QCM System test Flashcards
1
Q
G1-24-Q01 In normal operations each engines generator provides…
A
AC power at a variable frequency to its assigned AC bus.
2
Q
G1-24-Q02 What does the amber fault light mean on Drive 1A P/B?
A
The engine generator must be disconnected from its engine.
3
Q
G1-24-Q03 In flight when the RAT is automatically extended:
A
The EMER GEN supplies the AC EMER 1/2 busbars with AC 230 V power at a variable frequency.
4
Q
G1-24-Q04 In normal configuration GEN1A GEN1B GEN2B GEN2A provide…
A
AC 230 V power at variable frequency.
5
Q
G1-24-Q05 By pressing the push button EMER ELEC PWR RAT MAN ON:
A
The RAT extends and the EMER GEN connects to the Emergency network.
6
Q
G1-24-Q06 The amber STAT INV means…
A
The static inverter has failed.
7
Q
G1-24-Q07 In the case of an all Engines failure:
A
The APU will automatically start and supply AC 1A et AC 1B busbars.
8
Q
G1-24-Q08 The check of the battery voltage is done on which panel:
A
BAT panel (A).
9
Q
G1-24-Q09 What is the meaning of the amber fault light of the ELM push button?
A
The ELMF has failed and load shedding is no longer available.
10
Q
G1-24-Q11 ECAM WARNING “ELEC GEN 1A FAULT “ “ELEC GEN 1B FAULT and ECAM ELEC page indicate:
A
Two engine generator are faulty or OFF.
11
Q
G1-24-Q12 ECAM WARNING «ELEC ATU 1B FAULT» and ECAM ELEC page indicate:
A
The ATU 1B fails AC 1A 115V automatically powers AC 1B 115V.
12
Q
G1-24-Q13 The four Auto Transformer Units (ATUs) convert:
A
Answers A and B are correct.
13
Q
G1-24-Q16 When you want to check Battery voltage you must set the Battery P/B to:
A
Off position.
14
Q
G1-24-Q17 When you check Battery voltage the voltage must be:
A
Above 25V.
15
Q
G1-24-Q18 The emergency generator:
A
All of the above.
16
Q
G1-26-Q01 The Engine agent P/B is armed when:
A
ENGINE FIRE P/B is pressed and released.
17
Q
G1-26-Q02 Which statement is true?
A
Each Engine has two fire extinguisher bottles.
18
Q
G1-26-Q03You have an engine fire and after pressing the Agent 1 push button you get an amber DISCH light what doesit mean?
A
The fire extinguisher bottle is discharged.
19
Q
G1-26-Q04The ENGINE and APU FIRE protection system includes:
A
2 fire agent bottles for each engine / 1 fire agent bottle for the APU.
20
Q
G1-26-Q05The Fire Protection System for the Main Landing Gear (MLG) bay have:
A
A Fire Protection function a MLG bay Fire indicator.
21
Q
G1-26-Q06How is an APU fire normally extinguished in flight?
A
Manually from FIRE panel.
22
Q
G1-26-Q07When APU fire is detected on ground the APU fire light on the Maintenance Nose Gear Panel comes on and inaddition:
A
A horn sounds APU Auto shut down occurs and the APU fire extinguisher bottle is automaticallydischarged.
23
Q
G1-26-Q08Cargo fire protection is provided by:
A
Automatic smoke detection manual fire extinguishing.
24
Q
G1-26-Q09Smoke has been detected in the AFT cargo compartment. The pilot has pushed the AFT AGENT p/b and bottle1 has discharged. The bottle 2:
A
Will discharge slowly to protect the AFT cargo compartment until the end of the flight.
25
G1-26-Q10A fire has been detected on engine 1. ENG 1 FIRE p/b and FIRE light of ENG 1 MASTER will extinguish:
When the engine 1 fire is no longer detected.
26
G1-28-Q01The LP VALVES are controlled to OFF position by:
ENGINE MASTER switches or FIRE P/B's.
27
G1-28-Q02FOB (fuel on board) half- boxed in amber on ECAM means:
The displayed quantity is partially not usable.
28
G1-28-Q03FOB (fuel on board) with the two last digits dashed means
The fuel quantity indicator is in degraded mode.
29
G1-28-Q04Fuel is stored in the:
Wings and Center section of the fuselage.
30
G1-28-Q05In case of electrical emergency configuration the X-FEED valves is:
Automatically open.
31
G1-28-Q06With the X-FEED valves close the APU can be fed by:
The left center tank pump or the main or standby pump of the left wing tank.
32
G1-28-Q07The center tank pumps are running when:
All of the above.
33
G1-28-Q08The GW and GWCG are computed by:
All of the above.
34
G1-28-Q09About L(R) TK XFR PB-SW set to ON position:
Fuel transfers by gravity from the wing tank to the center tank via the refuel gallery.
35
G1-28-Q10The (FOB + FU) - BLOCK indication appear on:
Fuel SD and Cruise SD pages.
36
G1-49-Q01In case of an APU FIRE on ground:
APU shut down and extinguishing agent discharge are fully automatic.
37
G1-49-Q02During take-off and Go Around the APU can supply pneumatic system:
To increase aircraft performance for example during T/O to increase the FLX and save the engine.
38
G1-49-Q03If on the APU master switch the Amber FAULT light comes on and a Caution appears on the ECAM:
The APU is failed.
39
G1-49-Q04The APU can provide bleed air to the bleed air system up to an altitude of:
25000ft (22500ft with two packs).
40
G1-70-Q01On ground with full operative FADEC the start sequence is automatically aborted:
In case of hot start hung start stall or no light up.
41
G1-70-Q02In flight if the INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT P/B is pressed for more than 15 sec the A/THR including ALPHAFLOOR is:
Definitively lost.
42
G1-70-Q03In normal mode the primary engine parameter that appears on the ED (Engine Display) is:
THR
43
G1-70-Q04The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) provides engine protection:
For over-speed limits (N1 and N2) in all flight phases and EGT monitoring during engine start phase only.
44
G1-70-Q05The Idle modes provided by FADEC are:
Normal Idle Approach Idle and Reverse Idle.
45
G1-70-Q06The reverse thrust system is actuated by
Electrical translating cowl.
46
G1-70-Q07When starting one engine in flight:
Igniters A and B are selected.
47
G1-70-Q08To allow the engine to accelerate rapidly from Idle to go-around thrust FADEC selects approach idle:
Both answers are correct.
48
G1-70-Q09Unless required due to an emergency the maximum Reverse Thrust may be used down to:
70 KNOTS.
49
G1-70-Q10Flying with A/THR active pilot sets thrust lever to TO/GA position:
THR increases to TO/GA.
50
G1-70-Q11The ENG MASTER Switch on pedestal controls:
Both HP an LP Fuel Valves.
51
G1-70-Q12After take-off with FD when the thrust levers are in FLEX detent the A/THR
Will become active when thrust levers are moved back to CLB.
52
G1-70-Q13LVR MCT is flashing on FMA if the thrust levers are not set to MCT detent:
After engine failure when speed is greater than Green Dot.
53
G1-70-Q14The ECAM message ENG THRUST LOCKED means:
The thrust is frozen after a Failure of A/THR AUTO FTL A/THR OFF.
54
G1-70-Q15In normal operation after engine start up FADEC is powered via:
FADEC Alternator when N3 is above 8%.
55
G1-70-Q16In case of automatic reversion to DEGRATED mode the primary engine parameters displayed on the E/WD is?
N1
56
G1-70-Q17Which computer operate the A/THR?
The PRIMARY computers.
57
G1-33-Q01If the cabin altitude goes above 9550ft the Seat Belt come on:
Regardless of SEAT BELT signs position.
58
G1-33-Q02When EMER EXIT LT is ARM Cabin emergency lights automatically come one if an electrical power lost:
TRUE
59
G1-25-Q01P/B illuminated in amber means :
A failure of which the crew should be aware but does not call for immediate action.
60
G1-25-Q02The L/G GRVTY EXTN Panel is located on:
Pedestal.
61
G1-25-Q03The Laptop Docking Station are located:
In each Cockpit Lateral Console.
62
G2-29-Q01The YELLOW SYSTEM comprises :
Two ENGINE DRIVEN PUMP one ELEC PUMP one HAND PUMP.
63
G2-29-Q02In flight the ELEC Pumps GREEN/YELLOW operate:
Never operate only on ground.
64
G2-29-Q03In case of reservoir overheat the fault ligths of the faulty system stay on:
As long as the overheat is detected.
65
G2-29-Q04The HYD fire shut off valves close when:
The fire P/B is released out or the ENG SUPPLY P/B is pressed.
66
G2-29-Q05If the Yellow system is lost slat operation is:
Slow
67
G2-29-Q06Can you operate a cargo door when no electrical power is available?
Yes using a hand pump to pressurize the yellow system.
68
G2-29-Q07In certain emergency conditions the GREEN hydraulic system can be pressurized by the RAT.
FALSE
69
G2-29-Q08On ECAM HYD page which symbol indicates an engine pump " On " and delivering a LO PRESS:
LO (amber).
70
G2-29-Q10On ground the YELLOW electric pump operates automatically when:
Answers A and B are correct.
71
G2-29-Q11The Green hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The engine 1 driven pump engine 2 driven pump an electric pump (on ground).
72
G2-29-Q12The Yellow hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The engine 1 driven pump engine 2 driven pump an electric pump (on ground) a hand pump.
73
G2-29-Q13If the Yellow and Green system are lost:
Some F/CTL surfaces are actuated by the EHA and EBHA.
74
G2-32-Q02In case of dual hydraulic failure (GREEN and YELLOW) the Landing gear extension is:
Performed by gravity.
75
G2-32-Q03In case of GREEN hydraulic system loss what is the correct statement?
Gear extension is done by gravity Nose Wheel Steering is unaffected.
76
G2-32-Q04If landing gear gravity extension is performed which of the following statement is correct?
Both main landing gear and nose gear doors remain opened.
77
G2-32-Q05If both L/G CTL systems are failed and can no longer control the LGERS.
L/G Gravity extend is available.
78
G2-32-Q06In case of YELLOW hydraulic failure:
The NWS is inoperative but Bkup steering is available below 30 kt and AP Off.
79
G2-32-Q07Alternate braking using the two reinflatable hydraulic accumulators AUTOBRAKE is
Still available provided that the accumulator pressure is more than 1600 PSI.
80
G2-32-Q08Inputs to the Nose Wheel Steering are available from:
The steering hand wheels the rudder pedals and AP orders.
81
G2-32-Q09The purpose of the Antiskid is to:
Improve braking efficiency.
82
G2-32-Q10In the event of an aborted Take Off with autobrake armed automatic braking is initiated:
At Ground Spoilers extension and Ground Speed>40kts.
83
G2-32-Q11The different braking modes of the A350 are:
NORMAL ALTN EMERGENCY PARKING BRAKE.
84
G2-32-Q12If GREEN hydraulic pressure is not available:
Both automatic braking and Antiskid are operative.
85
G2-32-Q13On the WHEEL page a green arc appears over the hottest whell when its brake temperature exceeds:
100°C
86
G2-35-Q01If CABIN ALTITUDE rises above 13 800 ft OXYGEN MASKS will drop out:
Automatically or by flight crew action on OXYGEN MASK MAN ON.
87
G2-35-Q02Select the appropriate ECAM page to get information about OXYGEN system:
DOOR
88
G3-35-Q03During the outside preflight check the pilot:
Check two Crew Oxygen Discharge Indicators.
89
G2-35-Q04On DOOR/OXY SD page if REGUL LO PR (CAPT oxy) is displayed in amber:
The oxygen pressure CDB in the oxygen distribution manifold is low.
90
G2-38-Q01To check the potable water level:
There are Indicators on the Forward Attendant Panel.
91
G2-27-Q01If you are flying at an angle of attack of more than ALPHA PROT what happens when you release the stick:
SPEED returns to ALPHA PROT SPEED.
92
G2-27-Q02In Conf 1+F the Automatic retraction system (ARS) automatically retracts the Flaps when the Speed is greater than:
210kt
93
G2-27-Q03When dual Hydraulic failure occurs the flight control surface:
Some Flight control surface move by Electro-hydraulic actuators.
94
G2-27-Q04When both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction and neither takes priority:
The surface movement is proportional to the algebraically sum of both signals.
95
G2-27-Q06You are in normal law and the HIGH SPEED protection is active. What happens?
The A/THR automatically engages and the Speedbrakes fully extend automatically.
96
G2-27-Q08After Alpha Floor protection:
The thrust reverts to Thrust mode where it was before A.FLOOR mode engagement.
97
G2-27-Q09If alarm " SPEED SPEED SPEED " sounds in the cockpit:
Thrust is not high enough to fly the A/C on a positive slope.
98
G2-27-Q10The FLS enables flight crew to perform?
A non precision approach in accordance with the "ILS alike" feature.
99
G2-27-Q11In alternate law OVERSPEED and STALL warnings remain available all protections are indicatedas lost:
However protections are still available but depending on the failure may not be as efficient as in normal laws
100
G2-27-Q12In Conf 1 the Automatic extension system (AES) automatically extends the Flaps when the Speed goes below:
203 kts.
101
G2-27-Q13On the A350 in the unlikely event of loss of all flight control computers (PRIMs and SECs):
The Backup Computer provides control and stability of the Aircraft.
102
G2-27-Q14With yaw damper and turn coordination functions:
No feedback to the rudder pedals is provided.
103
G2-27-Q15When the A/C is operated in Direct law OVERSPEED and STALL warnings remain available and:
All protections are lost.
104
G2-27-Q16The Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) limits the loads on the flaps in the case of a VFE Exceedance «F RELIEF» appears on the SLATS/FLAPS DISPLAY
Flaps will automatically retract to next retracted position
105
G2-27-Q17Amber ECAM message " F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED " means:
Further flap operation is not possible.
106
G2-27-Q18A pulsing A LOCK appears in the SLATS/FLAPS DISPLAY:
Prevents you from retracting the slats if extended if the angle of attack becomes excessive or airspeedis too low
107
G2-27-Q19One flight control surface move only with electric motors which?
THS.
108
G2-27-Q20The pitch trim is automatically set for Take Off when:
The first Engine is started or the Flight crew arms the Ground Spoilers.
109
G2-27-Q21What does the white cross indicate?
The sum of the sidestick orders of the Captain and the First Officer on ground.
110
G2-27-Q22In normal law the auto pitch trim is inoperative when:
High speed protection is active.
111
G2-27-Q23In alternate law only one protection is similar to that in normal law.Which one is it
The load factor protection.
112
G3-21-Q01All pack valves will automatically close if:
Three answers are correct.
113
G3-21-Q02The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of
Both answers are correct.
114
G3-21-Q03Preparing for ditching the flight crew pushes the ditching button to ON:
Both answers are correct.
115
G3-21-Q04In the Air Panel If Cabin Selector is set to Purs Sel Cabin temperature can be selected from:
Forward attendant panel only.
116
G3-21-Q05When AIR FLOW selector is set to High:
The pack airflow is equal to or more than 120 % of the MAN value.
117
G3-21-Q06When RAM AIR PB-SW is set to ON the ram air inlet will open:
When the differential pressure is less than 2 PSI.
118
G3-21-Q07To see the positions of the outflow valves it is necessary to call ECAM
PRESS PAGE.
119
G3-21-Q08Each outflow valves can be powered by
Two electric motors.
120
G3-21-Q09Two identical independent Outflow valve Control Unit are used for cabin pressurization:
OCU1 computes the cabin pressure targets and provides corresponding commands to OCU2.
121
G3-21-Q10When CABIN ALT p/b is set to MAN the OUTFLOW VALVES are controlled by:
The CABIN ALT TRGT selector.
122
G3-21-Q11During cruise the cabin altitude is regulated not to exceed:
6000 ft
123
G3-21-Q12Immediately after takeoff if it becomes necessary to return to the departure airport will the crew need to set the landing elevation manually?
No. In the abort mode. Cabin altitude automaticaly returns to the departure field elevation.
124
G3-21-Q15On A350 there are:
Two Outflow valves one Negative Relief valve and one Overpressure Relief valve.
125
G3-30-Q01How can you check that ENGINE ANTI-ICE has been selected ON?
You can observe the blue ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P/B and the ENG ANTI ICE memo onthe WD and PFD.
126
G3-30-Q02Which sources are used for anti-ice protection?
Electrical heating and hot air.
127
G3-30-Q03What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE P/B is set to "ON " position on the ground?
The WING ANTI-ICE VALVES open for a 20 seconds the valves will then close.
128
G3-30-Q04In the event of an electrical power supply loss:
The Engine Anti Ice valves will open automatically; Engine Anti-icing is assured.
129
G3-30-Q05In the event of an electrical power supply loss the wing anti-ice valves:
Will close automatically: Wing anti-icing is lost.
130
G3-36-Q01HIGH PRESSURE air may be supplied from:
Engine 1 and Engine 2 BLEED system APU load compressor HP ground connection.
131
G3-36-Q03To see the positions of the HP valves XBLEED valve APU BLEED valve it is necessary to call ECAM:
BLEED
132
G3-36-Q04With ENG and APU running and APU BLEED VALVE selected ON select the correct statement:
ENGINE BLEED VALVE closes X BLEED VALVE opens APU BLEED VALVE opens.
133
G3-36-Q06The APU BLEED P/B is selected ON what source provides air to the Air Cond system:
APU.
134
G3-52-Q01What does a white SLIDE indication mean?
The slide is armed.
135
G3-52-Q02In case of rapid decompression in the cockpit:
The cockpit door opens.
136
G4-23-Q01If RMP 2 fails:
All COM systems can be controlled by RMP1 and when RMP 2 is tuned Off RMP3 connects.
137
G4-23-Q02On each RMP the flight crew can:
All of the above.
138
G4-23-Q04The flashing amber ATT light indicates that:
A call is made from a cabin crew station.
139
G4-23-Q05In case of dual FMS failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:
RMPs via STBY RAD NAV KEY.
140
G4-23-Q06To communicate with GROUND MECHANIC at the engine nacelle position the crew must use thefollowing audio system selection:
ATT + CAB.
141
G4-23-Q07STBY RAD NAV can be selected on:
RMP1 and RMP2.
142
G4-23-Q08At the OVHD panel the CAPT & PURS switch is in " CAPT & PURS " position and the PURSER presses his "EVAC CMD " P/B what will happen?
All EVAC signals are energized.
143
G4-23-Q09The captain may "CALL ALL" cabin attendants at the same time:
True
144
G4-31-Q01Advisory Mode:
Automatically displays the approppriate system SD page associated with a drifting parameter pulsing.
145
G4-31-Q02In Normal configuration the Captain Outer displays:
CAPT OIS.
146
G4-31-Q03The CDS displays the OIS information on?
The CAPT and the F/O outer DUs or Center Lower DU.
147
G4-31-Q04In normal operations the CAPT Inner displays:
CAPT EFIS.
148
G4-31-Q05In normal operation the Center lower DU displays:
The CAPT and F/O MFDs.
149
G4-31-Q07What happens when ND shows red circle with " MAP NOT AVAIL " message?
One active FMC or two FMCs failed.
150
G4-31-Q09If CAPT INNER DU fails the CDS automatically displays the EFIS on:
CAPT Outer DU
151
G4-31-Q10A STS & DEFRD PROC indication can appear at the bottom of the WD. What does it mean?
The STATUS Page is not empty and there are Deferred procedures available.
152
G4-31-Q11The flight crew access to the checklist menu via:
The KCCUs.
153
G4-34-Q01In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies DATA to:
The CAPT EFIS.
154
G4-34-Q02If ADR2 fails the correct action is:
No action the ADR3 replaces automatically the ADR2.
155
G4-34-Q03ILS 1 data is displayed on:
PFD 1 and ND 2 (selected in ROSE ILS mode).
156
G4-34-Q04The XPDR code can be set on:
The RMPs or the MFD SURV CONTROLS page.
157
G4-34-Q05What does the ADR FAULT light steady illumination on the ADIRS panel mean?
A fault is detected in AIR DATA REFERENCE part.
158
G4-34-Q06When WX/PWS has been set to AUTO on the MFD SURV Page:
If both answers are effective.
159
G4-34-Q07If all ADRs fail:
ISIS replaces automatically all ADRs on CAPT and F/O EFIS.
160
G4-34-Q08The Flight crew can access to SURV controls from:
The SURV panel or the SURV page.
161
G4-34-Q09The SURV system comprises TAWS TCAS XPDR and WXR. They are grouped by pairs:
WXR/TAWS and XPDR/TCAS.
162
G4-34-Q10The A350 has:
Three Radio altimeters.
163
G4-34-Q11When ABV is selected the TCAS displays intruders that are between:
-2700ft and +9900ft.
164
G4-34-Q12The TURB detection function scans up to 60 NM in front of the aircraft. In front of the aircraft areas of turbulence are displayed on the ND and VD up to:
40 NM.
165
G4-34-Q13All the functions of the GPWS can be selected Off via:
The SURV CONTROL Page on MFDs.
166
G5-22-Q01On the FMA on the second line:
ALT in blue indicates that ALT MODE is armed.
167
G5-22-Q02What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
Landing capability downgrading warning.
168
G5-22-Q03What are the basic MODES of the AP/FD:
V/S and HDG.
169
G5-22-Q04On ground the AUTOTHRUST arming function:
Is performed automatically when thrust levers are set at FLEX or TOGA detent whith engines running.
170
G5-22-Q05THRUST LEVERS are in the CLB DETENT if A/THR fails "AUTO FLT A/THR OFF" is triggered on the ECAM and engine THRUST:
Is locked at the current THRUST ("THR LK" flashing amber on the FMA).
171
G5-22-Q06We are approaching a FPLN discontinuity in this situation what will happen passing PG082waypoint?
The NAV mode will revert to HDG mode CLB vertical mode will change to OP CLB mode.
172
G5-22-Q10The mandatory parameter used by the ALPHA FLOOR DETECTION is:
A/C angle of attack.
173
G5-22-Q11A magenta dot on the Speed scale indicates:
The Short term managed speed.
174
G5-22-Q12Regardless of the initial status of the A/THR and the position of the THR levers when an ALPHA FLOOR is detected:
A/THR automatically activates and controls the engines with TO/GA thrust.
175
G5-22-Q13A HOLDING PATTERN has been entered in the F-PLN SPEED and NAV are managed. You want to leave this hold:
Activate "IMM EXIT" prompt or do a "DIRECT TO xx".
176
G5-22-Q14At Take OFF when Thrust levers are set to FLX or TOGA detent with FD on:
A/THR automatically arms but is not active.
177
G5-22-Q15The position of the aircraft used in the flight plan is computed by:
ADIRS.
178
G5-22-Q16During TAKE-OFF FMA shows "SRS" what is the target speed maintained by the horizontal FD BAR?
"V2 + 10" with all engines running.
179
G5-22-Q17When in descent with the FMA reading "SPD / DES / NAV" if the HDG knob on FCU is pulled the FMA willturn to:
SPD / V/S / HDG.
180
G5-22-Q19What is the preferred method of disengaging the autopilot?
By pressing the red disconnect pb on the sidestick.
181
G5-22-Q20When is Alpha Floor protection available?
Normal Law.
182
G5-22-Q21Setting the T/L below the CL and above IDLE detent has what effect on the A/THR?
The A/THR active range becomes limited to the thrust lever position.
183
G5-22-Q22What is the active autothrust range with one engine inoperative?
Just above Idle to MCT.
184
G6-LIM-PER-Q01After TAKE OFF pilot can engage AP:
At least 5 seconds after LIFT-OFF.
185
G6-LIM-PER-Q02What is the maximum speed for the landing gear retraction?
250 kt.
186
G6-LIM-PER-Q03Minimum usable altitude for AP in Approach with G/S mode and with "LAND1" displayed on FMA is:
0 ft AGL.
187
G6-LIM-PER-Q04The maximun brake temperature for TAKE-OFF is:
300°C.
188
G6-LIM-PER-Q05During PREFLIGHT on an A350-900 the CAPT and F/O Oxygen pressure value is 1100 PSI with the amberhalf-frame:
You can accept two jump seats.
189
G6-LIM-PER-Q06After the third consecutive start which period must be allowed for cooling the APU starter motor:
60 minutes.
190
G6-LIM-PER-Q07In case of engine failure during TAKE-OFF TOGA THRUST can be set for:
10 minutes.
191
G6-LIM-PER-Q08WING ANTI-ICING supplied by APU AIR BLEED is:
Not allowed.
192
G6-LIM-PER-Q09The use of A/P or FD in OPEN DES or DES modes is not permitted in approach unless the FCU altitude is set to or above:
MDA (H) / DA (H) or 500 ft AGL.
193
G6-LIM-PER-Q10In flight during engine start:
EGT MAX is 850° and FADEC does not control EGT overlimit.
194
You are in normal law with FD 1 and FD 2 on. In this attitude the Flight director bars are removed why ?
Because the bank angle is over 45 deg.
195
In alternate law the high angle of attack protection is replaced by:
An artificial low speed stability becomes active
196
Which statement is correct regarding the cargo door operation :
When the cargo door is inhibited the hydraulic actuator is isolated from the hydraulic system by an isolation valve
197
Each hydraulic system has its own cooling system that prevents overheat :
Each hydraulic system has one hydraulic heat exchanger in each wing fuel tank
198
The parking brake uses the alternate hydraulic supply :
With nominal accumulator pressure and aircraft not powered the parking brake is effective for 12h
199
The Flight management system provides :
A TOM function which monitors the acceleration of the aircraft during takeoff roll and alerts the flight crew if a significant degradation is detected
200
These indications show :
A typical VOR approach the lateral source is FMS based the vertical source is barometric temperature needs to be entered in the FMS
