Questions Flashcards
(102 cards)
1
Q
- Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management?
a) Improving an existing work process
b) Installing a new computer system
c) Conducting a routine, standard customer service operation
d) Developing a new product
A
c) Conducting a routine, standard customer service operation
2
Q
- Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management?
a) Improving a soldering process in an assembly line
b) Processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank
c) Installing a new accounting application on a server
d) Developing a new medical device for use by clinics
A
b) Processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank
3
Q
- Projects often require trade-offs among all the following EXCEPT:
a) Scope
b) Cost
c) Schedule
d) Programs
A
d) Programs
4
Q
- Once projects are completed, they will typically yield all the following results EXCEPT:
a) A unique product or service
b) Make-or-buy decisions
c) Stakeholders whose interests are affected by the outcome
d) A primary deliverable along with supporting deliverables
A
b) Make-or-buy decisions
5
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding project life cycles is most accurate?
a) All research and development projects use the same four-stage project life cycle model.
b) The project life cycle is the same for the diverse types of projects managed by an organization.
c) Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects.
d) Project life cycles are very similar regardless of the industry.
A
c) Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects.
6
Q
- Projects are considered successful for all the reasons below EXCEPT:
a) Members of the team learn new skills and/or refine existing skills.
b) Organizational learning takes place and is captured for future projects.
c) The team has used heroics to meet project objectives.
d) The performing organization reaps business-level benefits.
A
c) The team has used heroics to meet project objectives.
7
Q
- Which of the following actions will likely cause a project to fail?
a) Dedicating valuable team member time to identify risk events
b) Spending project funds to procure needed tools and spare parts
c) Unclear or unrealistic stakeholder expectations
d) Conducting a project audit to evaluate performance
A
c) Unclear or unrealistic stakeholder expectations
8
Q
- Typically, a steering team or leadership team is responsible for all the following project-related roles EXCEPT:
a) Establishing how cooperation, competition, conflict, and decision-making are handled
b) Eliminating politics in the workplace
c) Selecting, prioritizing, and resourcing projects
d) Ensuring accurate progress is reported and adjustments are made
A
b) Eliminating politics in the workplace
9
Q
- According to PMI’s “Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct,” project managers should exhibit all the following behaviors EXCEPT:
a) Authority - exert economic and political power
b) Fairness - make decisions and act impartially
c) Honesty - understand the truth and act in a truthful manner
d) Responsibility - take ownership for decisions
A
a) Authority - exert economic and political power
10
Q
- During project execution, the project sponsor’s responsibilities include all of these EXCEPT:
a) Ensure communications
b) Charter the project
c) Nurture key stakeholders
d) Ensure quality
A
b) Charter the project
11
Q
- Which sequence of stages is most appropriate for a research and development (R&D) project life cycle model?
a) Define - measure - analyze - improve - control
b) Project envisioning - requirements gathering - incremental implementation - production release
c) Pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start-up
d) Idea generation - idea screening - concept development - validation - transition
A
d) Idea generation - idea screening - concept development - validation - transition
12
Q
- Which of the following statements accurately describes a communications management plan?
a) A formal document that describes how the project will be initiated and planned
b) A living document that considers stakeholders’ information needs and guides project communications
c) A formal document that defines how the project will be terminated and closed
d) A report that lists the team’s communication preferences
A
b) A living document that considers stakeholders’ information needs and guides project communications
13
Q
- Which of these would NOT typically be found in a Quality Management Plan?
a) Team selection criteria
b) Quality roles and responsibilities
c) Plan for reporting quality control and assurance issues
d) Key deliverables and processes to review for quality
A
a) Team selection criteria
14
Q
- Which quality management thought leader emphasized team learning for improving quality?
a) Ishikawa
b) Senge
c) Taguchi
d) Harrington
A
b) Senge
15
Q
- Stakeholders include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Those who work on the project
b) Those who provide resources for the project
c) Those whose routines may be disrupted by the project
d) Those who will not be impacted by the project
A
d) Those who will not be impacted by the project
16
Q
- A typical change request form will include which of the following content items?
a) A description of the change along with the impact expected from the potential change
b) A summary of previous changes to the project
c) An issue log
d) A change control process flow diagram
A
a) A description of the change along with the impact expected from the potential change
17
Q
- Which of the following statements correctly describes project management?
a) Project management uses knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet stakeholder needs and expectations
b) Project management should not involve trade-offs between scope, schedule, and cost
c) Project management only relies upon checklists to plan and execute the work
d) Project management’s goal is to maintain efficiency of ongoing operations
A
a) Project management uses knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet stakeholder needs and expectations
18
Q
- All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:
a) Leadership
b) Strategic planning
c) Team learning
d) Customer focus
A
c) Team learning
19
Q
- During iteration planning in an agile project, agreement is reached regarding:
a) The length of the next sprint
b) Detailed stakeholder requirements
c) The definition of done
d) Positive and negative risks
A
c) The definition of done
20
Q
- In agile projects, the individual who leads in a collaborative manner by guiding teams and removing obstacles to their progress is called the:
a) Project manager
b) Sponsor
c) Scrum master
d) Facilitator
A
c) Scrum master
21
Q
- On agile projects, the scope definition begins with:
a) Requirements
b) Work packages
c) Stories and personas
d) Large chunks of work, or features
A
d) Large chunks of work, or features
22
Q
- A project manager in agile projects who serves and leads in a collaborative, facilitating manner is called a:
a) Program Manager
b) Scrum Master
c) Sponsor
d) Functional Manager
A
b) Scrum Master
23
Q
- On agile projects, the scope definition begins with:
a) Requirements
b) Work Packages
c) Stories and Personas
d) Large chunks of work, or features
A
c) Stories and Personas
24
Q
- All of the following are characteristics of a projectized organization EXCEPT:
a) Decision-making is streamlined.
b) Coordination is the responsibility of project managers.
c) Functional managers have most of the authority.
A
c) Functional managers have most of the authority.
25
25. The project life cycle where project teams plan in short bursts (generally of one to four weeks), often called sprints or iterations, is referred to as:
a) Construction project life cycle
b) Predictive, plan-driven project life cycle
c) Adaptive, change-driven project life cycle
d) Process improvement life cycle
c) Adaptive, change-driven project life cycle
26
26. Which organizational structures can be classified as weak, balanced, or strong depending on the relative level of influence between the functional manager and the project manager?
a) Silo
b) Matrix
c) Composite
d) Projectized
b) Matrix
27
27. Project failure can result from all the following causes EXCEPT:
a) Adequate support from executive management.
b) Inadequate planning.
c) Unrealistic time demands.
d) Incomplete or unclear requirements.
a) Adequate support from executive management.
28
28. A key concept in Agile projects is that something of value will be delivered at each iteration.
a) True
b) False
a) True
29
29. Work Breakdown Structures can be displayed in a variety of formats, including which of the following?
a) A sequential process diagram
b) An inverted pyramid
c) An indented outline format
d) Fishbone or cause-and-effect diagram
c) An indented outline format
30
30. All of the following factors have influenced the increased reliance on project management in recent years EXCEPT:
a) Rapid growth and changes in IT and telecommunications industries.
b) Realization that methods for large projects can be adapted for small projects.
c) Increased competition in the global economy and its influence on market demand.
d) The steady demands of ongoing operational work.
d) The steady demands of ongoing operational work.
31
31. It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.
a) True
b) False
a) True
32
32. Some organizational culture characteristics make project success more likely. These characteristics include all the following EXCEPT:
a) to meet organizational goals.
b) Lack of appreciation for project management.
c) Engagement of stakeholders.
b) Lack of appreciation for project management.
33
33. The stakeholder register information can be used to evaluate stakeholder interests by performing a ______ analysis to identify common areas of interest.
a) MBWA (management-by-wandering-around)
b) ITSFWI (if-the-shoe-fits-wear-it)
c) WIIFT (what's-in-it-for-them)
d) PDCA (plan-do-check-act)
c) WIIFT (what's-in-it-for-them)
34
34. Group phenomena that evolve over time and include established approaches to initiating and planning projects, the acceptable means for getting the work done, and recognized decision-making authorities are referred to as:
a) Organization structures
b) Roles and responsibilities
c) Project culture (norms)
d) Vision and mission
c) Project culture (norms)
35
35. Customer responsibilities on a project might include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Perform the work of the project to achieve its objectives
b) Advise on project requirements
c) Review and accept project deliverables
d) Participate in status or kick-off meetings
a) Perform the work of the project to achieve its objectives
36
36. Any of the following attributes can serve as a useful factor for coding lessons learned EXCEPT:
a) Stage in project life cycle
b) Type of project
c) Issue it concerns
d) Lessons learned owner
d) Lessons learned owner
37
37. Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting?
a) The project manager evaluates team member performance
b) The project team collects lessons learned for use on future projects
c) The project manager outlines the project goals
d) The project sponsor brings in a facilitator to conduct a brainstorming exercise
c) The project manager outlines the project goals
38
38. By identifying stakeholders and their needs, project managers can be more effective in all the following ways EXCEPT:
a) Prioritize among competing objectives
b) Derive the final budget
c) Serve as good stewards of the organization's resources
d) Develop a shared sense of risk
b) Derive the final budget
39
39. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for construction projects?
a) Define - measure - analyze - improve - control
b) Concept definition - demonstration - development - production
c) Pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start-up
d) Concept - requirements - design - code - test - turnover
c) Pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start-up
40
40. Projectized organizations often adopt which of the following techniques where project team members are physically placed close to one another to improve communications and working relationships?
a) Collaboration
b) Co-location
c) Coordination
d) Consolidation
b) Co-location
41
41. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects in a projectized organization?
a) Response times and decision-making are slow
b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time
c) Team members have difficulty focusing on project issues
d) Traditional department barriers are reduced
b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time
42
42. Subject matter experts often perform specific project activities when necessary. Which of the following statements regarding subject matter experts is accurate?
a) The number of subject matter experts is generally limited to fewer than the number of core team members
b) Subject matter experts are typically assigned to the project from start to finish
c) Subject matter experts are not core team members and are therefore less important
d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and specific project activities when necessary
) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and specific project activities when necessary
43
43. Responsibilities of the Chief Projects Officer (CPO) for everyone serving on a project team include all the following EXCEPT:
a) that they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created.
b) that they capture lessons learned from completed projects.
c) that they use templates and standards when appropriate.
d) that they receive the training they need.
a) that they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created.
44
44. Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization's quality policy?
a) quality benchmarking plan
b) quality control plan
c) quality management plan
d) quality audit plan
c) quality management plan
45
45. Through shared values, organizational cultures can informally do all the following EXCEPT:
a) motivate the ethical actions and communications of managers and subordinates.
b) determine how people are treated, controlled, and rewarded.
c) establish how cooperation, competition, conflict, and decision making are handled.
d) eliminate politics in the workplace.
d) eliminate politics in the workplace.
46
46.This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term and plans the future work at a higher level.
a) Rolling wave planning.
b) Decomposition.
c) Traceability
d) Agile
a) Rolling wave planning.
47
47. Work Breakdown Structures typically include one or more intermediate levels. Which of the following statements correctly describe the nature of these intermediate levels?
a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.
b) They generally represent the raw materials required to create the final deliverables.
c) They generally represent the resource assignments to create the final deliverables.
d) They generally represent the sequence and timing of work packages
a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.
48
48) In agile projects, overall planning is at a high level, and only the near-term work is planned in
detail. The project work is conducted in iterations (sprints) that are normally:
a) no more than one calendar year
b) a variable length depending on project scope
c) a fixed length of two or four weeks
d) assigned to one person on the team
c) a fixed length of two or four weeks
49
49. This Agile project reporting tool is useful to Scrum Masters as it projects how close to plan the team is within a given time box, by providing a graphical representation of work effort remaining in an iteration versus the days left in an iteration.
a) Control chart
b) Burndown chart
c) Run chart
d) Progress report
b) Burndown chart
50
50) A principal idea in agile is that the length of daily stand-up meetings should be:
a) 10 minutes or less
b) 15 minutes or less
c) 30 minutes or less
d) 45 minutes or less
b) 15 minutes or less
51
51. Which of the following roles is typically associated with the project manager?
a) Assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.
b) An ongoing manager of the organization with responsibility for a department or division.
c) Supports projects by mentoring, training, and assisting teams and facilitating sharing of resources and methodologies.
d) A senior manager serving in a formal role, given authority and responsibility for the successful completion of a project.
a) Assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.
52
52. Typically, the senior customer representative is responsible for which of the following project roles?
a) Develops the project schedule and budget.
b) Determines how the project work will be accomplished.
c) Ensures requirements are clear and communications are maintained throughout the project.
d) Helps the project manager with running meetings and providing status reports.
c) Ensures requirements are clear and communications are maintained throughout the project.
53
53. All the following are advantages associated with managing projects in a projectized organization EXCEPT:
a) One boss - the project manager.
b) Response times and decision-making are swift.
c) Departmental barriers are reduced.
d) Workers know they will still have a job when they finish work on a project.
d) Workers know they will still have a job when they finish work on a project.
54
54. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for research and development (R&D) projects?
a) Define - measure - analyze - improve - control
b) Project envisioning - requirements gathering - incremental implementation - production release
c) Pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start-up
d) Idea generation - idea screening - concept development - validation - transition
d) Idea generation - idea screening - concept development - validation - transition
55
55. Which of the following organizational structures runs contrary to the unity of command principle — that each employee works for a single supervisor?
a) Functional organization
b) Projectized organization
c) Matrix organization
d) Siloed organization
c) Matrix organization
56
56. Which of the following roles and attributes do NOT describe the core team members on a project?
a) Core team members often make project decisions jointly with the project manager.
b) Core team members are the small group of people who are usually on the project from start to finish.
c) Core team members join the project on a temporary basis to perform specific project activities as necessary.
d) Core team members may supervise the work of subject matter experts who are brought in on an as-needed basis.
c) Core team members join the project on a temporary basis to perform specific project activities as necessary.
57
57. A hierarchical organization where each employee has one clear superior and staff are grouped by areas of specialization and managed by a person with expertise in that area is known as:
a) Composite organization
b) Functional organization
c) Projectized organization
b) Functional organization
58
58. When trying to understand a corporate culture, it is helpful to understand the types of power that are used. In "power cultures":
a) workers closely follow their appointed roles.
b) supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power.
c) more deference is paid to knowledge than to formal authority.
d) display an attitude that collaboration is satisfying and stimulating.
b) supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power
59
59. Which of the following is an advantage associated the matrix organization?
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
b) Unity of command-one "boss" for each employee.
c) Shorter response times and quicker decisions.
d) Hard to monitor and control.
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
60
60. Subject matter experts often perform specific project activities when necessary. Which of the following statements regarding subject matter experts is accurate?
a) The number of subject matter experts is generally limited to fewer than the number of
core team members.
b) The subject matter experts are typically assigned to the project from start to finish.
c) The subject matter is not a core team member and is therefore less important than other
team members.
d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary.
d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary.
61
61. Workers know they will still have a job when they finish work on a project. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
b) Unity of command - one "boss" for each employee.
c) shorter response times and quicker decisions.
d) Hard to monitor and control.
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
62
62. Which of the following executive roles is responsible for overall priority setting, project selection and prioritization, general guidance and encouragement?
a) Steering Team
b) Sponsor
c) Project Management Office
d) Chief Projects Officer
a) Steering Team
63
63. Which of the following are among the challenges faced by project managers?
a) They frequently have more authority than responsibility.
b) They must effectively deal with networks of people both within and outside the parent company.
c) They must learn how to accomplish project work unilaterally on their own
d) They are not allowed to be flexible about how the project should be accomplished
b) They must effectively deal with networks of people both within and outside the parent company.
64
64. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
b) Unity of command - one "boss" for each employee.
c) shorter response times and quicker decisions.
d) Hard to monitor and control.
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
65
65. Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?
a) Hierarchical or "org chart"
b) Indented outline
c) Requirements Traceability Matrix
d) Free format
c) Requirements Traceability Matrix
66
66. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of the following items is NOT part of Juran's Quality Trilogy?
a) identify all customers and their needs, develop requirements, and develop methods to satisfy those requirements.
b) work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
c) determine what to control, establish measurement systems, establish standards and
compare performance to standards.
d) select and support improvement projects, select and implement solutions, and maintain control of improved processes.
b) work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
67
67. Which of the following items best describes a project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a) an organizational chart depicting who will perform project work
b) a schedule depicting when project work will be performed
c) a tool that the team uses to progressively divide deliverables into smaller and smaller pieces
d) a list of activities to complete the project work packages
c) a tool that the team uses to progressively divide deliverables into smaller and smaller pieces
68
68. The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called
a) rolling wave planning
b) decomposition
c) collect requirements
d) requirements traceability
b) decomposition
69
69. Which of the information below would NOT typically be included in the WBS dictionary for a specific work package?
a) description of the work
b) communication requirements
c) activities
d) expected duration
b) communication requirements
70
70. A ______________is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).
a) scope statement
b) change request
c) project charter
d) request for proposal (RFP)
b) change request
71
71. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance?
a) identify all team members and their needs
b) establish measurement systems
c) prove effects
d) expend necessary efforts to exceed requirements
b) establish measurement systems
72
72. During which DMAIC phase would you find the objectives of: identify possible root causes, collect data, and confirm root causes through data analysis?
a) Define
b) Measure
c) Analyze
d) Improve
c) Analyze
73
73. The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT:
a) identify all stakeholders
b) understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements
c) design work systems
d) make trade-off decisions
c) design work systems
74
74. Normal or random variations that are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are ___________
a) special cause variations.
b) common cause variations.
c) systemic variations.
d) life cycle variations
b) common cause variations.
75
75. All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT:
a) setting an expectation for managers to encourage associates to treat risk events as learning opportunities
b) accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision-making authority
c) training and equipping workers so that they're willing to take risks
d) helping develop specialists who can aid anyone in the organization
b) accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision-making authority
76
76. Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality?
a) Ishikawa
b) Senge
c) Taguchi
d) Harrington
b) Senge
77
77. There are several tasks that a project customer can do to enhance the probability of success. Which of the following are generally performed independent of the project manager?
a) Conduct kick-off meeting
b) Provide project charter
c) Identify stakeholders
d) Provide project funding
d) Provide project funding
78
78. All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:
a) Leadership
b) Strategic planning
c) Team learning
d) Customer focus
c) Team learning
79
79. This Agile project reporting tool is useful to Scrum Masters as it projects how close to plan the team is within a given time box, by providing a graphical representation of work effort remaining in an iteration versus the days left in an iteration:
a) Control chart
b) Burndown chart
c) Run chart
d) Progress report
b) Burndown chart
80
80. During iteration planning in an agile project, agreement is reached regarding:
a) The length of the next sprint
b) Detailed stakeholder requirements
c) The definition of done
d) Positive and negative risks
c) The definition of done
81
81. In agile projects, the individual who leads in a collaborative manner by guiding teams and removing obstacles to their progress is called the:
a) Project manager
b) Sponsor
c) Scrum master
d) Facilitator
c) Scrum master
82
82. A project manager in agile projects who serves and leads in a collaborative, facilitating manner is called a:
a) Program manager
b) Scrum master
c) Sponsor
d) Functional manager
b) Scrum master
83
83. Some organizational culture characteristics make project success more likely. These characteristics include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Collaboration to meet organizational goals
b) Lack of appreciation for project management
c) Engagement of stakeholders
b) Lack of appreciation for project management
84
84. Through shared values, organizational cultures can informally do all the following EXCEPT:
a) Motivate the ethical actions and communications of managers and subordinates.
b) Determine how people are treated, controlled, and rewarded.
c) Establish how cooperation, competition, conflict, and decision-making are handled.
d) Eliminate politics in the workplace.
d) Eliminate politics in the workplace.
85
85. Responsibilities of the Chief Projects Officer (CPO) for everyone serving on a project team include all the following EXCEPT:
a) That they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created.
b) That they capture lessons learned from completed projects.
c) That they use templates and standards when appropriate.
d) That they receive the training they need.
a) That they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created.
86
86. From an agile project management perspective, which of these constraints are considered to be fixed?
a) Quality and value
b) Resources and schedule
c) Scope and time
d) Customer satisfaction
b) Resources and schedule
87
88. Which organization structures can be classified as weak, balanced, or strong depending on the relative level of influence between the functional manager and the project manager?
a) Silo
b) Matrix
c) Composite
d) Projectized
b) Matrix
88
88. Which organization structures can be classified as weak, balanced, or strong depending on the relative level of influence between the functional manager and the project manager?
a) Silo
b) Matrix
c) Composite
d) Projectized
b) Matrix
89
89. All of the following are characteristics of a projectized organization EXCEPT:
a) Decision-making is streamlined.
b) Coordination is the responsibility of project managers.
c) Functional managers have most of the authority.
d) Focus is on the customer.
c) Functional managers have most of the authority.
90
90. A hierarchical organization where each employee has one clear superior and staff are grouped by areas of specialization and managed by a person with expertise in that area is known as:
a) Composite organization
b) Functional organization
c) Projectized organization
d) Weak matrix organization
b) Functional organization
91
91. In an Agile life cycle model, ______:
a) The scrum master controls the team.
b) Detailed planning precedes execution.
c) Customer requirements are gathered early in the project.
d) The team is self-directed.
d) The team is self-directed.
92
92. The project sponsor's responsibilities during the execution phase include:
a) Reviewing and signing the project charter
b) Signing off on the detailed project plan
c) Ensuring communications with key stakeholders
d) Producing project status reports
c) Ensuring communications with key stakeholders
93
93. All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for cause EXCEPT:
a) Problems associated with the project schedule
b) Changing customer priorities
c) A loss of confidence in the contractor performing the project
d) Problems associated with the project cost
b) Changing customer priorities
94
94. Many organizations require the completion of a project close-out report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following?
a) A review of the project's original justification
b) A list of team members dismissed due to poor performance
c) Transcripts of team member conversations
a) A review of the project's original justification
95
95. Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting?
a) The project manager evaluates team member performance.
b) The project team collects lessons learned for use on future projects.
c) The project manager outlines the project goals.
d) The project sponsor brings in a facilitator to conduct a brainstorming exercise.
c) The project manager outlines the project goals.
96
96. When trying to understand a corporate culture, it is helpful to understand the types of power that are used. In "power cultures":
a) Workers closely follow their appointed roles.
b) Supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power.
c) More deference is paid to knowledge than to formal authority.
d) Display an attitude that collaboration is satisfying and stimulating.
b) Supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power.
97
97. Through shared values, organizational cultures can informally do all the following EXCEPT:
a) Motivate the ethical actions and communications of managers and subordinates.
b) Determine how people are treated, controlled, and rewarded.
c) Establish how cooperation, competition, conflict, and decision-making are handled.
d) Eliminate politics in the workplace
d) Eliminate politics in the workplace
98
98. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
b) Unity of command - one "boss" for each employee.
c) Shorter response times and quicker decisions.
d) Hard to monitor and control.
a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
99
99. This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term and plans the future work at a higher level.
a) Rolling wave planning.
b) Decomposition.
c) Traceability.
d) Agile.
a) Rolling wave planning.
100
100. Work Breakdown Structures typically include one or more intermediate levels. Which of the following statements correctly describe the nature of these intermediate levels?
a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.
b) They generally represent the raw materials required to create the final deliverables.
c) They generally represent the resource assignments to create the final deliverables.
d) They generally represent the sequence and timing of work packages.
a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.
101
101. Project quality is defined as the characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
a) True
b) False
a) True
102
