 70% dividend exclusion. That break does not apply to the dividends on foreign securities. Regardless of the security, capital gains are taxable.
120
All of the following statements regarding 529 plans are true EXCEPT: 1. the assets in the account are controlled by the account owner, not the child 2. the income level of the contributor can affect the annual contribution amount 3. contributions to a 529 plan may be subject to gift taxation 4. states impose very high overall contribution limits
Unlike Coverdell ESAs, the income level of the contributor will not affect annual contributions under a Section 529 plan.
121
The holder of a variable annuity receives the largest monthly payments under which of the following payout options? 1. joint tenants annuity 2. life annuity with period certain 3. joint and last survivor annuity 4. life annuity
Life annuity has the largest payout because less risk is assumed by the insurance company; there is no beneficiary in the event the annuitant dies.
122
Which of the following is NOT true of the Interbank market? 1. it is based in london 2. it is susceptible to central bank intervention 3. it deals in currencies 4 it is unregulated
1; The interbank market deals primarily in currencies and is unregulated. It is an over-the-counter market whose participants are major currency dealers, such as banks. Central banks, such as the Federal Reserve, use the market to try to influence exchange rates.
123
How much would SMA's price increase if a customer bought $22,000 worth of marginable stock in the existing margin account and fully paid for the transaction?
Assuming the customer paid for the securities in full, he would generate $11,000 in SMA. Because the customer need pay only half of the securities' value ($11,000), the additional cash paid ($11,000) would be considered a nonrequired cash deposit and be credited to SMA. Another way to view the transaction is the customer has fully paid securities with a loan value of 50%, or $11,000.
124
An investor has a diversified portfolio of common stock with a market value of $1.7 million and a beta of 1.20. If the OEX (S&P 100) is currently quoted at 680, to protect the portfolio against a decline in value, the investor's best strategy is to buy: 1. 25 calls 2. 25 puts 3. 30 calls 4. 30 puts
Buying puts is the most effective strategy to hedge the risk of decline in a stock portfolio's market value. To determine the number of option contracts necessary to hedge, divide the portfolio value ($1.7 million) by the market value of the index (68,000). Multiply the result (25) by the beta of 1.20. The result is 30 contracts.
125
A 7% bond is selling to yield 4-½%. The next time interest is paid, an investor who owns $10,000 face amount of the bonds will receive:
The bond is a 7% bond. The total amount paid each year on 10 bonds is $700. The amount paid for a 6 month's interest is $350.
126
When a registered representative opens a new options account, in which order must the following actions take place?1. Obtain approval from the branch manager. 2. Obtain essential facts from the customer. 3. Obtain a signed options agreement. 4. Enter the initial order.
The steps in opening an options account occur in the following order: obtain essential facts about the customer; give the customer an options disclosure document; have the manager approve the account; enter the initial order; and have the customer sign the options agreement within 15 days.
127
An open-end investment company may do all of the following EXCEPT: 1. borrow money 2. continuously offer shares 3. issue bonds 4. redeem shares
issue bonds; A mutual fund may not issue any senior securities, although it may purchase almost any type of security for its portfolio.
128
Your clients' option position has been adjusted due to a 2 for 1 stock split. Which of the following regarding this 2 for 1 adjustment is TRUE? 1. the strike price will remain unchanged 2. the number of shares per contract will increase 3. number of contracts owned will increase 4. strike price will increase
For even splits (i.e., 2 for 1 or 3 for 1), the number of contracts owned will increase proportionately. The number of shares per contract will remain unchanged and the strike price will decrease proportionately.
129
According to the multi-tiered market making system of NYSE Euronext, a Supplemental Liquidity Provider may: 1. never compete with the specialist. 2. make markets in NYSE listed securities from an off-floor location. 3. never receive rebates of transaction fees from the exchange. 4. make a one-sided market.
Under the multi-tiered market maker system employed by NYSE Euronext a Supplemental Liquidity Provider may compete with the on-floor Specialist (Designated Market Maker) and receive rebates of exchange transaction fees. Unlike a Designated Market Maker the Supplemental Liquidity Provider makes markets from an off-floor location and is permitted to make a one-sided market.
130
An intrastate offering is exempt from: 1. blue sky registration 2. all registrations 3. federal registrations 4. state registrations
3; An intrastate offering (Rule 147 exemption) is limited to companies that do business in one state and limit stock or bond sales to that state's residents. Even though this offering may be exempt from SEC registration, it is not exempt from registering with that one state. Blue-sky registration (Uniform Securities Act registration) means the same thing as state registration.
131
XYZ Corp. has set Friday, January 23rd, as the record date for its next quarterly dividend distribution. To receive the dividend, a customer, long 1 XYZ Feb 40 call, must issue exercise instructions on or before
Wednesday, January 21st; Dividends are paid to investors who are owners of record as of the close of business on the record date. When a call option is exercised, money and stock are exchanged (settlement) on the second business day after notice is given to the OCC. Therefore, an investor who wishes to receive a dividend must exercise a call no later than the second business day prior to the record date (i.e., the day before the ex-date).
132
A client writes 1 Jan 60 put and buys 1 Jan 50 put. This is a1. bull spread. 2. bear spread. 3. debit spread. 4. credit spread.
1 & 4; This is a put credit spread, and bulls sell puts. The 60 put is worth more because it has a higher strike price. Long the lower put is bullish; short the lower put is bearish.
133
If a customer places an order to sell 500 ABC at 46 stop limit, which of the following statements are TRUE?1. The order will be elected at 46 or lower. 2. The order will be elected at 46 or higher. 3. The order can be executed at 46 or higher. 4. The order can be executed at 46 or lower.
Sell stop limits are placed below the current market and will be elected when the stock trades at or through (lower than) the stop price. Once elected, the order becomes a limit order to sell at 46 or better (higher).
134
All of the following statements about the taxation of municipal and corporate bonds are true EXCEPT: 1. municipal bondholders must accrete original issue discount bonds annually 2. muni bondholders must amortize premium bonds annually 3. corporate bondholders must accrete original issue discount bonds annually 4. corporate bondholders must amortize premium bonds annually
If an investor purchases a corporate bond at a premium, the investor has the option of whether or not to amortize the premium. Amortization reduces both reported interest income and cost basis.
135
All of the following statements about SEP IRAs are true EXCEPT 1. SEP IRAs allow employers to make contributions 2. SEP IRAs are established for small business owners and their employees 3. the retirement account is usually setup at a bank or other financial institution 4. catch up contributions for employees age 50 or older aren't permitted
An employee age 50 or older is permitted to make catch-up contributions to a SEP.
136
A buy stop order may be used for all of the following EXCEPT: 1. to protect a profit in a long position 2. to acquire a long position as a stock breaks through resistance 3. to protect a profit in a short position 4. to protect against loss in a short position
Buying can only protect short positions, not long positions.
137
Under one of the provisions allowing a company to qualify under Rule 147 for an intrastate exemption, what percentage of an issuer's gross business revenues must be derived from sales within the company's home state?
Any one of the three 80% test provisions can be met to qualify for a Rule 147 Intrastate exemption. One of the provisions states that at least 80% of an issuer's gross revenue must be derived from the company's home state.
138
If a customer fails to meet a Regulation T margin call of $2,500, securities may be sold out of the account with a value of:
Securities valued at twice the Regulation T cash call must be sold out if a customer fails to meet a Regulation T margin call ($2,500 × 2 = $5,000).
139
All of the following statements regarding Nasdaq Level 3 are true EXCEPT that: 1. it is used by registered reps only 2. the system shows the inside quote 3. actual interdealer quotes are displayed 4. quotes are entered by market makers
Nasdaq Level 3 is the interactive level of the Nasdaq system through which market makers enter and update their quotes. The best quote available (the inside market) is also shown on the Level 3. Registered representatives use the Nasdaq Level 1, which displays the inside market quote only.
140
If a high-income customer is subject to AMT, which of the following preference items must be added to adjusted gross income to calculate his tax liability? 1. distributions from a corporate bond mutual fund 2. interest on a private purpose muni bond 3. income from a muni security issued to finance parking garages 4. interest on a muni bond issued to finance highway construction
If more than 10% of a bond's proceeds go to private entities, the interest on the bond is a tax preference item for alternative minimum tax purposes.
141
All of the following statements regarding the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) are true EXCEPT 1. FNMA pass through certificates aren't guaranteed by the US gov 2. it's a publicly held corporation 3. interest is taxable at all levels 4. it is owned by the US gov
FNMA is a publicly held corporation. The interest income on all mortgage-backed securities is fully taxable. Though a government agency, FNMA pass through certificates are not guaranteed by the US government. The only U.S. agency whose securities are considered direct obligations of the U.S. government is the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA).
142
Which of the following statements regarding the effects of a stock dividend is TRUE? 1. net current assets are decreased 2. new capital is channeled to the company 3. the market value of the stock is decreased 4. capital surplus is reduced
A stock dividend results in an increased number of outstanding shares, each with a lower value per share. The total value of stock outstanding is unchanged. There is no new capital generated from a stock dividend. Current assets are unchanged because there is no increase or decrease to the company's cash as a result of the stock dividend.
143
Which of the following order types is permitted in Nasdaq markets but NOT in NYSE equity markets? 1. market 2. IOC 3. FOK 4. Limit
Fill-or-kill (FOK) and all-or-none (AON) orders may no longer be entered in the NYSE equity market but are still accepted in both the bond market and Nasdaq.
144
An official notice of sale publicizes each of the following EXCEPT: 1. the amount of good faith deposit required 2. the issuer's name 3. the bond counsel's name 4. the bond's rating
The notice of sale is the advertisement placed by a municipality soliciting bids from underwriters for an issue it wishes to sell. It does not include the bond's rating.
145
Which of the following interdealer trades does NOT settle in clearinghouse funds? 1. GO bonds 2. OTC stocks 3. Corporate bonds 4. US Gov Bonds
Trades in securities backed by the federal government are settled in federal funds, not clearinghouse funds.
146
A Notice of Defeasance informs bondholders that:
A defeased issue is one in which the issuer placed U.S. government securities in the bank as collateral for the old issue.
147
Which of the following insures general obligation bonds? 1. SIPC 2. syndicate manager 3. FDIC 4. National Public Finance Guarantee Corp and AMBAC
Outstanding municipal general obligation bonds have been insured by the National Public Finance Guarantee Corp. and AMBAC. Insured bonds are typically AAA implied rated. SIPC protects customer accounts against broker/dealer failure. The FDIC protects customer deposits against bank failure.
148
The amount paid in excess of par value on the sale of common shares by an issuer is reflected in which of the following accounts on the corporate financial records?
Paid-in surplus, or capital surplus, is the excess over par value that investors pay for stock on its original issue. Generally, par value on common stock is a matter of record for accounting purposes.
149
Which of the following statements regarding Coverdell Education Savings Accounts are TRUE?1. After-tax contributions of up to an indexed maximum per student per year are allowed. 2. Contributions may not be made for students past their 18th birthday. 3. If the account value is not used for educational purposes, it can be rolled over into a traditional IRA. 4. Distributions are always taxable.
Coverdell Education Savings Accounts allow after-tax contributions of up to $2,000 per student, per year, for children until their 18th birthday. If the accumulated value in the account is not used by age 30, the funds must be distributed and subject to income tax and a 10% penalty, or rolled over into a different Coverdell ESA for another family member.
150
If a customer has a long-margin account with a market value of $12,000, a debit balance of $8,000 and SMA of $2,000, how much can the customer withdraw from the account?
SMA is a line of credit with one restriction: it may not be used if account equity would fall below minimum maintenance. In this account, maintenance equity is $3,000 (25% of $12,000) and the current equity in the account is $4,000 ($12,000 MV − $8,000 DB). Therefore, only $1,000 may be withdrawn to keep the current equity at the minimum of $3,000.
151
A municipal revenue issue's flow of funds statement is contained in the:
The bond contract describes the nature of the contract and the issuers' duties to bondholders. The bond contract is a more expansive document than a bond resolution. The contract is comprised of the bond resolution (or trust indenture) and other security agreements and laws in force at the time of bond issuance.
152
MSRB rules for NYSE member firms are enforced by:
The board's rules are enforced by FINRA for securities firms. The MSRB has rule-making authority but no enforcement or examination authority.
153
If a customer places an order to buy 200 shares of ABC stock at $25, and he wants to meet the margin call by depositing fully-paid listed stock currently trading at $10, how many shares must he deposit?
To meet a margin call with marginable stock, an investor must deposit twice the value of the call. In this example, the margin call on the $5,000 purchase is $2,500. Because the customer must deposit $5,000 of marginable stock, at $10 per share, the customer must deposit 500 shares of the stock to meet the call.
154
Which of the following are spreads?1. Long 1 FLB May 40 call; short 1 FLB May 50 call. 2. Long 1 FLB May 40 call; long 1 FLB May 50 call. 3. Long 1 FLB Aug 40 call; short 1 FLB May 40 call. 4. Long 1 FLB Aug 40 call; short 1 FLB Aug 50 put.
Choices I and III fit the definition of a call spread because each includes one long and one short option of the same type with different strike prices (I, a price spread) or different expiration dates (III, a time spread). Choice II involves options of the same type, but both are long. Choice IV involves options of different types.
155
Which of the following does NOT participate in the syndicate (joint account) for a municipal underwriting? 1. financial advisor acting as a muni securities dealer 2. issuing municipality 3. muni broker/dealer 4. bank dealining in muni securities
A syndicate or joint account helps spread the risk of underwriting an issue among a number of underwriters. In this case, banks and broker/dealers who deal in municipal securities. The issuing municipality would not be a member of the syndicate (joint account) formed for the purpose of selling their municipal securities to the public.
156
Variable annuity salespeople must register with all of the following EXCEPT: 1. SEC 2. FINRA 3. state banking commission 4. state insurance dept
Variable annuity salespeople must be registered with FINRA and the state insurance department. Registration with FINRA is de facto registration with the SEC; no registration is required by the state banking commission.
157
The largest portion of an underwriting spread is the:
The largest portion of the spread is the concession.
158
Disintermediation is most likely to occur when: 1. money is tight 2. the interest ceilings on certificates of deposit have been raised 3. margin requirements are high 4. interest rates are low
Disintermediation is the flow of deposits out of banks and savings and loans into alternative, higher paying investments. It occurs when money is tight and interest rates are high because these alternative investments may then offer higher yields than S&Ls and banks.
159
According to MSRB rules, a municipal securities dealer participating in a secondary market joint account may NOT: 1. respond to quote inquiries with nominal quotations 2. sell a quantity of bonds exceeding its participation in the joint account 3. provide quotes that indicate more than one market for the securities that are subject of the account 4. charge a markup of more than 3%
Dealers participating in a joint account (either syndicate or secondary) are not allowed to distribute quotes relating to the securities in the account that indicate more than one market for the same securities.
160
Which of the following may be affected when a company buys machinery for cash?1. Shareholders' equity. 2. Current assets. 3. Total liabilities. 4. Working capital.
The purchase of machinery for cash will reduce current assets and working capital.
161
Regarding Regulation D (Private Placement) offerings, which of the following statements is TRUE? 1. the SEC requires no filings be made by the issuer 2. purchasers need not be provided or have access to offering info normally provided by a prospectus 3. registration with the SEC is not required 4. the amount of capital that can be raised is limited
Regulation D offerings are exempt transactions and therefore no SEC registration is required. However, issuers must still file information with the SEC on Form D regarding the issue. This filing will contain all of the information a potential investor might want to know, similar to the information contained on a prospectus. There is no limit to the amount of capital that can be raised via a Regulation D private placement transaction.
162
New Housing Authority (NHA) bonds are a relatively safe investment because: 1. rental income provides a hedge against inflation 2. the US gov guarantees a contribution to secure the bonds 3. they are backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing municipalities 4. banks buy these bonds
NHAs are considered safe because, in addition to the backing of rental income, they are secured by a subsidy from an agency of the U.S. government. Thus, they are rated AAA.
163
Which of the following exemption provisions of the Act of 1933 may NOT be used for an initial offering of securities? 1. Registration A 2. Rule 147 3. Rule 144 4. Regulation D
Rule 144 does not pertain to primary offerings; it affects secondary market transactions in restricted or control securities.
164
To create a credit calendar spread, an investor should1. buy the near expiration. 2. buy the distant expiration. 3. sell the near expiration. 4. sell the distant expiration
1 & 4; A credit calendar spread occurs when premium received exceeds the amount paid out. An investor creates a credit spread by selling the distant expiration and buying the near expiration. The distant expiration has more time value, and therefore, a higher premium.
165
A resident of New York City purchases an Albany, New York general obligation bond and receives $600 of interest from that bond during the year. How is that $600 taxed? 1. taxation is deferred until the bond matures 2. it's not subject to federal income tax 3. its subject to state income tax at ordinary rates 4. its subject to federal income tax at ordinary rates
Interest from public purpose municipal bonds is exempt from federal income tax and most states have chosen to make interest on their municipal bonds exempt from state income tax to residents of their states.
166
A client invests $100,000 in a tax shelter as a limited partner, giving him a 10% interest in the program. However, the general partners cannot meet the program's expenses. A mortgage balance remains of $3 million, and the property of the program is liquidated for $1 million. How much does the investor get back from his original investment? 1. $100k 2. $10k 3. $33k 4. $0
The limited partner will not receive any return of his investment. In a failed program, the partnership's creditors are paid first with any sale proceeds, before the limited partners receive any money. Because the limited partners had not signed a recourse agreement, even though the partnership still owes $2 million on the mortgage, the limited partners are not liable for any money beyond their original investments.
167
All of the following statements regarding 529 plans are true EXCEPT: 1. contributions are made with pretax dollars at the federal level 2. anyone can make a contribution on behalf of a beneficiary 3. earnings accumulate tax free if the money is used for qualified educational purposes 4. a beneficiary of a 529 plan may also be the beneficiary of a Coverdell education savings account
Contributions are made with after-tax dollars. Withdrawals are tax free at the federal level if used for qualified higher education expenses.
168
A municipal finance professional eligible to vote in a municipality which frequently issues debt securities has made a contribution to the political campaign of one of the issuer's elected officials. More than which amount would disqualify the firm from engaging in certain municipal businesses with that issuer for 2 years?
$250 is the maximum political contribution allowed under MSRB rules for those eligible to vote in the municipality issuing debt on a negotiated basis.
169
Which of the following will NOT affect SMA? 1. a stock dividend on stock held long in the account 2. long sale at a profit 3. cash dividend on stock held long in the account 4. deposit of cash into the account by the customer
1; The value of the stock dividend received will be offset by the decline in CMV of the long position on which the dividend is paid. The account's long CMV will not change; it will just be represented by more shares. There will be no change in the overall CMV, debit balance, or equity, and therefore no change in SMA. On the other hand, a cash dividend means that new money is coming into the account, which will reduce the debit balance and be credited to SMA so the customer may withdraw the dividend, if desired.
170
In a municipal offering, which of the following would ordinarily be found in the agreement among underwriters? 1. The legal opinion 2. The appointment of the bond counsel 3. The concession 4. The takedown
Of the four answer choices only the concession and the takedown would generally be found in the agreement among underwriters which is found in the syndicate agreement.
171
A customer is long 200 shares of MTN at 30, and 400 shares of DWQ at 20 in a margin account. If the debit balance in the account is $8,000 and the customer sells 200 DWQ shares for $4,000, the credit to SMA is:
Because this account is below 50% margin, the account is restricted ($6,000 equity divided by $14,000 market value equals 42.8% equity). When securities are sold in a restricted account, 50% of the proceeds are released to SMA. Because $4,000 worth of securities were sold, $2,000 (50%) is credited to SMA.
172
Which of the following statements regarding the Code of Arbitration are TRUE? 1. Simplified arbitration is available for claims of $50,000 or less. 2. Simplified arbitration is available for claims of $25,000 or less. 3. The statute of limitations for filing a claim is 3 years from the event. 4. The statute of limitations for filing a claim is 6 years from the event.
Simplified arbitration is available for claims of $50,000 or less. The statute of limitations for filing a claim is 6 years from the event giving rise to the claim.
173
If a registered representative wants to share in the profit or loss of a customer's account, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT: 1. sharing is permitted in proportion to the capital contributed 2. sharing is permitted without regard to the proportion contributed if there's an immediate family relationship 3. the account must be approved by a principal 4. FINRA must be notified in writing
4; All accounts must be approved by a principal, but FINRA is never notified regarding the opening of accounts. In a joint account involving a customer and a registered representative, profit and loss must be shared in proportion to the capital contributed by each party. The proportionate test does not apply if there is an immediate family relationship between the two.
174
You have a high-income client who wishes to maximize his after-tax interest income. Which of the following investments might NOT meet your client's objective? 1. GO bond 2. IDB 3. revenue bond 4. municipal note
Industrial development bonds are private purpose bonds, and the interest income could subject the holder to the alternative minimum tax. Thus, the interest income may not be completely tax free.
175
Regarding the taxation of dividends received from corporate securities, which of the following are TRUE? 1. Nonqualified dividends are taxed at the rate the investor’s ordinary income will be taxed. 2. Nonqualified dividends are not taxed. 3. Qualified dividends are taxed at a maximum rate specified by the IRS and will depend on the investor's income tax bracket. 4. Qualified dividends are taxed at the rate the investor’s ordinary income will be taxed.
Nonqualified (ordinary) dividends are taxed at the investor’s ordinary income tax rate, while qualified dividends will be taxed at a maximum rate as specified by the IRS. Whether or not the qualified dividends are taxed at the maximum rate or a lower rate depends on the investor's income tax bracket. The higher the investor’s income tax bracket the higher the tax on qualified dividends will be, up to the maximum.
176
If a customer buys 5 ABC Sep 50 calls at 5 and 5 ABC Sep 50 puts at 3, this position is called a:
A straddle is an option strategy in which the investor holds a position in both a call and a put with the same strike price, expiration, and underlying security.
177
When does a customer have to receive the Options Disclosure Document?
before the first order;
178
A customer setting up a 529 plan for her son wants to know if the 529 plan from one state can be rolled over to the 529 plan of another state later. Which is the correct response? 1. Yes, but no more than once every 12 months 2. yes but only within the first six months of the plans inception 3. yes there are no restrictions on 529 plan rollovers from one states plan to another 4. no, 529 plan rollovers aren't permitted
Rollovers from one states plan to another states plan are permitted but no more than once every twelve months.
179
To make a public offering, a registered investment company must have a minimum net worth of:
Investment companies are not required to register an offering with the SEC unless they have a net worth of $100,000.
180
If a customer buys 300 ABC at 53 and writes 3 ABC June 55 calls at 4, and the contracts expire unexercised the customer's cost basis in ABC stock at expiration is:
$53; The cost basis in the stock remains at the original purchase price. The premium received must be declared by the investor as a capital gain for tax purposes. Premiums on options will only affect the stock's cost basis or sales proceeds if the option is exercised, or if (on the same day) a customer buys stock and buys a put.
181
A sharing arrangement in which only deductible costs are apportioned to the investor with the sponsor bearing all capitalized costs is called a(n):
Functional allocation is a sharing arrangement in which the general partner pays for all tangible drilling costs (capitalized costs) and the limited partners pay for all intangible drilling costs (deductible costs).
182
Interest on loans to purchase securities is generally a deductible item on one's tax return unless the purchase is for 1. stock 2. warrants 3. muni bond 4. corporate bond
Because the interest received from municipal bond investments is tax-free, the IRS does not allow interest paid for loans to purchase municipal bonds as a deductible item on one's tax return, as it would for other securities purchased with loans (margin).
183
Which of the following would be considered funded debt? 1. corporate debt maturing in 10 years 2. commercial paper maturing in 270 days 3. muni revenue bonds maturing in 10 years 4. US t-bonds maturing in 20 years
Funded debt is simply another name for medium- to long-term corporate debt. If a corporate bond has 5 or more years to maturity, it is said to be funded debt of the issuer.
184
An investor owns $100,000 of convertible bonds with a conversion price of $50. By depositing these bonds into his account, how many covered calls could he write?
These bonds are convertible into 20 shares for each $1,000, making a total of 2,000 shares. That's enough stock to cover 20 calls.
185
How may a municipal firm retail customer gain access to an MSRB rule book? 1. only with verbal permission of a registered branch manager 2. by writing the MSRB directly with a specific question involving a MSRB rule 3. with written permission of a principal 4. upon request to the broker/dealer, no restrictions exist
MSRB rules require that an MSRB manual be on-site at all municipal firms. Customers are entitled to see the manual without restriction.
186
All US exchange listed foreign currency options 1. are settled in the underlying foreign currency 2. are settled in cash (US dollars) 3. expire on the third Friday of the expiration month 4. expire every Friday of each month.
US exchange listed currency options are settled in cash (US dollars) and expire on the third Friday of the expiration month, just like equity options do.
187
All of the following statements regarding a transfer on death (TOD) account are correct EXCEPT: 1. estate taxes are reduced 2. only those assets held at the B/D are transferred 3. probate is avoided 4. the owner of the account may change beneficiaries at will
A TOD account avoids probate, but not estate taxes. The owner of the account may change beneficiaries and their percentages as he wishes. The TOD account is an account at a specific broker/dealer and only relates to the assets in that account.
188
A municipal revenue bond indenture contains a net revenue pledge. The following are reported for the year: $30 million of gross revenues, $18 million of operating expenses, $4 million of interest expenses, and $2 million of principal repayment. What is the debt service coverage ratio?
Under a net revenue pledge, bondholders are paid from net revenue, which equals gross revenue minus operating and maintenance expenses. In this example, net revenue is $12 million ($30 million − $18 million). Debt service is the combination of interest and principal repayment. Here, debt service is $6 million ($4 million + $2 million). To compute the debt service ratio, divide net revenue by debt service: $12 million / $6 million = a ratio of 2 to 1.
189
For a mutual fund that collects a 12b-1 fees, which of the following statements are TRUE?1. The fund may use the money to pay for mailing sales literature. 2. Advertising materials must always state that the fund is no-load. 3. The fund may use the money to pay for commissions on portfolio transactions. 4. The fund's prospectus must disclose the fee.
12b-1 fees may be used only to cover promotional and other distribution expenses for funds that are distributors of their own shares; fee amounts must be disclosed in the prospectus. The fund may not use the term" no-load "in any communications with the public if the 12b-1 fee and other service fees exceed .25% of average net assets.
190
An investor has purchased a municipal certificate of participation (COP). COPs can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT 1. a holder of a COP can foreclose on the asset generating the revenue in the case of default 2. they require voter approval before a muni can issue them 3. they are a form of a muni revenue bond 4. the holder participates in lease payments from a specific piece of equipment purchased by the muni
Certificates of participation (COPs) are considered revenue issues and, therefore, do not require voter approval. They are a form of lease revenue bond that allow the holders of the certificates to participate in some revenue stream (lease or loan payments) associated with land, equipment, or facilities purchased or built by the municipality. They are unique in that in the case of default, the holders of the COPs could foreclose on the asset associated with the certificate.
191
Rank the following in the usual sequence of order allocation.1. Syndicate. 2. Member at the take down. 3. Presale. 4. Designated.
The standard order priority for allocation of municipal bond issues is (as stated within the syndicate letter): presale, syndicate, designated, and member. Orders that benefit all syndicate members have the highest priority.
192
In a variable life annuity with 10-year period certain, a contract holder receives:
The owner of a life annuity with 10-year period certain will receive payments for life, subject to a minimum of 10 years. If the contract holder dies before the period expires, the remaining payments are made to the beneficiary. An example would be if a life annuity with 10-year period certain contract holder died after 5 years, payments would continue for 5 more years to the beneficiary and then stop.
193
A municipal bond dealer is making a bona fide quote. Which of the following statements regarding such a quote is TRUE? 1. The quote must have a reasonable relationship to fair market value. 2. The quote may take into consideration any anticipated market movement. 3. The quote cannot represent an offer to sell bonds the dealer does not currently own. 4. The quote need not be one that the dealer is prepared to act upon (buy or sell).
1 & 2; A bona fide quote is one the dealer is prepared to buy or sell on, as opposed to a workable, nominal or subject quote. A bona fide quote must have a reasonable relationship to fair market value and can be made in consideration of any anticipated market movement. On the offer side of a bona fide quote a dealer may make an offer to sell bonds that it does not hold in its own inventory but must know where to obtain the bonds if they are needed to complete the transaction.
194
Buying municipal bonds would normally NOT be considered suitable for 1. a defined benefit plan portfolio 2. an individual investor 3. a corporation's investment account 4. a mutual fund portfolio
A defined benefit plan is a form of qualified tax-deferred corporate pension plan. Tax-free municipal bonds would never be considered suitable for a tax-deferred account. An individual investor, a mutual fund portfolio and a corporate investment account could call benefit from receiving tax-free municipal bond interest.
195
Having a child 5 years of age, a couple wants to begin saving for her college education. They can currently budget $350 per month toward the goal. They know that college costs 13 years in the future needs to be factored, but they are not too comfortable with market risk. Which would best suitably align with their profile? 1. Money Market mutual fund 2. variable annuity 3. 529 prepaid tuition plan 4. Coverdell Savings Account
Coverdell ESAs and 529 plans are the only choices here specifically associated with saving for education. Because the Coverdell ESA can only accept $2,000 per child, per year, and the couple can currently invest more than twice that amount, the 529 plan is the better choice. Additionally, being concerned about inflation and not comfortable with market risk, investing in a 529 prepaid tuition plan enables them to purchase tomorrow’s tuition at today’s prices.
196
If an individual fails a FINRA qualification exam three consecutive times, a fourth attempt may NOT be made for:
If a qualification exam is failed three consecutive times, a fourth attempt may not be made for 6 months.
197
A customer bought a bond that yields 6-½% with a 5% coupon. If the bond matures at this point, the customer will receive:
Upon redemption of a bond, whatever current interest rates may be, the investor receives par ($1,000) plus the final semiannual interest payment ($25 in this case), for a total of $1,025.
198
How much does a tipper receive for a whistleblower case?
Under the Federal Dodd-Frank legislation, tippers or "whistle blowers" may be awarded up to 10–30% of amounts recovered for original information leading to successful prosecution of anyone who violates securities industry law. There are no limitations regarding securities industry professionals qualifying for the reward. While no bounty is guaranteed, when awarded it is based upon the monies recovered and the value of the information.
199
Which of the following statements are TRUE of mutual fund dividend distributions?1. The fund pays dividends from net investment income. 2. A single taxpayer may exclude $100 worth of dividend income from taxes annually. 3. An investor is liable for taxes on distributions, whether taken in cash or reinvested in the fund. 4. An investor is not liable for taxes if he automatically reinvests distributions.
Mutual funds pay dividends from net investment income, and shareholders are liable for taxes on all distributions, whether reinvested or taken in cash.
200
Which of the following are TRUE? 1. Build America Bonds are tax exempt at all levels 2. Direct payment BABs provide the municipal issuer with payments from the U.S. treasury. 3. Build America Bonds are issued by the U.S. Treasury. 4. Tax credit or issuer BABs provide the municipal bondholder with a federal income tax credit.
2 & 4; Created under the Economic Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 to assist in reducing costs to issuing municipalities and stimulate the economy, Build America Bonds (BABs) are taxable municipal securities. There are two types: Direct payment BABs that provide the municipal issuer with payments from the U.S. treasury and Tax credit or Issuer BABs that provide the bondholder with a federal income tax credit.
201
An order confirmed for the entire underwriting syndicate's benefit is called a: 1. market order 2. member at the takedown order 3. group net order 4. net designated order
3; A municipal group net order is credited to syndicate members according to their percentage participation in the account. This order type is given priority over designated or member takedown orders (but not over presale orders). The normal order of priority is presale orders, group or syndicate orders, designated orders, and member orders.
202
All of the following are characteristics of unlisted options EXCEPT: 1. negotiated exercise prices 2. active secondary trading 3. premiums determined by participants 4. negotiated expiration dates
Unlike listed options, unlisted options do not trade continuously in an organized secondary market; trades are negotiated between individuals.
203
A customer's confirmation for a municipal bond callable at par and quoted higher than the nominal yield would show: 1. YTC 2. CY 3. Coupon yield 4. YTM
Because the quoted yield is higher than the nominal yield, the bond is offered at a discount; the lower of YTM or YTC is the bond's yield to maturity.
204
In a new municipal offering, who is responsible for hiring bond counsel? 1. syndicate manager 2. MSRB 3. issuer 4. syndicate members
The issuer hires a bond attorney to render an opinion on the prospective municipal offering.
205
The POP for a mutual fund as quoted in the financial press reflects:
The public offering price for a quoted mutual fund includes the maximum sales charge the fund distributor can assess.