Question Bank 2013-2015 Flashcards

1
Q

X files a nonprovisional patent application on March 1, 2013, and fails to submit the inventor’s oath or declaration with the application. When filing the application, X provided a correspondence address but did not provide the Office with a general authorization to charge any required fees to a deposit account. Subsequently, the Office mails a Notice to File Missing Parts requiring the surcharge under 37 C.F.R. 1.16(f) for not submitting the inventor’s oath or declaration. In accordance with the patent law and rules, when must Inventor Dennis pay the surcharge under 37 C.F.R. 1.16(f)?

(A). The surcharge must be paid within the period listed in the Notice to File Missing Parts, or within an extension period permitted therefrom.

(B). The surcharge must be paid prior to the Examiner issuing a first action on the merits.

(C). The surcharge can be postponed until a Notice of Allowability issues.

(D). The surcharge can be postponed until a Notice of Allowability issues but must be paid using a deposit account that covers fees under 37 C.F.R. 1.16(f).

(E). None of the above

A

A is the correct answer. See Federal Register / Vol. 77, No. 157, page 48787, which states in part: Section 1.53(f)(1) provides for a notice (if the applicant has provided a correspondence address) if the application does not contain the basic filing fee, the search fee, or the examination fee, or if the application under § 1.53(b) does not contain the inventor’s oath or declaration. Section 1.53(f)(1) provides that applicant must pay the basic filing fee, search fee, and examination fee, and pay the surcharge if required by § 1.16(f) within the time period set in the notice to avoid abandonment. Section 1.53(f)(3) (discussed subsequently) sets forth the time period for filing the inventor’s oath or declaration in an application under § 1.53(b) (an application under § 1.53(d) uses the inventor’s oath or declaration from the prior application) and provides the conditions under which an applicant may postpone

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2
Q

X was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed March 18th, 2013, which was evaluated under the First to File provisions. It is now March 16th, 2014 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, and that patent was evaluated under Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR < 12 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Since Y is requesting a PGR > 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(D). Since Y is requesting a PGR on a design patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(E). none of the above are correct.

A

C is the correct answer. A post grant review may be requested on, or prior to the date that is 9 months after the grant of a patent or issuance of a reissue patent. 35 USC 321

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3
Q

X, a party in a PGR, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing within 2 weeks of the trial date.

(B). The AIA does not permit members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(D). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(E). none of the above

A

D is correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

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4
Q

X files a nonprovisional application on March 17, 2013, claiming foreign priority to a different application filed before September 12, 2012. X then deletes the foreign priority claim during prosecution. What will happen to the application (in terms of being subject to the first-to-invent provisions vs the first-inventor-to-file provisions)?

(A). Since the application was filed prior to April 2nd, the app will still be considered subject to first-toinvent.

(B). When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first-to-invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to April 2nd, 2013) to the first-inventor-to-file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after April 2nd, 2013.

(C). When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first-to-invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to March 16th, 2013) to the first-inventor-to-file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after March 16, 2013.

(D). Deleting domestic benefit does not alter the effective filing date of the application

(E). None of the above.

A

C is the correct answer. Answer is C: When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first-to-invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to March 16th, 2013) to the first-inventor-to-file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after March 16, 2013.

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5
Q

X filed an application, which entered the national stage (35 U.S.C. 371) in the US April 3rd, 2013. However, the claims in the PCT application have an effective filing date of December 29th, 2012. Will the national stage application be subject to the first-inventor-to-file provisions?

(A). Yes. The first-to-file provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is after March 16, 2013.

(B). No. The first-to-invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

(C). Yes. The first-to-file provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

(D). No. The first-to-invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is after March 16, 2013.

(E). No. The first-to-invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before April 2nd, 2013.

A

B is the correct answer. The first-to-invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

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6
Q

X files a patent app on March 17, 2013. The examiner cites a technical document that was published on March 16, 2013. However, the technical document describes work that X performed prior to March 17th, 2013. Is the document prior art to X’s application?

(A). Yes, the document is considered prior art and will preclude X from obtaining a patent.

(B). Yes, the document is considered prior art, but X will be able to overcome the prior art if he can show that the document came from her own work (meaning, that the document was written about her own research).

(C). No, the document is not considered prior art as it was published < 1 year from X’s filing

(C). No, the foreign patent application is not considered prior art because it was not translated into english

(D). No, the foreign patent application is not considered prior art because it was filed without referring to a US patent application.

(E). No. ‘First to file’ only applies to applications that are filed in the U.S, even if the application started out life in another country.

A

A is the correct answer. The foreign patent is considered prior art (under first to file).

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7
Q

A PCT application was submitted, but 30 months lapses and the applicant does not provide the necessary requirements for the national stage due to unavoidable circumstances.

What result?

(A). The applicant can petition to revive

(B). The applicant should give up as the time period has lapsed

(C). File a notice of appeal requesting an extension of time.

(D). The applicant can petition to revive using Form PTO/SB/61PCT

(E). The applicant can request an interview to explain the circumstances of missing the 30 month deadline.

A

D is the correct answer. See MPEP 1893.02 and MPEP 711. If the requirements ** > for the submission of the basic national fee and a copy of the international application (if necessary) prior to the expiration of 30 months from the priority date are not satisfied, then the international application becomes abandoned as to the United States at thirty months from the priority date. 37 CFR 1.495 (h). If the requirements under 37 CFR 1.495 (b) are timely met, but the requirements under 37 CFR 1.495 (c) for an English translation of the international application, oath/declaration, search fee, examination fee and application size fee are not met within a time period set in a notice provided by the Office, then the application will become abandoned upon expiration of the time period set in the notice. See 37 CFR 1.495 (c)(2) and 1.495 (h) < . Examiners and applicants should be aware that sometimes papers filed for the national stage are deficient and abandonment results. For example, if the fee submitted does not include at least the amount of the basic national fee that is due, the application becomes abandoned. Applicant may file a petition to revive an abandoned application in accordance with the provisions of 37 CFR 1.137 . See MPEP § 711.03(c) . > For applicant’s convenience, applicant may use either Form PTO/SB/61PCT (unavoidably abandoned application) or Form PTO/SB/64PCT (unintentionally abandoned application), as appropriate, for this purpose. These forms are available online at http://www.uspto.gov/web/forms/index.html#patent. <

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8
Q

X, an employee of company A, assignes the rights of his invention to the company. Can company A, as the assignee, file a patent application for an invention on behalf of the company rather than on behalf of the inventor?

(A). No. The company must file on behalf of the inventor

(B). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application without an oath or declaration from Sam.

(C). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application, however, Sam must still execute an oath/declaration.

(D). No, the assignee can never be the applicant.

(E). none of the above are correct

A

C is the correct answer. The assignee can be the applicant. However, the Inventor Sam must still execute an oath/declaration. Furthermore, the assignee may only execute a substitute statement in lieu of an oath/declaration where the inventor refuses to execute an oath/ declaration, cannot be found or reached after diligent effort, is deceased, or is legally incapacitated.

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9
Q

According to the Post AIA section 35 U.S.C. 102(a)(1), what is the “effective filing date” of a claimed invention?

(A). It is the later of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(B). It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims foreign benefit or foreign priority of another application that does not describe the subject matter.

(C). It is the later of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the provisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(D). It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the provisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(E). It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

A

E is correct answer. The “effective filing date” of a claimed invention is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

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10
Q

Inventor X receives notice that a PGR was instituted involving his patent and several claims contained in his patent. During the process of review, X decides he wants to amend the claims. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(B). A patent owner may not file any amendments to the challenged patent claims during a PGR.

(C). A patent owner may file motions to amend the challenged patent claims during a PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims, and add additional matter not contained in the original patent.

(D). A patent owner may file one motion to amend any of the patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

A is the correct answer. A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

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11
Q

X is part of a PGR. However, he would like certain information disclosed during the review to remain confidential. Which, if any, of the following is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may seek to have a document sealed and protected by filing a motion to seal.

(B). Since the file of an PGR is open to the public under the AIA, any information disclosed during the review is available to the public.

(C). X may obtain a protective order, which will act to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information

(D). Both A and C

(E). None of the above

A

D is the correct answer. The rules of the AIA state that the file of a post grant review is open to the public. However, a party may seek to have a document sealed by filing a motion to seal. The rules and regulations of the AIA also allow for protective orders to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

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12
Q

X filed a petition for a PGR. The Post Grant Review was instituted on May 3rd, 2013. X wants to file additional information? Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X cannot file additional information once PGR is instituted.

(B). X has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(C). X has until August 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(D). X has until October 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(E). X has until August 3rd, 2013 to file additional information.

A

B is the correct answer. A petitioner may supplement information in the petition for PGR by filing motion within one month of the date trial is instituted, thus X has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

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13
Q

X filed a petition for PGR. The PGR was instituted on May 2nd, 2013. On May 3rd, 2013, X uncovers new material that is essential to the PGR, and wants to file additional information? Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may not file a motion to submit submit supplemental information belatedly after the one month mark post institution of the PGR.

(B). X may file a motion to submit submit supplemental information belatedly, by showing that the information could not have been earlier presented and that it is in the interests of justice for the Board to consider the information.

(C). X may file a motion to submit submit supplemental information as it is within the 3 month time frame post PGR institution to submit information.

(D). X may not file a motion to submit submit supplemental information belatedly, as the information is considered a new submission

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

B is the correct answer. A party may be authorized to file a motion to submit supplemental information belatedly. A party will not be permitted to submit supplemental information belatedly except upon a showing that the information could not have been earlier presented and that it is in the interests of justice for the Board to consider the information.

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14
Q

X, a party in a PGR, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits a party to a PGR to request an oral hearing within 2 weeks of the trial date.

(B). The AIA does not permits a party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA permits a party to a PGR to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(D). The AIA permits a party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(E). none of the above

A

D is the correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

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15
Q

X petitions a PGR over a patent issued to Y, and a PGR is instituted. However, during the proceedings of the PGR, X and Y come to a mutual agreement, and want to stop the PGR. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations of the MPEP?

(A). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle.

(B). The rules and regulations of the AIA do not allow the parties to a PGR to settle.

(C). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle, but only if the both file a petition to terminate the PGR

(D). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle, and the Board must terminate the proceeding

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

A is the correct answer. The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle. Any settlement will terminate the proceeding and the Board may terminate the proceeding or issue a final written decision. 35 USC 327

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16
Q

Which, if any, is true about the submission of an application data sheet (ADS)?

(A). Is required where submission of the inventor’s oath or declaration is to be delayed.

(B). Is required where each inventor’s oath or declaration identifies only the inventor (or person) executing that particular oath or declaration and not all of the inventors.

(C). Is required where there is a claim for domestic benefit (37 CFR 1.78), or foreign priority claim (37 CFR 1.55)(except foreign priority for national stage applications).

(D). Is required where there is an identification of applicants other than the inventors under 37 CFR 1.46 (except for national stage applications, where the applicant is the person identified in the international stage).

(E). Submission of an application data sheet is required in all of the above

A

E is correct answer. MPEP 601 - Submission of an application data sheet (ADS) should be routine for all applications but is required where: (i) submission of the inventor’s oath or declaration is to be delayed; (ii) each inventor’s oath or declaration identifies only the inventor (or person) executing that particular oath or declaration and not all of the inventors; (iii) there is a claim for domestic benefit (37 CFR 1.78), or foreign priority claim (37 CFR 1.55)(except foreign priority for national stage applications); or (iv) there is an identification of applicants other than the inventors under 37 CFR 1.46 (except for national stage applications, where the applicant is the person identified in the international stage).

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17
Q

Z, an employee of company X, assigns the rights of his invention to the company. Can company X, as the assignee; file a patent application for an invention on behalf of the company rather than on behalf of the inventor?

(A). No. The company must file on behalf of the inventor

(B). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application without an oath or declaration from Z.

(C). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application, however, Z must still execute an oath/declaration.

(D). No, the assignee can never be the applicant.

(E). none of the above are correct

A

C is the correct answer. Yes, the assignee (company X) can be the applicant. However, the Inventor Sam must still execute an oath/declaration. Furthermore, the assignee (Company X) may only execute a substitute statement in lieu of an oath/declaration where the inventor refuses to execute an oath/ declaration, cannot be found or reached after diligent effort, is deceased, or is legally incapacitated.

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18
Q

X, Y, and Z are all inventors that worked on the same invention. They filed for a patent application, and mistakenly listed W on the application as an inventor.

What is the applicant required to submit to change inventorship?

(A). They must file a request under 37 CFR 1.48(a).

(B). They must submit an application data sheet listing the correct inventors.

(C). They must pay a $130

(D). A and C

(E). A, B, and C

A

E is correct answer. MPEP 201 - In Order to change inventorship, applicants are required to: 1) file request under 37 CFR 1.48(a), 2) Submit an application data sheet listing the correct inventors, 3) Pay a $130 fee. Additionally, the applicant must submit an inventor’s oath or declaration for each added inventor.

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19
Q

What information must an inventor supply in his/her oath/declaration to be filed in the Office for a patent application?

(A). That he/she is an original inventor of the claimed invention

(B). That he/she authorized the filing of the patent application for the claimed invention.

(C). That the application filing is made without deceptive intent

(D). A and B

(E). A and C

A

D is the correct answer. MPEP 602 - An inventor must state in his/her oath/declaration that (i) he/she is an original inventor of the claimed invention; and (ii) he/she authorized the filing of the patent application for the claimed invention. An inventor is no longer required to (i) state that he/she is the first inventor of the claimed invention; (ii) state that the application filing is made without deceptive intent; or (iii) provide his/her country of citizenship.

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20
Q

X filed an application on October 16, 2012. However, in a rush to file, he forgot to state that he was the “first” inventor in the declaration. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). An inventor’s oath or declaration for an application filed on or after September 16, 2012, is subject to the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 115 as amended by the AIA and needs to state that the inventor is the “first” inventor, even though the application may be subject to the first-to-invent provisions of 35 U.S.C. 102 that the inventor be the “first” inventor.

(B). An inventor’s oath or declaration for an application filed on or after September 16, 2012, is subject to the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 115 as amended by the AIA and does not need to state that the inventor is the “first” inventor, even though the application may be subject to the first-to-invent provisions of 35 U.S.C. 102 that the inventor be the “first” inventor.

(C). An inventor’s oath or declaration for an application filed before April 2nd, 2013, is subject to the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 115 as amended by the AIA and does not need to state that the inventor is the “first” inventor.

(D). Only an inventor’s oath or declaration for an application filed after April 2nd is subject to the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 115 as amended by the AIA and does not need to state that the inventor is the “first” inventor.

(E). none of the above

A

B is the correct answer. MPEP 602 - An inventor’s oath or declaration for an application filed on or after September 16, 2012, is subject to the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 115 as amended by the AIA and does not need to state that the inventor is the “first” inventor. This might be confusing, because the application may be subject to the first-to-invent provisions of 35 U.S.C. 102 that the inventor be the “first” inventor, however, post September 16th, 2012, 35 USC 115 was amended and the requirement to name the “first” inventor was removed.

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21
Q

What is the effective date for the provisions reflected in the AIA concerning inventor’s oaths and declarations?

(A). September 15th, 2012

(B). September 16th, 2012

(C). September 16th, 2013

(D). April 2nd, 2012

(E). April 2nd, 2013

A

B is the correct answer. The effective date for the inventor’s oath/declaration provision in the AIA is September 16, 2012.

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22
Q

X, an inventor, filed an application for his utility patent on September 15th, 2012. On September 17th, X wants to submit national stage application under 35 U.S.C. 371. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). X’s declaration (the inventors declaration) for the national stage application must comply with the AIA rule changes to the inventor’s declaration.

(B). X’s declaration (the inventors declaration) is not subject to the AIA rule changes, as submission of a national stage application is not the filing of an application. Submission of a national stage application relates to entry of the international application into the national stage. The filing date of a national stage application is the filing date of the international application.

(C). X’s declaration (the inventors declaration) is subject to the AIA rule changes, as submission of a national stage application is considered the filing of an application. The filing date of a national stage application is the filing date in the national stage.

(D). X’s declaration (the inventors declaration) is not subject to the AIA changes to inventor’s declarations because it was filed prior to April 2nd, 2013.

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

B is the correct answer. X’s declaration (the inventors declaration) is not subject to the AIA rule changes, as submission of a national stage application is not the filing of an application. Submission of a national stage application relates to entry of the international application into the national stage. The filing date of a national stage application is the filing date of the international application. Also, see MPEP § 1893.03(b).

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23
Q

X is part of an inter partes review. However, he would like certain information disclosed during the review to remain confidential. Which, if any, of the following is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). Since the file of an inter partes review is open to the public under the AIA, any information disclosed during the review is available to the public.

(B). X may seek to have a document sealed and protected by filing a motion to seal.

(C). X may obtain a protective order, which will act to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

(D). Both B and C

(E). None of the above

A

D is the correct answer. While it is true that under the AIA the file of an inter partes review is open to the public, a party may seek to have a document sealed by filing a motion to seal. Furthermore, the AIA also provides for protective orders to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

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24
Q

X, a party in an inter partes review, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(B). The AIA does not permit members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA only permits the named inventor(s) party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(D). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(E). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing within 2 weeks of the trial date.

A

A is the correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

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25
Q

X, a party to an inter partes review, disagrees with the final decision of the review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may appeal the Board’s final decision.

(B). X may submit a petition to the Board.

(C). X may appeal the Boards final decision by appealing to the Federal Circuit.

(D). X may request an oral hearing to appeal the Board’s decision.

(E). None of the above is correct

A

C is the correct answer. A party dissatisfied with the final written decision in an inter partes review may appeal to the Federal Circuit. Therefore, X may submit an appeal to the Federal Circuit.

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26
Q

What is the effective date for the post grant review (PGR) implementation?

(A). September 15th, 2012

(B). September 16th, 2012

(C). April 2nd, 2013

(D). April 1st, 2013

(E). March 16th, 2013

A

B is the correct answer. The effective date for the post grant review (PGR) in the AIA is September 16, 2012. 35 USC 6

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27
Q

Inventor Y receives notice that an inter partes review was instituted involving his patent and several claims contained in his patent. During the process of review, Y decides he wants to amend the claims. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). A patent owner may not file any amendments to the challenged patent claims during an inter partes review.

(B). A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(C). A patent owner may file motions to amend the challenged patent claims during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims, and add additional matter not contained in the original patent.

(D). A patent owner may file one motion to amend any of the patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

B is the correct answer. A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

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28
Q

What are the specific statutory and regulatory requirements a petitioner must meet in order to petition for a post grant review according the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP? The petitioner must:

(A). Identify all real parties in interest.

(B). Identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based.

(C). Provide copies of evidence relied upon and submit the required fee.

(D). Identify the grounds for standing; provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

(E). All of the above are required to petition for a PGR

A

E is correct answer. In a petition for a post grant review, the petitioner must by statute (i) identify all real parties in interest; (ii) identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based; and (iii) provide copies of evidence relied upon. The petition must be accompanied by a fee. In addition, the petitioner must by rule (i) identify the grounds for standing; (ii) provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; (iii) specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and (iv) specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

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29
Q

X, a party in an inter partes review, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(B). The AIA does not permit members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA only permits the named inventor(s) party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(D). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(E). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing within 2 weeks of the trial date.

A

A is the correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

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30
Q

X, a party to an inter partes review, disagrees with the final decision of the review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may appeal the Board’s final decision.

(B). X may submit a petition to the Board.

(C). X may appeal the Boards final decision by appealing to the Federal Circuit.

(D). X may request an oral hearing to appeal the Board’s decision.

(E). None of the above is correct

A

C is the correct answer. A party dissatisfied with the final written decision in an inter partes review may appeal to the Federal Circuit. Therefore, Biff may submit an appeal to the Federal Circuit.

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31
Q

What is the effective date for the post grant review (PGR) implementation?

(A). September 15th, 2012

(B). September 16th, 2012

(C). April 2nd, 2013

(D). April 1st, 2013

(E). March 16th, 2013

A

B is the correct answer. The effective date for the post grant review (PGR) in the AIA is September 16, 2012. 35 USC 6

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32
Q

X was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed September 18th, 2012. It is now March 16th, 2013 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR < 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA is eligible for PGR, thus, X’s patent is not eligible for PGR.

(D). Design patents are not eligible for PGR.

(E). None of the above.

A

C is the correct answer. Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA are eligible for PGR, thus, X’s patent is not eligible for PGR. Since X’s patent was issued prior to March 16th, 2013, it is not eligible for PGR. 35 USC 321

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33
Q

Sam was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed March 18th, 2013, which was evaluated under the First to File provisions. It is now March 16th, 2014 and Bill, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, and that patent was evaluated underBill is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Bill is requesting a PGR < 12 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Since Bill is requesting a PGR > 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(D). Since Bill is requesting a PGR on a design patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(E). none of the above are correct.

A

C is the correct answer. A post grant review may be requested on, or prior to the date that is 9 months after the grant of a patent or issuance of a reissue patent. 35 USC 321

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34
Q

What are the specific statutory and regulatory requirements a petitioner must meet in order to petition for a post grant review according the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP? The petitioner must:

(A). Identify all real parties in interest.

(B). Identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based.

(C). Provide copies of evidence relied upon and submit the required fee.

(D). Identify the grounds for standing; provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

(E). All of the above are required to petition for a PGR

A

E is correct answer. In a petition for a post grant review, the petitioner must by statute (i) identify all real parties in interest; (ii) identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based; and (iii) provide copies of evidence relied upon. The petition must be accompanied by a fee. In addition, the petitioner must by rule (i) identify the grounds for standing; (ii) provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; (iii) specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and (iv) specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

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35
Q

Inventor X receives notice that a PGR was instituted involving his patent and several claims contained in his patent. During the process of review, he decides he wants to amend the claims. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(B). A patent owner may not file any amendments to the challenged patent claims during a PGR.

(C). A patent owner may file motions to amend the challenged patent claims during a PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims, and add additional matter not contained in the original patent.

(D). A patent owner may file one motion to amend any of the patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a PGR. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

A is the correct answer. A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

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36
Q

X is part of an PGR. However, he would like certain information disclosed during the review to remain confidential. Which, if any, of the following is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may seek to have a document sealed and protected by filing a motion to seal.

(B). Since the file of an PGR is open to the public under the AIA, any information disclosed during the review is available to the public.

(C). X may obtain a protective order, which will act to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information

(D). Both A and C

(E). None of the above

A

D is the correct answer. The rules of the AIA state that the file of a post grant review is open to the public. However, a party may seek to have a document sealed by filing a motion to seal. The rules and regulations of the AIA also allow for protective orders to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

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37
Q

X filed a petition for a PGR. The Post Grant Review was instituted on May 3rd, 2013. X wants to file additional information? Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X cannot file additional information once PGR is instituted.

(B). X has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(C). X has until August 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(D). X has until October 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(E). X has until August 3rd, 2013 to file additional information.

A

B is the correct answer. A petitioner may supplement information in the petition for PGR by filing motion within one month of the date trial is instituted, thus X has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

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38
Q

X filed a petition for PGR. The PGR was instituted on May 2nd, 2013. On May 3rd, 2013, X uncovers new material that is essential to the PGR, and wants to file additional information? Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may not file a motion to submit supplemental information belatedly after the one month mark post institution of the PGR.

(B). X may file a motion to submit supplemental information belatedly, by showing that the information could not have been earlier presented and that it is in the interests of justice for the Board to consider the information.

(C). X may file a motion to submit supplemental information as it is within the 3 month time frame post PGR institution to submit information.

(D). X may not file a motion to submit supplemental information belatedly, as the information is considered a new submission

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

B is the correct answer. A party may be authorized to file a motion to submit supplemental information belatedly. A party will not be permitted to submit supplemental information belatedly except upon a showing that the information could not have been earlier presented and that it is in the interests of justice for the Board to consider the information.

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39
Q

X, a party in a PGR, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing within 2 weeks of the trial date.

(B). The AIA does not permit members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(D). The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

(E). none of the above

A

D is the correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a PGR to request an oral hearing.

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40
Q

X petitions a PGR over a patent issued to Y, and a PGR is instituted. However, during the proceedings of the PGR, X and Y come to a mutual agreement, and want to stop the PGR. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations of the MPEP?

(A). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle.

(B). The rules and regulations of the AIA do not allow the parties to a PGR to settle.

(C). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle, but only if the both file a petition to terminate the PGR

(D). The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle, and the Board must terminate the proceeding

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

A is the correct answer. The rules and regulations of the AIA allow the parties to a PGR to settle. Any settlement will terminate the proceeding and the Board may terminate the proceeding or issue a final written decision. 35 USC 327

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41
Q

Which, if any, is true about the submission of an application data sheet (ADS)?

(A). Is required where submission of the inventor’s oath or declaration is to be delayed.

(B). Is required where each inventor’s oath or declaration identifies only the inventor (or person) executing that particular oath or declaration and not all of the inventors.

(C). Is required where there is a claim for domestic benefit (37 CFR 1.78), or foreign priority claim (37 CFR 1.55)(except foreign priority for national stage applications).

(D). Is required where there is an identification of applicants other than the inventors under 37 CFR 1.46 (except for national stage applications, where the applicant is the person identified in the international stage).

(E). Submission of an application data sheet is required in all of the above

A

E is correct answer. MPEP 601 - Submission of an application data sheet (ADS) should be routine for all applications but is required where: (i) submission of the inventor’s oath or declaration is to be delayed; (ii) each inventor’s oath or declaration identifies only the inventor (or person) executing that particular oath or declaration and not all of the inventors; (iii) there is a claim for domestic benefit (37 CFR 1.78), or foreign priority claim (37 CFR 1.55)(except foreign priority for national stage applications); or (iv) there is an identification of applicants other than the inventors under 37 CFR 1.46 (except for national stage applications, where the applicant is the person identified in the international stage).

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42
Q

Y, an employee of company X, assignees the rights of his invention to the company. Can company X, as the assignee, file a patent application for an invention on behalf of the company rather than on behalf of the inventor?

(A). No. The company must file on behalf of the inventor

(B). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application without an oath or declaration from Sam.

(C). Yes, the assignee can be the applicant, and company X can file the application, however, Sam must still execute an oath/declaration.

(D). No, the assignee can never be the applicant.

(E). none of the above are correct

A

C is the correct answer. Yes, the assignee (company X) can be the applicant. However, the Inventor Y must still execute an oath/declaration. Furthermore, the assignee (Company X) may only execute a substitute statement in lieu of an oath/declaration where the inventor refuses to execute an oath/ declaration, cannot be found or reached after diligent effort, is deceased, or is legally incapacitated.

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43
Q

X, an inventor, assigned the entire interest of his patent to Y on September 15th, 2013. Y files an application on September 16, 2012.

Who should sign a power of attorney?

(A). X

(B). Y

(C). Both X and Y must sign

(D). Z, the patent attorney enlisted to file

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

B is the correct answer. If the assignee is named as the applicant, then the assignee-applicant must give the power of attorney. See 37 CFR 1.32. A power of attorney from an assignee may be executed by a person having apparent authority to do so, such as the President of the assignee, or by including a statement of authorization. See MPEP § 324.

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44
Q

S and M, co-inventors, meant to name B as the assignee in their patent application, which was filed September 20th, 2013. However, S and M mistakenly named B as the application in the section of the ADS requesting applicant information. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations of the MPEP to correct the error in order to identify the inventors as the applicant?

(A). S and M can do nothing to correct the information. Since B was named as the assignee, only he can request to correct or update the name(s) of the applicant.

(B). Once the assignee is misidentified as the applicant, a request to correct or update the name of the applicant would need to be accompanied by a new ADS and a statement under 37 C.F.R 3.73 that shows ownership by the inventors.

(C). Once the assignee is misidentified as the applicant, a request to correct or update the name of the applicant would need to be accompanied by a new oath or declaration, and a statement under 37 C.F.R 3.73 that shows ownership by the inventors.

(D). Once the assignee is misidentified as the applicant, a request to correct or update the name of the applicant would need to be accompanied by a petition and a statement under 37 C.F.R 3.73 that shows ownership by the inventors, and lists the inventors by name and nationality,

(E). None of the above are in accordance with the MPEP.

A

B is the correct answer. Once the assignee is misidentified as the applicant, a request to correct or update the name of the applicant would need to be accompanied by a new ADS and a statement under 37 C.F.R 3.73 that shows ownership by the inventors.

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45
Q

M, an inventor, filed a non-provisional application on August 30th, 2012, with a declaration executed in her maiden name (F). M was married on September 16th, 2012, and subsequently filed to have her last name changed. Mary also wants to have the application record reflect her new last name, D. Which, if any, is in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). M is unable to change her name on the application due to marriage, as this is not a valid reason for altering a patent application.

(B). M should request a change in inventor name by submitting a petition under 37 C.F.R 1.182 with a $400 fee.

(C). M should amend the application by submitting a signed request to correct the name submitted with an application data sheet and a $130 processing fee?

(D). B or C is correct

(E). None of the above is correct

A

C is the correct answer. MPEP 201.03. Mary should file a request to change her name under amended 37 C.F.R. 1.48(f), since she is seeking to correct her name after September 16, 2012.

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46
Q

X files for a patent on March 17th, 2013. The patent issues on January 4th, 2014. X comes across some work done by Z, and believes this work infringes on his patent. X sues Z for infringement. Z then files a counterclaim for invalidity based on a prior sales of X. Z wants to initiate PGR in the PTO. Z requests PGR on October 17, 2014, and states in the request: “prior sales by X means that there is a reasonable likelihood that Z will prevail in invalidating at least one claim in the patent.” However, the PTO rejects the request for PGR. Under what conditions would the PTO deny the request?

(A). The request for PGR used the wrong standard, as “reasonable likelihood” only applies for IPR

(B). The request for PGR cannot be based on prior sales

(C). The request was untimely

(D). A and B

(E). A and C

A

E is correct answer. Both A and C are correct. A PGR must be initiated within 9 months of the patent issue date. Be careful of not reading into questions, because the answer didn’t specify why the request was untimely. Be aware of the “counterclaim” rule. Once a declaratory judgment action for invalidity is filed, the person(s) is precluded from requesting PGR, but filing a declaratory judgment counterclaim is allowable.

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47
Q

X, an inventor, assigned the entire interest of his patent to Y on September 15th, 2013. Y files an application on September 16, 2012.

Who should sign a power of attorney?

(A). X
(B). Y
(C). Both X and Y must sign
(D). Z, the patent attorney enlisted to file
(E). None of the above are correct.

A

B is the correct answer. If the assignee is named as the applicant, then the assignee-applicant must give the power of attorney. See 37 CFR 1.32. A power of attorney from an assignee may be executed by a person having apparent authority to do so, such as the President of the assignee, or by including a statement of authorization. See MPEP § 324.

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48
Q

What are the specific statutory and regulatory requirements a petitioner must meet in order to petition for a post grant review according the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). Identify all real parties in interest.

(B). Identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based.

(C). Provide copies of evidence relied upon and submit the required fee.

(D). Identify the grounds for standing; provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

(E). All of the above are required to petition for a PGR

A

E is correct answer. In a petition for a post grant review, the petitioner must by statute (i) identify all real parties in interest; (ii) identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based; and (iii) provide copies of evidence relied upon. The petition must be accompanied by a fee. In addition, the petitioner must by rule (i) identify the grounds for standing; (ii) provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; (iii) specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and (iv) specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

49
Q

X, a party to an inter partes review, disagrees with the final decision of the review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may appeal the Board’s final decision.

(B). X may submit a petition to the Board.

(C). X may appeal the Boards final decision by appealing to the Federal Circuit.

(D). X may request an oral hearing to appeal the Board’s decision.

(E). None of the above is correct

A

C is the correct answer. A party dissatisfied with the final written decision in an inter partes review may appeal to the Federal Circuit.

50
Q

X was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed September 18th, 2012. It is now March 16th, 2013 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR < 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA is eligible for PGR, thus, X’s patent is not eligible for PGR.

(D). Design patents are not eligible for PGR.

(E). None of the above.

A

C is the correct answer. Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA is eligible for PGR, thus, X’s patent is not eligible for PGR. Since X’s patent was issued prior to March 16th, 2013, it is not eligible for PGR. 35 USC 321

51
Q

X was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed March 18th, 2013, which was evaluated under the First to File provisions. It is now March 16th, 2014 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, and that patent was evaluated under the First to File provisions, Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR less than 12 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Since Y is requesting a PGR greater than 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(D). Since Y is requesting a PGR on a design patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(E). none of the above are correct.

A

C is the correct answer. A post grant review may be requested on, or prior to the date that is 9 months after the grant of a patent or issuance of a reissue patent. 35 USC 321

52
Q

What are the specific statutory and regulatory requirements a petitioner must meet in order to petition for a post grant review according the rules and regulations set forth in the MPEP?

(A). The petitioner must identify all real parties in interest.

(B). The petitioner must identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based.

(C). The petitioner must provide copies of evidence relied upon and submit the required fee.

(D). The petitioner must identify the grounds for standing; provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

(E). All of the above are required to petition for a PGR

A

E is correct answer. In a petition for a post grant review, the petitioner must by statute (i) identify all real parties in interest; (ii) identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based; and (iii) provide copies of evidence relied upon. The petition must be accompanied by a fee. In addition, the petitioner must by rule (i) identify the grounds for standing; (ii) provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; (iii) specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and (iv) specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon.

53
Q

X is part of an inter partes review. However, he would like certain information disclosed during the review to remain confidential. Which, if any, of the following is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A) X may seek to have a document sealed and protected by filing a motion to seal.

(B) Since the file of an inter partes review is open to the public under the AIA, any information disclosed during the review is available to the public.

(C) X may obtain a protective order, which will act to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

(D). Both A and C

(E). None of the above

A

D is the correct answer. While it is true that under the AIA the file of an inter partes review is open to the public, a party may seek to have a document sealed by filing a motion to seal. Furthermore, the AIA also provides for protective orders to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

54
Q

X, a party in an inter partes review, wants an oral hearing. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(B). The AIA does not permit members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(C). The AIA only permits the named inventor(s) party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

(D). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing by submitting an appeal to the board of directors

(E). The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing within 4 weeks of the trial date.

A

A is the correct answer. The AIA permits members/party to a inter partes review to request an oral hearing.

55
Q

X, a party to an inter partes review, disagrees with the final decision of the review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may appeal the Board’s final decision.

(B). X may submit a petition to the Board.

(C). X may appeal the Boards final decision by appealing to the Federal Circuit.

(D). X may request an oral hearing to appeal the Board’s decision.

(E). None of the above is correct

A

C is the correct answer. A party dissatisfied with the final written decision in an inter partes review may appeal to the Federal Circuit.

56
Q

Inventor X receives notice that an inter partes review was instituted involving his patent and several claims contained in his patent. During the process of review, X decides he wants to amend the claims. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). A patent owner may not file any amendments to the challenged patent claims during an inter partes review.

(B). A patent owner may file one motion to amend any of the patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(C). A patent owner may file motions to amend the challenged patent claims during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims, and add additional matter not contained in the original patent.

(D). A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

D is the correct answer. A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during an inter partes review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

57
Q

Inventor X receives notice that a post grant review was instituted involving his patent and several claims contained in his patent. During the process of review, X decides he wants to amend the claims. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(B). A patent owner may not file any amendments to the challenged patent claims during a post grant review.

(C). A patent owner may file motions to amend the challenged patent claims during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims, and add additional matter not contained in the original patent.

(D). A patent owner may file one motion to amend any of the patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

(E). None of the above is correct.

A

A is the correct answer. A patent owner may file one motion to amend the challenged patent claims, subject to the standards and procedures set by the Office, during a post grant review. Amendments may cancel any challenged patent claim and/or propose a reasonable number of substitute claims.

58
Q

What are the specific requirements necessary to file a petition for an inter partes review?

(A). The petitioner must identify all real parties in interest.

(B). The petitioner must identify all claims challenged and all grounds on which the challenge to each claim is based.

(C). The petitioner must provide copies of evidence relied upon.

(D). The petition must (i) identify the grounds for standing; (ii) provide a claim construction for each challenged claim; (iii) specifically explain the grounds for unpatentability; and (iv) specifically explain the relevance of evidence relied upon. The petition must also be accompanied by a fee.

(E). All of the above are the requirements to file a petition for an inter partes review.

A

E is correct answer. All of the above are the requirements to file a petition for an inter partes review.

59
Q

X is part of a post grant review. However, he would like certain information disclosed during the review to remain confidential. Which, if any, of the following is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X may seek to have a document sealed and protected by filing a motion to seal.

(B). X may obtain a protective order, which will act to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information

(C). Since the filing of a post grant review is open to the public under the AIA, any information disclosed during the review is available to the public.

(D). Both A and B

(E). None of the above

A

D is the correct answer. The rules of the AIA state that the file of a post grant review is open to the public. However, a party may seek to have a document sealed by filing a motion to seal. The rules and regulations of the AIA also allow for protective orders to govern the exchange and submission of confidential information.

60
Q

What is a patent owner allowed to communicate during a petition for an inter partes review (If his/her patent is the patent in question)?

(A). A patent owner may file a preliminary response to the petition in order to provide specific reasons why no inter partes review should be instituted.

(B). A patent owner may only file a final response to the petition after the investigation has been closed.

(C). The patent owner is unable to respond or communicate information during an IPR.

(D). A patent owner may file an appeal to the petition to prevent the inter partes review.

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

A is the correct answer. 35 USC 313 “If an inter partes review petition is filed under section 311, the patent owner shall have the right to file a preliminary response to the petition, within a time period set by the Director, that sets forth reasons why no inter partes review should be instituted based upon the failure of the petition to meet any requirement of this chapter.”

61
Q

X filed a petition for an inter partes review. The Inter partes review date trial was instituted on May 2nd, 2013. X wants to file additional information? Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP?

(A). X cannot file additional information one a IPR is instituted.

(B). X has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(C). X has until August 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(D). X has until October 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

(E). X has until August 3rd, 2013 to file additional information.

A

B is the correct answer. A petitioner may supplement information in the petition for inter partes review by filing motion within one month of the date trial is instituted, thus Maria has until June 2nd, 2013 to file additional information.

62
Q

X files a request for inter partes reexamination on September 16, 2012. How will it be treated?

(A). All requests for inter partes re-exam filed on or after September 16, 2012 will be changed, by the examiner, to a request for inter partes review.

(B). All requests for inter partes re-exam filed on or after September 15, 2012 will not be granted.

(C). All requests for inter partes re-exam filed on or after September 16, 2012 will be evaluated under the new AIA rules.

(D). All requests for inter partes re-exam filed on or after September 16, 2012 will not be granted.

(E). none of the above are correct.

A

D is the correct answer. Requests for inter partes re-exam filed on or after September 16, 2012 will not be granted.

63
Q

X was awarded a design patent based on a patent application filed September 19th, 2012. It is now March 16th, 2013 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review (PGR). Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR less than 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA is eligible for PGR, thus, X’s patent is not eligible for PGR.

(D). Design patents are not eligible for PGR.

(E). None of the above.

A

C is the correct answer. Only those patents issuing from applications subject to first-inventor-to-file provisions of the AIA is eligible for PGR, since X’s patent was issued prior to March 16th, 2013, it is not eligible for PGR. 35 USC 321

64
Q

Who may file for an inter partes review?

(A). Only the patent owner

(B). Any individual who is not the patent owner

(C). An individual, who is the patent owner and has previously filed a civil action to challenge the validity of a claim of the patent

(D). An individual, who is not the patent owner and has never previously filed a civil action to challenge the validity of a claim of the patent

(E). All of the above

A

D is the correct answer. An individual, who is not the patent owner and has never previously filed a civil action to challenge the validity of a claim of the patent

65
Q

X was awarded a design patent stemming from a patent application filed March 17th, 2013, which was evaluated under the First to File provisions. It is now March 16th, 2014 and Y, a third party, wants to file a post grant review. Which, if any, is in accordance with the MPEP and regulations?

(A). Since the first-inventor-to-file provision of the AIA went into effect on March 16, 2013, and that patent was evaluated under Y is able to request a PGR.

(B). Since Y is requesting a PGR is less than 12 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will be granted.

(C). Since Y is requesting a PGR is greater than 9 months from the issuance of the patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(D). Since Y is requesting a PGR on a design patent, the PGR will not be granted.

(E). none of the above are correct.

A

C is the correct answer. A post grant review may be requested on, or prior to the date that is 9 months after the grant of a patent or issuance of a reissue patent. 35 USC 321

66
Q

On what grounds, may an individual challenge a patent in an inter partes review?

(A). An individual may initiate an inter partes review, seeking to cancel one or more claims of a patent, because they believe the claim(s) are unpatentable. However, the claim must be based on an issue that could be raised under 103 only, based on prior art consisting of patents or printed publications.

(B). An individual may initiate an inter partes review, seeking to cancel one or more claims of a patent, because they believe the claim(s) are unpatentable. The individual may cite any prior art as evidence.

(C). An individual may initiate an inter partes review, seeking to cancel one or more claims of a patent, because they believe the claim(s) are unpatentable. However, the claim must be based on an issue that could be raised under 102 only, based on prior art consisting of patents or printed publications.

(D). An individual may initiate an inter partes review, because they believe the claim is unpatentable. However, the grounds for canceling the claim must be based on an issue that could be raised under 102 or 103, based on prior art consisting of patents or printed publications.

(E). An individual may initiate an inter partes review to cancel one or more claims of a patent, because they believe the claim(s) are unpatentable. However, the claim must be based on an issue that could be raised under 102 or 103, based on prior art consisting of patents or printed publications.

A

E is correct answer. An individual may initiate an inter partes review, requesting/seeking to cancel one or more claims of a patent, because they believe the claim(s) are unpatentable. However, the grounds for canceling the claim must be based on an issue that could be raised under 102 or 103, based on prior art consisting of patents or printed publications.

67
Q

Inventor B files a nonprovisional application on March 17, 2013, claiming domestic benefit to a different application filed before September 12, 2012. Inventor B then deletes the domestic benefit claim during prosecution. What will happen to the application?

(A). When the domestic benefit was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to March 16th, 2013) to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after March 16, 2013.

(B). When the domestic benefit was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to April 2nd, 2013) to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after April 2nd, 2013.

(C). Deleting domestic benefit does not alter the effective filing date of the application

(D). Since the application was filed prior to April 2nd, the application will still be considered subject to first‐to‐invent.

(E). None of the above.

A

A is the correct answer. When the domestic benefit or foreign priority claim is deleted, the nonprovisional application will switch from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is on or after March 16, 2013.

68
Q

Inventor B files a nonprovisional application on March 17, 2013, claiming foreign priority to a different application filed before September 12, 2012. Inventor B then deletes the foreign priority claim during prosecution.

What will happen to the application?

(A). Since the application was filed prior to April 2nd, the application will still be considered subject to first‐to‐invent.

(B). When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to April 2nd, 2013) to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after April 2nd, 2013.

(C). When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions (as there were claims being referenced filed PRIOR to March 16th, 2013) to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after March 16, 2013.

(D). Deleting domestic benefit does not alter the effective filing date of the application

(E). None of the above.

A

C is the correct answer. When the foreign priority was deleted, the nonprovisional application switched from being subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the claims will have an effective filing date that is after March 16, 2013.

69
Q

Inventor A filed an application, which entered the national stage (35 U.S.C. 371) in the US April 3rd, 2013. However, the claims in the PCT application have an effective filing date of December 29th, 2012. Will the national stage application be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions?

(A). Yes. The first‐to‐file provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is after March 16, 2013.

(B). No. The first‐to‐invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

(C). Yes. The first‐to‐file provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

(D). No. The first‐to‐invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is after March 16, 2013.

(E). No. The first‐to‐invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before April 2nd, 2013.

A

B is the correct answer. The first‐to‐invent provisions will apply to the national stage application because the effective filing date of all claims is before March 16, 2013.

70
Q

Inventor C filed a nonprovisional application on May 4th, 2013, in which he properly claimed domestic benefit for some, but not all, of the claims, to a provisional application filed on May 4, 2012. He also decided to add new claims to the application, however, these claims are not supported by the provisional application. Under what provisions will the application be subject to?

(A). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application contains claims newly added after the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 15, 2013.

(B). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application contains claims newly added after the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 16, 2013.

(C). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐invent provisions because the application claims benefit to an application filed before the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 16, 2013.

(D). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application was filed after March 15th, 2013.

(E). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐inevent provisions because the application was filed before March 15th, 2013.

A

B is the correct answer. The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application contains claims newly added after the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 16, 2013.

71
Q

What is the date that the provisions effecting inter partes reexamination started?

(A). September 16, 2011.

(B). September 16, 2012.

(C). April 2nd, 2012.

(D). April 2nd, 2013.

(E). March 16th, 2012

A

A is the correct answer. The date the inter partes reexamination provisions went into effect was September 16, 2011.

72
Q

Tim requests an inter partes reexamination on September 12th, 2012. However, a determination on the request has not yet been issued, and the rules and regulations of the AIA have now gone into effect. Which standard will be applied in determining whether to grant inter partes reexamination?

(A). Any inter partes reexamination proceeding filed AFTER to September 16, 2011 will be subject to the Substantial New Question of patentability (SNQ) standard.

(B). Any inter partes reexamination proceeding filed PRIOR to the date the AIA went into effect will be subject to the Substantial New Question of patentability (SNQ) standard.

(C). Any inter partes reexamination proceeding filed PRIOR to the date the AIA went into effect must provide a showing that there is a reasonable likelihood that the requester will prevail with respect to at least one of the patent claims challenged in the request

(D). Any inter partes reexamination proceeding filed PRIOR to the date the AIA went into effect must provide a showing that there is a reasonable likelihood that the requester will prevail with respect to at least two of the patent claims challenged in the request

(E). Any inter partes reexamination proceeding filed after to the date the AIA went into effect must provide a showing that there is a reasonable likelihood that the requester will prevail with respect to at least one of the patent claims challenged in the request

A

B is the correct answer. The Substantial New Question of patentability (SNQ) standard will be applied to determine whether the request for inter partes reexamination will be granted for any inter partes reexamination proceeding if the request was filed prior to the date of enactment of the AIA.

73
Q

What is “inter partes review,” and when did it become available?

(A). Inter partes review is what replaced inter partes reexamination as the option for a third party’s ability to challenge patentability. It went into effect September 16th, 2011.

(B). Inter partes review is what replaced inter partes reexamination as the option for a third party’s ability to challenge patentability. It went into effect September 16th, 2012.

(C). Inter partes review is an additional option for a third party’s ability to challenge patentability alongside inter partes reexamination. It went into effect September 16th, 2012.

(D). Inter partes review is an additional option for a third party’s ability to challenge patentability alongside inter partes reexamination. It went into effect September 16th, 2011.

(E). Inter partes review is what replaced inter partes reexamination as the option for an inventors ability to challenge patentability. It went into effect September 16th, 2012.

A

B is the correct answer. Inter partes review is what replaced inter partes reexamination as the option for a third party’s ability to challenge patentability. It went into effect September 16th, 2012.

74
Q

Inventor Bob files a provisional patent application on September 1, 2012, that contains claims directed to A + B. On September 1, 2013, Inventor Bob files a nonprovisional patent application that contains claims directed to A+B+C. Which of the following is in accordance with the patent laws and rules?

(A) Inventor Bob’s nonprovisional application cannot claim the domestic benefit claim of the provisional application.

(B) The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐to‐invent provisions.

(C) The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions.

(D) Both (B) and (C).

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer: (C): The Leahy‐Smith America Invents Act (AIA) applies the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions to applications that have claims with an effective filing date on, or after, March 16, 2013. Since some of Inventor Bob’s claims have an effective filing date after March 16, 2013, the application will be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions.

75
Q

Inventor Bob files a continuation application of the nonprovisional application filed on September 1, 2013, which contain a specific reference under 35 USC 120 to the September 1, 2013, application and contains claims directed to A+B. Which of the following is in accordance with the patent laws and rules

(A) Inventor Bob’s continuation application cannot claim the domestic benefit claim of the provisional application

(B) The continuation application will be examined under the first‐to‐invent provisions

(C) The continuation application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions

(D) Both (B) and (C)

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer: (C): The Leahy‐Smith America Invents Act (AIA) applies the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions to any application that contains or contained at any time a specific reference under section 120, 121, or 365(c) of title 35, United States Code, to any patent or application that contains or contained at any time such a claim. Since Inventor Bob’s continuation application claims a reference to the nonprovisional application filed September 1, 2013, which had claims with an effective filing date after March 16, 2013, the continuation application will be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions.

76
Q

Inventor A files a patent application on March 17, 2013, that discloses a device that comprises A, B, and C. Inventor A’s patent application was published on September 17, 2013. Inventor B files a patent application on May 1, 2013, that contains claims to a device that comprises A, B, and C. Inventor B has documentation that can establish his invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to March 17,2013. During prosecution of Inventor B’s application, the Examiner properly rejects Inventor B’s claims to the device of A, B, and C based on Inventor A’s published application.

Under the patent laws and rules, how should Inventor B respond to the rejection

(A) Submit an affidavit or declaration under 37 C.F.R. 1.131 establishing invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to the effective date of Inventor A’s filing date

(B) Submit an affidavit or declaration under 37 C.F.R. 1.132 establishing invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to the effective date of Inventor A’s filing date

(C) Amend the claims to avoid the applicability of Inventor A’s published application as a reference

(D) File a petition to institute a derivation proceeding

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): The Leahy‐Smith America Invents Act (AIA) applies the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions to applications that have claims with an effective filing date on, or after, March 16, 2013. Since Inventor B’s claims have an effective filing date after March 16, 2013, the application will be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions. 35 U.S.C. 102(a)(2), post‐AIA, states in part: A person shall be entitled to a patent unless the claimed invention was described in…an application for patent published…in which the patent or application…names another inventor and was effectively filed before the effective filing date of the claimed invention.

77
Q

Inventor A files a patent application on March 17, 2013, that discloses a device that comprises A, B, and C. Inventor A’s patent application was published on September 17, 2013. Inventor B files a patent application on May 1, 2013, that contains claims to a device that comprises A, B, and C. Inventor B has documentation that can establish his invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to March 17,2013. During prosecution of Inventor B’s application, the Examiner properly rejects Inventor B’s claims to the device of A, B, and C based on Inventor A’s published application.

Assuming Inventor A attended a conference at which Inventor B disclosed the device that comprises A, B, and C on January 1, 2013, under the patent laws and rules, how should Inventor B respond to the rejection

(A) Submit an affidavit or declaration under 37 C.F.R. 1.131 establishing invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to the effective date of Inventor A’s filing date

(B) Submit an affidavit or declaration under 37 C.F.R. 1.132 establishing invention of the A, B, and C subject matter prior to the effective date of Inventor A’s filing date

(C) Amend the claims to avoid the applicability of Inventor A’s published application as a reference

(D) File a petition to institute a derivation proceeding

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): 35 U.S.C. 102(b)(2) states in part: A disclosure shall not be prior art to a claimed invention under subsection (a)(2) if the subject matter disclosed was obtained directly or indirectly from the inventor or a joint inventor.

78
Q

Do the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions apply to all applications filed on or after March 16, 2013?

(A). Yes: Any application filed on or after March 16th, 2013, is subject to FTF.

(B). No: Only applications filed AFTER March 16th, 2013, are subject to FTF.

(C). No. It depends on the effective filing date of the claimed invention. Thus, an application filed on or after March 16, 2013 is subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions based on “effective filing date.”

(D). No, design patents filed on or after March 16th 2013 are not subject to FTF.

(E). No: Whether an application filed on or after March 16, 2013 is subject to the first‐to‐Invent provisions depends on the effective filing date of the claimed invention.

A

Correct Answer: (C) No. Whether an application filed on or after March 16, 2013 is subject to the first‐ inventor‐to‐file provisions depends on the effective filing date of the claimed invention. The first‐ inventor‐to‐file provisions apply to an application that contains, or ever contained, a claim to an invention having an effective filing date on or after March 16, 2013. If all of the claims have an effective filing date before March 16, 2013, then the application will be subject to the first‐to‐invent provisions. Alternatively, if all of the claims have an effective filing date on or after March 16, 2013, then the application will be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions. Additionally, if some of the claims have an effective filing date before March 16, 2013, and other claims have an effective filing date on or after March 16, 2013, then the application will be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions.

79
Q

If an applicant files a nonprovisional application on April 1, 2013, and may properly claim domestic benefit for all of the claims to a provisional application filed on April 1, 2012, will the application be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions?

(A). Yes, the application be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions?

(B). Yes, the application be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions, but under certain circumstances, the applicant has the ability to petition to be reviewed in light of first‐to‐invent.

(C). No. The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐to‐invent provisions because all of claims in the nonprovisional are supported by the provisional application filed before March 17, 2013.

(D). No. The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐to‐invent provisions because the all of claims in the nonprovisional are supported by the provisional application filed before March 16, 2013. The provisional application need not have included claims.

(E). None of the above are correct.

A

Correct Answer is (D): The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐to‐invent provisions because the all of claims in the nonprovisional are supported by the provisional application filed before March 16, 2013. The provisional application need not have included claims.

80
Q

Inventor A files a nonprovisional application based on a method on April 1, 2013, properly claiming domestic benefit for some of the claims to a provisional application filed on April 1, 2012. However, subsequent to the April 1, 2012 application, Inventor A wants to also add new claims not supported by the provisional application. Will the application be subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions?

(A). Yes. The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application contains claims newly added after the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 16, 2013.

(B). Yes. Any nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions if it was submitted after March 16, 2013.

(C). No. The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application claimed benefit to an application filed prior to March 16, 2013.

(D). No: Inventor A can file a petition to have his application reviewed under first to invent because he claimed prior benefit to an application filed before March 16th, 2013.

(E). No: Patent applications based on methods are not subject to the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions.

A

Correct Answer is (A). The nonprovisional application will be examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions because the application contains claims newly added after the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions became effective on March 16, 2013.

81
Q

Xavier wants to file a petition requesting a covered business method patent review for a patent issued to Mr. Eisenhardt on February 1, 2013. Under the patent laws and rules, when can Xavier file the petition requesting a covered business method patent review of Mr. Eisenhardt’s patent?

(A) At any time after February 1, 2013.
(B) May 1, 2013.
(C) August 1, 2013.
(D) December 1, 2013.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 42.303 - A petition requesting a covered business method patent review may be filed any time except during the period in which a petition for a post-grant review of the patent would satisfy the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 321(c).

82
Q

Xavier wants to file a petition requesting a covered business method patent review for a patent issued to Mr. Eisenhardt on February 1, 2013. Under the patent laws and rules, when can Xavier file the petition requesting a covered business method patent review of Mr. Eisenhardt’s patent?

Under the patent laws and rules, if Xavier files a petition requesting a covered business method patent review, how long should the covered business method patent review take if no extension is utilized?

(A) Six months.
(B) One Year.
(C) Eighteen months.
(D) Two years.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (B): See 37 C.F.R. 42.300(c) - A covered business method patent review proceeding shall be administered such that pendency before the Board after institution is normally no more than one year. The time can be extended by up to six months for good cause by the Chief Administrative Patent Judge.

83
Q

Section 14 of the America Invents Act (AIA) generally states that applicants can no longer rely solely on the novelty or non-obviousness of a tax strategy embodied in a claim in order to distinguish the claim from the prior art. Under the patent laws and rules, what applications are subject to this section of the AIA?

I. Applications filed before September 16, 2011 and issuing before September 16, 2011.
II. Applications pending on September 16, 2011.
III. Applications filed before September 16, 2011 and issuing after September 16, 2011.
IV. Applications filed on, or after, September 16, 2011.

(A) I only.
(B) I, II, and III only.
(C) III and IV only.
(D) IV only.
(E) II, III, and IV only.

A

Correct Answer (E): See the AIA Section 14, which states: This section shall take effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall apply to any patent application that is pending on, or filed on or after, that date, and to any patent that is issued on or after that date.

84
Q

Inventor Sully is interested in filing an application using Prioritized Examination. Under the patent laws and rules, what fees must Inventor Sully pay when submitting a Request for Prioritized Examination if no application size fees or excess claims fee are due?

I. Basic Filing Fee, Search Fee, and Examination Fee.
II. Publication Fee.
III. Track I Processing Fee and Track I Prioritized Examination Fee.

(A) I and II only.
(B) III only.
(C) II and III only.
(D) I, II, and III.
(E) I and III only.

A

Correct Answer (D): See Federal Register / Vol. 76, No. 185, which states in part: The application must be complete under 37 CFR 1.51(b) with any excess claims fees paid on filing, and the application must be filed via the Office’s electronic filing system (EFS-Web) if it is a utility application. Thus, the application must be filed with an oath or declaration under 37 CFR 1.63, the basic filing fee, the search fee, the examination fee, any excess claims fees, and any application size fee.

85
Q

Patent holder Bill sued alleged infringer Bob for infringement on September 19, 2011. After reviewing the patent in question, alleged infringer Bob determines that patent holder Bill failed to disclose the best mode in the patent. In accordance with the patent laws, rules and procedures as related in the MPEP, which of the following is correct?

(A) Alleged infringer Bob can assert that all the claims of the patent should be cancelled for failure to disclose the best mode.

(B) Alleged infringer Bob can assert that some of the claims of the patent should be cancelled for failure to disclose the best mode.

(C) Alleged infringer Bob can argue that all claims of the patent are invalid for failure to disclose the best mode.

(D) Alleged infringer Bob can argue that some of the claims of the patent are invalid for failure to disclose the best mode.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer Choice (E): Section 15 of the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA), Public Law 112-29, 125 Stat. 284 (Sept. 16, 2011), states in part “[t]he amendments made by this section shall take effect upon the date of enactment of this Act and shall apply to proceedings commenced on or after that date.”

86
Q

Taylor files an application on January 1, 2013. On March 1, 2013, Mike submits a third-party preissuance submission to be entered in Taylor’s application file. On April 1, 2013, the USPTO determines that Mike’s third-party submission is not compliant with the statute. Which of the following is not in accordance with the patent laws, rules and procedures?

(A) The USPTO will not enter the third-party submission into the application file.

(B) The Examiner will not consider the third-party submission.

(C) Mike can amend the non-compliant third-party submission such that it meets the statutory requirements.

(D) The USPTO will toll the statutory time period for making a compliant third-party submission.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer Choice (C): See 37 C.F.R. 1.290(a) which states in part: A third-party submission may not be entered or considered by the Office if any part of the submission is not in compliance with 35 U.S.C. 122(e) and this section.

87
Q

Section 14 if the America Invents Act (AIA) generally states that applicants can no longer rely solely on the novelty or non-obviousness of a tax strategy embodied in a claim in order to distinguish the claim from the prior art. If a patent issued before September 16, 2011, and undergoes reexamination subsequent to September 16, 2011, under the patent laws and rules, how will Section 14 of the AIA impact reexamination?

(A) Section 14 will apply to any new claim added during reexamination.
(B) Section 14 will apply to all claims during reexamination.
(C) Section 14 will apply to only the originally patented claims.
(D) Section 14 will apply to none of the claims.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See the AIA Section 14, which states: This section shall take effect on the date of the enactment of this Act and shall apply to any patent application that is pending on, or filed on or after, that date, and to any patent that is issued on or after that date.

88
Q

Inventor Billy files a nonprovisional patent application on June 1, 2013, and included an Application Data Sheet (ADS) listing a domestic benefit claim to a provisional patent application filed April 1, 2013. When Billy filed the nonprovisional application, he failed to include an incorporation by reference relating to the provisional patent application in the specification. Under the patent laws and rules, will Billy’s inclusion of the benefit claim to the provisional patent application in the ADS be considered as an incorporation by reference?

I. Because the ADS is part of the application, the USPTO will recognize Billy’s incorporation by reference.
II. Billy must submit a substitute ADS indicating that the provisional patent application is incorporated by reference into the nonprovisional application.
III. The USPTO will not recognize the incorporation by reference.

(A) I only.
(B) II only.
(C) III only.
(D) I and II only.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): The use of an ADS to make a claim for domestic benefit or foreign priority is not an express incorporation by reference of the prior application into the subject application. An express incorporation by reference must be set forth in the specification of the subject application as filed. See MPEP 608.01(p) and 201.17. This is distinguishable from omitting one or more pages in the nonprovisional patent application, which the facts do not indicate occurred.

89
Q

Applicant files a nonprovisional application on April 1, 2013, that claims the benefit, and is a continuation, of an application filed on April 25, 2012. All requirements under 35 U.S.C. 120 have been met. During the course of prosecution, the applicant deletes the domestic benefit claim to the April 25, 2013, application. According to the patent laws, rules and procedures, under what provisions will the Applicant’s April 1, 2013, application be examined?

(A) The first-to-invent provisions.
(B) The first-inventor-to-file provisions.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) The application will not be examined because the domestic benefit claim has been deleted.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (B): MPEP 706.02 states that the “effective filing date of a U.S. application may be determined as follows: (A) If the application is a continuation or divisional of one or more earlier U.S. applications or international applications and if the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 120 and 365(c), respectively, have been satisfied, the effective filing date is the same as the earliest filing date in the line of continuation or divisional applications.” Because the Applicant deleted the benefit claim, the effective filing date is subsequent to the enactment of the first-inventor-to-file provisions, March 16, 2013.

90
Q

Under the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA), who may file a supplemental examination?

(A) An owner of a partial right, title, and interest in the patent.
(B) The patent owner of the entire right, title, and interest in the patent.
(C) A party other than the patent owner.
(D) A corporate entity.
(E) Both (A) and (B).

A

Correct Answer (B): See 37 C.F.R. 1.601(a) – A request for supplemental examination of a patent must be filed by the owner(s) of the entire right, title, and interest in the patent.

91
Q

In accordance with the patent laws and rules, what type of information can a patent owner present to the Office in a supplemental examination?

I. Only issued patents.
II. Only U.S. issued patents and U.S. published applications.
III. Any document that contains information believed to be relevant to the patent.

(A) I and II only.
(B) III only.
(C) II and III only.
(D) I, II, and III.
(E) I and III only.

A

Correct Answer (B): See 37 C.F.R. 1.605(b) - An item of information includes a document submitted as part of the request that contains information, believed to be relevant to the patent, that the patent owner requests the Office to consider, reconsider, or correct. If the information to be considered, reconsidered, or corrected is not, at least in part, contained within or based on any document submitted as part of the request, the discussion within the body of the request relative to the information will be considered as an item of information.

92
Q

Alex would like to file a request for supplemental examination for a patent that he owns and that is still enforceable. The patent issued on May 5, 2013. Alex would like to submit 11 items of information in the request for supplemental examination. Under the patent laws and rules, how many items of information can Alex submit in the request for supplemental examination?

(A) Only one item of information can be submitted in a request for supplemental examination.

(B) No more than three items of information can be submitted in a request for supplemental examination.

(C) No more than six items of information can be submitted in a request for supplemental examination.

(D) No more than twelve items of information can be submitted in a request for supplemental examination.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 1.605(a) - Each request for supplemental examination may include no more than twelve items of information believed to be relevant to the patent. More than one request for supplemental examination of the same patent may be filed at any time during the period of enforceability of the patent.

93
Q

Applicant files a nonprovisional application on April 1, 2013, that claims the benefit, and is a continuation, of an application filed on April 25, 2012. All requirements under 35 U.S.C. 120 have been met. During the course of prosecution, the applicant deletes the domestic benefit claim to the April 25, 2013, application. According to the patent laws, rules and procedures, under what provisions will the Applicant’s April 1, 2013, application be examined?

(A) The first-to-invent provisions.
(B) The first-inventor-to-file provisions.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) The application will not be examined because the domestic benefit claim has been deleted.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (B): MPEP 706.02 states that the “effective filing date of a U.S. application may be determined as follows: (A) If the application is a continuation or divisional of one or more earlier U.S. applications or international applications and if the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 120 and 365(c), respectively, have been satisfied, the effective filing date is the same as the earliest filing date in the line of continuation or divisional applications.” Because the Applicant deleted the benefit claim, the effective filing date is subsequent to the enactment of the first-inventor-to-file provisions, March 16, 2013.

94
Q

Under the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA), who may file a supplemental examination?

(A) An owner of a partial right, title, and interest in the patent.
(B) The patent owner of the entire right, title, and interest in the patent.(C) A party other than the patent owner.
(D) A corporate entity.
(E) Both (A) and (B).

A

Correct Answer (B): See 37 C.F.R. 1.601(a) – A request for supplemental examination of a patent must be filed by the owner(s) of the entire right, title, and interest in the patent.

95
Q

Jenny owns Patent A that issued on March 16, 2013. Thomas, a competitor, is aware of certain statements made by Jenny in which she took a position on the scope of claim 1 in Patent A. Thomas is aware of statements made by Jenny regarding the scope of claim 1 of Patent A in a proceeding before a Federal court, in a proceeding before the USPTO, in a deposition transcript of Jenny filed by an accused infringer in a Federal court proceeding, and in a statement filed by Jenny in a proceeding before the International Trade Commission (ITC). In accordance with the patent laws and rules, which of the statements can be submitted into the official file of a patent under 37 C.F.R. 1.501?

I. The statement made in a proceeding before a Federal court.
II. The statement made before the USPTO.
III. The statement made in a deposition transcript of Jenny filed by an accused infringer in a Federal court proceeding.
IV. The statement filed in a proceeding before the ITC.

(A) I and II only.
(B) I, II, and III only.
(C) I and III only.
(D) I, II, III, and IV.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (A): See 37 C.F.R. 1.501(a)(2) – At any time during the period of enforceability of a patent, any person may file a written submission with the Office under this section, which is directed to the following information: Statements of the patent owner filed by the patent owner in a proceeding before a Federal court or the Office in which the patent owner took a position on the scope of any claim of the patent. Any statement submitted under this paragraph must be accompanied by any other documents, pleadings, or evidence from the proceeding in which the statement was filed that address the written statement, and such statement and accompanying information under this paragraph must be submitted in redacted form to exclude information subject to an applicable protective order.

96
Q

A patent issues January 1, 2013, and meets the requirements for a covered business method review. Assuming petitioner is not estopped from petitioning for a covered business method patent review, under the patent laws and rules, who may file for a covered business method review?

(A) The patent owner.
(B) An assignee of the entire interest of the patent.
(C) Any third party.
(D) Only a person who has been sued or charged with infringement of the patent.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 43.302(a) - A petitioner may not file with the Office a petition to institute a covered business method patent review of the patent unless the petitioner, the petitioner’s real party-in-interest, or a privy of the petitioner has been sued for infringement of the patent or has been charged with infringement under that patent. Charged with infringement means a real and substantial controversy regarding infringement of a covered business method patent exists such that the petitioner would have standing to bring a declaratory judgment action in Federal court.

97
Q

The effective date for the covered business method review provision of the America Invents Act (AIA) was September 16, 2013. Under the AIA, when will the USPTO stop accepting new petitions for covered business method reviews?

(A) September 16, 2015.
(B) September 16, 2019.
(C) September 16, 2020.
(D) September 16, 2023.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): See 37 C.F.R. 42.300(d) - The rules in this subpart are applicable until September 15, 2020, except that the rules shall continue to apply to any petition for a covered business method patent review filed before the date of repeal.

98
Q

On September 21, 2012, Company A filed a civil action challenging the validity of a claim of a patent owned by Company B. On October 29, 2012, Company A files a petition for inter partes review of the same patent owned by Company B. The petition demonstrates that there is a reasonable likelihood that at least one of the claims challenged in the petition is unpatentable. Under the patent laws and rules, what options does Company B have in response to the petition filed by Company A?

I. File a preliminary response.
II. Challenge the standing of Company B in the preliminary response.
III. Present new testimony evidence beyond that already of record in the preliminary response.

(A) I and II only.
(B) III only.
(C) II and III only.
(D) I, II, and III.
(E) I and III only.

A

Correct Answer (A): See 37 C.F.R. 42.101(a) – A person who is not the owner of a patent may file with the Office a petition to institute an inter partes review of the patent unless: (a) Before the date on which the petition for review is filed, the petitioner or real–party‐in‐interest filed a civil action challenging the validity of a claim of the patent. See also 37 C.F.R. 42.107(c) – The preliminary response shall not present new testimony evidence beyond that already of record, except as authorized by the Board.

99
Q

Company X files a patent application as the applicant for an invention invented by Inventors A and B on January 1, 2013. Each of Inventor A and Inventor B has assigned the invention to Company X. Under the patent laws and rules, how can Company X appoint of power of attorney to prosecute the application?

(A) Company X must comply with 37 C.F.R. 3.71.
(B) Company X must comply with 37 C.F.R. 3.73.
(C) Company X must comply with both 37 C.F.R. 3.71 and 37 C.F.R. 3.73.
(D) Company X does not need to comply with any additional procedures.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 1.32(b)(4) – A power of attorney must: (4) Be signed by the applicant for patent (37 C.F.R. 1.42) or the patent owner. A patent owner who was not the applicant under 37 C.F.R. 1.46 must appoint a power of attorney in compliance with 37 C.F.R. 3.71 and 37 C.F.R. 3.73 of this chapter.

100
Q

Inventor Joe files a patent application on April 15, 2013, including an oath that was executed by Inventor Joe on April 14, 2013. Under the patent laws and rules, which of the following statement(s) must be included in the oath for it to be in compliance with 37 C.F.R. 1.63?

(A) A statement that the person executing the oath believes the named inventor to the be the original inventor of a claimed invention in the application for which the oath is being submitted.

(B) A statement that the application was made or was authorized to be made by the person executing the oath or declaration.

(C) A statement that the person executing the oath has not filed any previous applications for the invention.

(D) A and B.

(E) A, B, and C.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 1.63(a) – An oath or declaration under this section must…(3) Include a statement that the person executing the oath or declaration believes the named inventor or joint inventor to be the original inventor or an original joint inventor of a claimed invention in the application for which the oath or declaration is being submitted; (4) State that the application was made or was authorized to be made by the person executing the oath or declaration, filing date, and any such request will not be granted.

101
Q

Under the patent laws and rules, an application data sheet is required in which of the following instances:

I. A nonprovisional application that claims the benefit of one or more prior‐filed provisional applications.
II. A nonprovisional application that claims the benefit of one or more prior‐filed nonprovisional applications.
III. An international application designating the United States of America that claims the benefit of one or more prior‐filed provisional applications or one or more prior‐filed nonprovisional applications.

(A) I and II only.
(B) III only.
(C) II and III only.
(D) I, II, and III.
(E) I and III only.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 1.78(a)(3) ‐ Any nonprovisional application or international application designating the United States of America that claims the benefit of one or more prior‐filed provisional applications must contain, or be amended to contain, a reference to each such prior‐filed provisional application, identifying it by the provisional application number. If the later‐filed application is a nonprovisional application, the reference required by this paragraph must be included in an application data sheet (§ 1.76(b)(5)). See also 37 C.F.R. 1.78(c)(2) ‐ Except for a continued prosecution application filed under § 1.53(d), any nonprovisional application, or international application designating the United States of America, that claims the benefit of one or more prior‐filed nonprovisional applications or international applications designating the United States of America must contain or be amended to contain a reference to each such prior‐filed application, identifying it by application number or international application number and international filing date. If the later‐filed application is a nonprovisional application, the reference required by this paragraph must be included in an application data sheet (§ 1.76(b)(5)). The reference also must identify the relationship of the applications, namely, whether the later‐filed application is a continuation, divisional, or continuation‐in‐part of the prior‐filed nonprovisional application or international application.

102
Q

Inventor Lumen Rich files a patent application on August 27, 2012, with a declaration executed in her name. On October 31, 2012, Lumen was married and changed her last name to Morgan. In accordance with the patent laws and rules, how does Lumen have the application record reflect her new name?

(A) File an updated application data sheet in accordance with 37 C.F.R. 1.76.

(B) File a request to change the inventor name under 37 C.F.R. 1.48(f), an application data sheet in accordance with 37 C.F.R. 1.76 that identifies her legal name, and pay the processing fee under 37 C.F.R. 1.17(i).

(C) File a request to change the inventor name under 37 C.F.R. 1.48(f).

(D) File a request to change the inventor name under 37 C.F.R. 1.48(f) and pay the processing fee under 37 C.F.R. 1.17(i).

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (B): See 37 C.F.R. 1.48(f) – Any request to correct or update the name of the inventor or a joint inventor, or the order of the names of joint inventors, in a nonprovisional application must include: (1) An application data sheet in accordance with 37 C.F.R. 1.76 that identifies each inventor by his or her legal name in the desired order; and (2) The processing fee set forth in 37 C.F.R. 1.17(i).

103
Q

Inventor Carol files a first nonprovisional application on September 1, 2010, including an oath that contains a statement that she believes that she is the original and first inventor of the subject matter which is claimed and for which a patent is sought and that she has reviewed and understands the contents of the application, including the claims. Subsequently Applicant Carol files a second nonprovisional application on November 1, 2012, that claims the benefit of the first application. Under the patent laws and rules, which of the following statements is true.

(A) Applicant Carol can resubmit the oath filed in the first application in the second application.

(B) Applicant Carol cannot resubmit the oath filed in the first application in the second application.

(C) Applicant Carol must execute a new oath or declaration.

(D) Applicant Carol is not required to submit an oath or declaration.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): To re‐submit an inventor’s declaration from the parent application in the child application, the declaration from the parent application must comply with the requirements if 35 U.S.C. 115, as amended by the America Invents Act. See 37 C.F.R. 1.63 ‐ An oath or declaration under this section must…(3) Include a statement that the person executing the oath or declaration believes the named inventor or joint inventor to be the original inventor or an original joint inventor of a claimed invention in the application for which the oath or declaration is being submitted; (4) State that the application was made or was authorized to be made by the person executing the oath or declaration.

104
Q

Inventor Z has filed an application for a new type of motorcycle design, which includes separate claims for the handle bars, frame, wheels, and shocks. At a later date, Inventor Z attempts to add a claim for a special type of rubber tire to be used on the motorcycle, but the examiner rejects the claim a new matter. According to the current MPEP E8r9, is the examiner correct in his rejection of the rubber tire?

I. If the rubber tire has certain dimensions and has certain properties (such as grip, strength, diameter, etc) then the addition of “rubber tires” would not constitute new matter as these are inherent to the wheel itself, and the application may be amended.

II. If the wheel is rubber and has certain dimensions, etc, then the addition of “rubber tires” would not constitute new matter. However, given that the application has already been submitted, an amendment cannot be made.

III. Since “rubber tire” was not originally specified in the application the examiner is correct in making the rejection based on the grounds that

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) I, III
(E) II, III

A

The Correct Answer is (A). MPEP 2163.07(a). By disclosing in a patent application a device that inherently performs a function or has a property, operates according to a theory or has an advantage, a patent application necessarily discloses that function, theory or advantage, even though it says nothing explicit concerning it. The application may later be amended to recite the function, theory or advantage without introducing prohibited new matter.

105
Q

Company Y files a first patent application on February 7, 2013 March 17, 2013, that issues on March 7,2013. Company Y wants to file a patent for a follow‐up invention to the first.

What is the latest date that Company Y is able to file a second patent application without his first patent application becoming prior art to the second application?

(A). September 16th, 2013
(B). September 17th, 2013
(C). February 7th, 2014
(D). March 7th, 2014
(E). None of the above

A

Correct Answer is D.

106
Q

Company Y can file up to one year after the 1st application is either published or issued as a patent, whichever is first. Inventor Bob filed a patent application on November 1, 2011, which was published on May 7, 2013. Inventor Bob received a first rejection of all pending claims on June 1, 2013, for which Inventor Bob filed a timely and appropriate reply. Subsequently, Inventor Bob received a Notice of Allowance on July 1, 2013. Competitor Mac is in possession of a patent that is relevant to the examination of Inventor Bob’s application and wants to file a third‐party submission under 37 C.F.R. 1.290. Under the patent laws and rules, when can Competitor Mac’s third‐party submission be filed with the Office?

(A) May 31, 2013.
(B) June 7, 2013.
(C) June 30, 2013.
(D) Competitor Mac can file a third‐party submission until November 6, 2013.
(E) (A), (B), and (C).

A

Correct Answer (E): See 37 C.F.R. 1.290(b) – Any third‐party submission under this section must be filed prior to the earlier of: (1) The date a notice of allowance under 37 C.F.R. 1.311 is given or mailed in the application; or (2) The later of: (i) Six months after the date on which the application is first published by the Office under 35 U.S.C. 122(b) and 37 C.F.R. 1.211, or (ii) The date the first rejection under 37 C.F.R. 1.104 of any claim by the examiner is given or mailed during examination of the application.

107
Q

Inventor Z filed a patent application on March 22, 2013, however, the examiner cited a Foreign patent application filed March 16, 2013 that was never filed as a U.S. patent application. Is the Foreign patent application prior art to his application?

(A). Yes, it is considered prior art.
(B). No, it is not considered prior art because it was filed < 1 year from Inventor Z ‘s filing
(C). No, it is not considered prior art because it was not translated into English
(D). No, it is not considered prior art because it was filed without referring to a US patent application.
(E). No. ‘First to file’ only applies to applications that are filed in the U.S, even if the application started out life in another country.

A

Correct Answer (E). MPEP 2135, 35 U.S.C. 102(d). ‘First to file’ only applies to applications that are filed in the U.S.

108
Q

What is the effective date of the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions?

(A). March 15th, 2013
(B). March 15th, 2012
(C). March 16th, 2012
(D). March 15th, 2013
(E). March 16th, 2013

A

Correct Answer (E).

109
Q

Patent owner Lucas received a notice dated June 17, 2013, that a request to institute a post‐grant review has been granted a filing date. Lucas would like to file a preliminary response to the petition setting forth the reasons why no post‐grant review should be instituted under 35 U.C.S. 324. Under the patent laws and rules, within what time period must Lucas file the preliminary response in order for it to be considered timely?

(A) No later than one month after the date of the notice indicating that the request to institute the post‐grant review has been granted a filing date.

(B) No later than two months after the date of the notice indicating that the request to institute the post‐grant review has been granted a filing date.

(C) No later than three months after the date of the notice indicating that the request to institute the post‐grant review has been granted a filing date.

(D) No later than six months after the date of the notice indicating that the request to institute the post‐ grant review has been granted a filing date.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): See 37 C.F.R. 42.207(b) which states: The preliminary response must be filed no later than three months after the date of a notice indicating that the request to institute a post‐grant review has been granted a filing date. A patent owner may expedite the proceeding by filing an election to waive the patent owner preliminary response.

110
Q

Under the patent laws and rules, who determines whether the standard for instituting a post‐grant review has been met?

(A) The examiner who prosecuted the case.
(B) The Board of Patent Appeals and Interferences.
(C) The Patent Trial and Appeal Board.
(D) The Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit.
(E) All of the above.

A

Correct Answer (C): See Federal Register / Vol. 77, No. 157, page 48686 which states in part: 35 U.S.C. 326(c) provides that the Patent Trial and Appeal Board will, in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 6, conduct each post‐grant review instituted under chamber 32 of title 35, United States Code.

111
Q

Company A would like to file for an inter partes review for a patent issued to Company B on July 11, 2013, for an application filed on March 31, 2013. Company A has not previously filed a civil action challenging the validity of a claim of the patent. Under the patent laws and rules, on what date can Company A file for an inter partes review of Company B’s patent?

(A) August 12, 2013.
(B) October 12, 2013.
(C) January 12, 2014.
(D) April 12, 2014.
(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 42.102(a). A petition for inter partes review of a patent must be filed after the later of the following dates, where applicable: (1) If the patent is a patent that was examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions, the date that is nine months after the date of the grant of the patent; (2) If the patent is a patent that was not examined under the first‐inventor‐to‐file provisions, the date of the grant of the patent; or (3) If a post‐grant review has been instituted, the date of the termination of such post‐grant review.

112
Q

Under the patent laws and rules, what is the standard for instituting an inter partes review?

(A) The petitioner must demonstrate that there is a reasonable likelihood that at least one of the claims challenged in the petition is unpatentable.

(B) The petitioner must demonstrate that there is a substantial new question of patentability.

(C) Both (A) and (C).

(D) The mere filing of a petition initiates an inter partes review. No standard for instituting aninter partes review is applicable.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (A): See 37 C.F.R. 42.108(c), which states – Inter partes review shall not be instituted for a ground of unpatentability unless the Board decides that the petition supporting the ground would demonstrate that there is a reasonable likelihood that at least one of the claims challenged in the petition is unpatentable. The Board’s decision will take into account a patent owner preliminary response where such a response is filed.

113
Q

A petitioner files a request for inter partes reexamination on September 14, 2011, and a determination on the request was issued after September 16, 2011. Under the patent laws and rules, which standard will be applied in determining whether to grant the inter partes reexamination?

(A) The petitioner must demonstrate that there is a reasonable likelihood that at least one of the claims challenged in the petition is unpatentable.

(B) The petitioner must demonstrate that there is a substantial new question of patentability.

(C) Both (A) and (C).

(D) The mere filing of a petition initiates an inter partes reexamination. No standard for instituting an inter partes reexamination is applicable.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (B): See Federal Register / Vol. 76, No. 185, pages 59055 and 59056, which state: Prior to the enactment of the Leahy‐Smith America Invents Act, 35 U.S.C. 312(a) provided, as to the standard for granting an inter partes reexamination request, that “the Director shall determine whether a substantial new question of patentability affecting any claim of the patent concerned is raised by the request, with or without consideration of other patents or printed publications.” Inter partes reexamination requests filed prior to September 16, 2011: With respect to any inter partes reexamination proceeding for which a request has been filed prior to September 16, 2011, the SNQ standard is applicable in determining whether the request for inter partes reexamination will be granted. If reexamination is ordered based on the SNQ standard, then the SNQ standard will apply throughout the reexamination proceeding, even after September 16, 2011, or September 16, 2012.

114
Q

In accordance with the patent laws and rules, on what grounds can a petitioner challenge a patent in an inter partes review?

I. Novelty – 35 U.S.C. 102.
II. Obviousness – 35 U.S.C. 103.
III. The requirements under 35 U.S.C. 112, except best mode requirement.

(A) I and II only.
(B) III only.
(C) II and III only.
(D) I, II, and III.
(E) I and III only.

A

Correct Answer (A): The provisions of the Leahy‐Smith America Invents Act (AIA) indicate that a petitioner in an inter partes review may request to cancel as unpatentable one or more claims of a patent only on a ground that could be raised under section 102 or 103 and only on the basis of prior art consisting of patents or printed publications. See 35 U.S.C. 311(b).

115
Q

A petitioner files a request for inter partes reexamination on September 18, 2012, and demonstrated in the request that there is a reasonable likelihood that at least one of the claims challenged in the petition is unpatentable. Under the patent laws and rules, what action is appropriate in response to the petition?

(A) The Office should grant the request for inter partes reexamination and the substantial new question standard will apply to throughout the reexamination proceeding.

(B) The Office should grant the request for inter partes reexamination and the reasonable likelihood standard will apply to throughout the reexamination proceeding.

(C) The request should be forwarded to the Patent Trial and Appeal Board.

(D) The Office cannot grant, or even accord a filing date to, the request.

(E) None of the above.

A

Correct Answer (D): See 37 C.F.R. 1.913(b) – Any request for an inter partes reexamination submitted on or after September 16, 2012, will not be accorded a filing date, and any such request will not be granted.

116
Q

Inventor A submitted a PCT application in June, 2012, but was notified that the application did not meet the requirements for the national stage in August. Due to illness, over 30 months have since passed since the notification was sent. Under the current MPEP what are the possible options available to Inventor A?

I. Inventor A can petition to revive under 37 CFR 1.113
II. None, Inventor A should simply withdraw his application since the time period has lapsed
III. Inventor A can file a notice of appeal requesting an extension of time.
IV. Inventor A can petition to revive the application using Form PTO/SB/61PCT

(A) I
(B) IV
(C) I, IV
(D) II, III
(E) II, IV

A

Correct Answer is (B): See MPEP 1893.02, MPEP 711. If the requirements for the submission of the basic national fee and a copy of the international application (if necessary) prior to the expiration of 30 months from the priority date are not satisfied, then the international application becomes abandoned as to the United States at thirty months from the priority date. See 37 CFR 1.495(h). If the requirements under 37 CFR 1.495 (b) are timely met, but the requirements under 37 CFR 1.495 (c) for an English translation of the international application, oath/declaration, search fee, examination fee and application size fee are not met within a time period set in a notice provided by the Office, then the application will become abandoned upon expiration of the time period set in the notice. See 37 CFR 1.495(c)(2) and 1.495(h) . Examiners and applicants should be aware that sometimes papers filed for the national stage are deficient and abandonment results. For example, if the fee submitted does not include at least the amount of the basic national fee that is due, the application becomes abandoned. Applicant may file a petition to revive an abandoned application in accordance with the provisions of 37 CFR 1.137. See MPEP § 711.03(c). For applicant’s convenience, applicant may use either Form PTO/SB/61PCT (unavoidably abandoned application) or Form PTO/SB/64PCT (unintentionally abandoned application), as appropriate, for this purpose.

117
Q

Company A created a new type of battery for an electronic car, as well as a novel method of producing said battery. However, the examiner found several issues with the application, and after filing numerous Requests for Continued Examination, the proceedings are at a standstill. Company A now files a Notice of Appeal with the Patent Office, which arrives at the office on May 20, 2012. The appeal brief is prepared and filed by their attorney on July 19, 2012. However, in the brief, the attorney failed to mention that Company A is the real party in interest, and there is no assignee of record in the application. Under MPEP, what will be the result?

I. The appeal will be dismissed because they filed a non‐compliant appeal brief

II. The Board of Appeal will notify Company A of the defective brief and they will be given 1 month to correct the mistakes

III. The Board will assume that Company A, as the named inventor, is the real party in interest and the case will proceed

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) I, III
(E) II, III

A

Correct Answer is C. See MPEP 1204. 37 CFR 41.37(c)(1)(i) “A statement identifying by name the real party in interest at the time the appeal brief is filed, except that such statement is not required if the named inventor or inventors are themselves the real party in interest. If an appeal brief does not contain a statement of the real party in interest, the Office may assume that the named inventor or inventors are the real party in interest.”

118
Q

Scientist files a patent application on April 3, 2013. The examiner cites a technical document that was published on April 2nd, 2013. The technical document describes work that Scientist performed in September 2012.

What is the outcome according to MPEP E8r9?

(A) Technical documents are not considered publication prior art

(B) The document is considered prior art, but Scientist will be able to overcome it if he can show that the document came from his own work.

(C) The document is not considered prior art as it was published

(D) The document is considered prior art and will bar Scientist from obtaining a patent.

(E) None of the above are correct

A

Correct Answer is (B). MPEP 2132. Under the patent laws and rules, who may file a third‐party submission under 37 C.F.R. 1.290? (A) The applicant. (B) The applicant’s representative. (C) Private member of the public who does not have a duty to disclose information with respect to the application under 37 C.F.R. 1.56. (D) A corporate entity. (E) Both (C) and (D). Correct answer (E): See Federal Register / Vol. 77, No. 137, page 42154, which states in part: Any member of the public, including private persons, corporate entities, and government agencies, may file a third‐party submission under 37 C.F.R. 1.290.

119
Q

According to the new section 35 U.S.C. 102(a)(1) introduced by the AIA, what is the “effective filing date” of a claimed invention?

(A) It is the later of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(B) It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims foreign benefit or foreign priority of another application that does not describe the subject matter.

(C) It is the later of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the provisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(D) It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the provisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

(E) It is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter.

A

Correct Answer is (E): The “effective filing date” of a claimed invention is the earlier of: (i) the actual filing date of a nonprovisional application; or (ii) the date to which the nonprovisional application claims domestic benefit or foreign priority of another application that describes the subject matter