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Sandra phase 1 > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Wilson’s disease is a type of genetic disorder affecting the active transport in the body. What is the Na+/K+ -ATPase an example of?

A

Primary active transport

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2
Q

What does a diamond represent on a genetic pedigree chart?

A

Undetermined gender

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3
Q

Proteins often have multiple levels of folding. An alpha helix is an example of what kind of protein structure?

A

Secondary

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4
Q

“A reproductive union between 2 relatives”. For which of the following is this definition for?

A

Consanguinity

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5
Q

What kind of inheritance pattern pattern is this?

A

X-linked recessive

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6
Q

Some types of chemotherapy inhibit the enzyme topoisomerase. What is the function of topoisomerase?

A

Unwinds the DNA double by relieving the supercoil

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7
Q

The amount of glucose within a cell has to be closely regulated and controlled. What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

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8
Q

Enolase converts which substrate into phosphoenolpyruvate in glycolysis?

A

3-phosphoglycerate

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9
Q

Where does the Krebs’ cycle take place?

A

In the matrix of the mitochondrium

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10
Q

Which enzyme is involved in the production of FADH2 in the Krebs’ cycle?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

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11
Q

Some cells have very distinctive features that can easily be identified in a histological slide; a perinuclear hof is an example of this. In which cell type are you most likely to find a perinuclear huff?

A

Plasma cell

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12
Q

Many blood-borne cells have to be regulated to ensure there are adequate amounts present in the blood. What is the regulatory hormone for platelets?

A

Thrombopoietin

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13
Q

Which of the following cell types has a reniform nucleus?

A

Monocyte

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14
Q

Nuclei of white blood cells

A

Monocytes typically have a reniform (kidney bean-shaped) nucleus
•Neutrophils have multi-lobed nuclei
•Eosinophils have a bi-lobed & lozenge-shaped nucleus
•Basophils have bi-lobed nuclei

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15
Q

A woman is brought to A&E by an ambulance following a myocardial infarction. After a series of tests, it is found that her atrioventricular node has suffered an infarction. Which artery is the main supply to the atrioventricular node (AVN)?

A

Posterior interventricular artery

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16
Q

In a foetus, various arteries in the arise as branches of the aortic arches. The maxillary artery arises from which of the aortic arches?

A

Arch 1

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a vasodilator?

A

Angiotensin II

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18
Q

The following diagram depicts the myocardial action potential. What happens at Phase 2?

A

Ca2+ enters the cell

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19
Q

What does the T wave represent on an ECG?

A

Ventricular repolarisation

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20
Q

What is contained within the dense granules of platelets?

A

ADP and thromboxane A2

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21
Q

What does the bulbus cordis develop into?

A

Right ventricle

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22
Q

Respiratory epithelium is found in many parts of the respiratory tract but is not found in which of the following?

A

Bronchioles

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23
Q

What is the function of the periciliary fluid?

A

It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia

24
Q

A patient develops a lung carcinoma at the carina. At which level of the thoracic vertebrae does the trachea bifurcate?

A

T4

25
Q

What is the definition of functional plasticity?

A

The ability of cells to alter their function in order to accommodate for the current needs of a tissue

26
Q

There are many tests that are very useful to help diagnose respiratory diseases. What is the purpose of exhaled nitric oxide test?

A

Indirect measuring of airway inflammation

27
Q

Where can you find central chemoreceptors?

A

In the brainstem

28
Q

What percentage of the surface area of an alveoli does a type 1 pneumocyte usually make up?

A

90%

29
Q

The diaphragm receives motor innervation from which nerve?

A

Phrenic nerve

30
Q

Which of the following cartilages are attached to the vocal cords?

A

Arytenoid

31
Q

At which thoracic vertebral level does the hiatus for the inferior vena cava lie?

A

T8

32
Q

Which of the following is an example of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue?

A

Peyer’s patches

Other examples are the vermiform appendix (the appendix colloquially)& Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring

33
Q

There are many components to saliva that all have important functions. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva?

A

Ca2+ ions

34
Q

The following are all salivary glands. Which has a purely serous secretion?

A

Parotid glands

The parotid gland has a purely serous secretion, the only other salivary gland to have this is Von Ebner’s gland (a minor salivary gland)

•All the others have either a mucous or mixed salivary secretion.

35
Q

Which of these factors increase the strength of gastric peristaltic contractions?

A

Gastrin

36
Q

Which type of cell is the equivalent of a pace-maker cell in the intestines?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

37
Q

What BMI range is considered to be overweight?

A

25>29.9

38
Q

Fluid is absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract by the small intestine. What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine?

A

80%

39
Q

There are many types of research study but some are considered more reliable than others. What type of research study is considered to be the “golden standard”?

A

Randomised control trial

40
Q

Which is the main hormone stimulating bile secretion?

A

Cholecystokinin

41
Q

Question 1 32 year old man presents to A&E after a seizure following drinking 3 gallons of water in a competition. He was diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). This meant that she was unable to excrete the excess water from her body leading to him having hyponatraemia.1.1 Hyponatraemia is a lack of which ion?

A

Na+ ions

42
Q

SIADH has a genetic component to it. What is a method of genetic testing in pregnancy?

A

Chorionic villus sampling OR amniocentesis

43
Q

Define penetrance in genetics

A

Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype

44
Q

Haematopoiesis occurs in a different place in the foetus compared to an adult. Where does haematopoiesis occur in an adult and where does it occur in a foetus?

A 
Adult = axial bone marrow
•Foetus = one of: yolk sac OR liver OR spleen
45
Q

Another difference between a foetus and an adult is the structure of haemoglobin molecules. State the structural differences of foetal haemoglobin compared to adult haemoglobin.

A 
Foetal = 2 alpha & 2 gamma chains
•Adult = 2 alpha & 2 beta
46
Q

Another woman who gave birth at the Royal Hallamshire Hospital suffers severe blood loss as a result of postpartum haemorrhage. 2.4 Why does the haematocrit not change following a major trauma in which a lot of blood is lost?

A

Haematocrit is the ratio of red blood cells to blood volume, this does not change because the ratio is unaffected by blood loss because you’re losing the same ratio of RBCs to blood volume

47
Q

Question 3 An elderly gentleman presents to a GP with breathing difficulties. After taking a brief history, the GP finds that he has smoked 20 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years, and worked in a coal mine. Subsequently, the GP refers him for a respiratory review and has respiratory tests done. The consultant analyses said results, and diagnoses him with COPD.3.1 Two of the measurements taken were FEV1 and FVC. Both are often impaired in COPD. Define FEV1 & FVC.

A
  • FEV1 = forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration
  • FVC = forced vital capacity. It is the measurement of lung size (in litres) and represents the volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled (omitting the residual volume)
48
Q

Total lung capacity was also measured. Name a method that can be used to measure total lung capacity.

A

Gas dilution OR total body plethysmography (body box)

49
Q

The gentleman’s FVC is below 80% of the predicted value for someone his age. What is this a sign of?

A

FVC <80% of predicted = airway restriction

50
Q

What type of prevention is smoking cessation with regards to lung cancer?

A

Primary prevention

51
Q

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum. Name another vitamin that is absorbed in the ileum.

A

one of:
•vitamin A, vitamin D, vitamin E, vitamin K (1 mark)
•They are all fat-soluble vitamins & once bound to intrinsic factor, vitamin B-12 is absorbed like a fat-soluble vitamin

52
Q

A study is looking at the correlation between smoking and general absence from work amongst the employees of a major German corporate firm. In the study, individuals were asked to fill out a questionnaire about their smoking habits. Data regarding their absences in the last 24 months has been obtained from their employer. The following data has been obtained: 5.1 What type of study design has been used here?

A

A retrospective cohort study

52
Q

A study is looking at the correlation between smoking and general absence from work amongst the employees of a major German corporate firm. In the study, individuals were asked to fill out a questionnaire about their smoking habits. Data regarding their absences in the last 24 months has been obtained from their employer. The following data has been obtained: 5.1 What type of study design has been used here?

A

A retrospective cohort study

53
Q

Lung cancer is associated with smoking and as such in many developed countries smokers are invited to a screening programme. Sensitivity and specificity are important factors to be considered in a screening programme. 5.4 Define sensitivity and specificity, with regards to screening programmes.

A 
Sensitivity = probability of a person with the disease testing positive OR true positive/ total number of people screened
•Specificity = probability of a person without the disease testing negative OR true negative/ total number of people screened
54
Q

There are many different types of bias. If multiple assessors report differing values for the same variable, what type of bias has occurred?

A

Observer bias

55
Q

You order a blood test for a patient, whom you suspect may have a parasitic infection. Which type of blood cell is typically elevated in parasitic infections?

A

Answer = D, Eosinophil
A. Neutrophils are typically elevated in bacterial infections & acute inflammation
B. T helper cells are used to activate the adaptive immune system and help plasma cells develop antibodies
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory reactions, especially to allergic reaction eg. anaphylaxis
D. Eosinophils are commonly regarded as being raised in a parasitic infection
E. Cytotoxic (CD8) T-lymphocytes are typically elevated in acute & chronic infections

Sandra phase 1 (16 decks)

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