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35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection > questions > Flashcards

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0
Q

what is the mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?

A

they inhibit bacterial proteins synthesis. to do this, they bind to a site on the bacterial ribosome that causes the genetic code carried by mRNA to be read incorrectly

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1
Q

what classification is Ceftin?

A

cephalosporin

-second-generation

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2
Q

_______ is used to detect yeast infections

A

gram strain

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3
Q

____ and _____ are used in the treatment of AIDS-related pneumonia.

A
  1. sulfonamides

2. trimethoprim

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4
Q

define: antibiotic

A

naturally occurring substance produced by a microorganism or semisynthetic substance derived from the microorganism that is capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of another microorganism

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5
Q

in addition to a gram strain test, a ______ and _______ test may also be performed

A
  1. culture

2. sensitivity

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6
Q

T/F: infectious disease is still one of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality globally

A

true

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7
Q

what are risk factors increase the likelihood of infectious disease and decrease the likelihood for adequate treatment? (5)

A
  1. poverty
  2. malnutrition
  3. lack of clean water
  4. Poor sanitation
  5. inadequate housing
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8
Q

define: bactericidal

A

able to destroy bacteria

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9
Q

define: broad-spectrum antibiotic

A

antimicrobial that is capable of destroying a wide range of bacteria

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10
Q

what is the only aminoglycosides that is administered orally? what is it used for?

A

neomycin

-used to reduce the bacteria in the bowel prior to colorectal surgery

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11
Q

define: microbial resistance

A

ability of bacteria to overcome the bactericidal or bacteriostatic effects of an anti-infective. resistance traits are encoded on bacterial genes and can be transferred to other bacteria

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12
Q

what type of bacteria are third-generation cephalosporins most effective against?

A

gram-negative anaerobic bacteria

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13
Q

define: bacteriostatic

A

able to inhibit bacterial proliferation; host defense mechanisms destroy the bacteria

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14
Q

in developing countries what is a major cause of infant mortality?

A

infectious diarrhea

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15
Q

define: ribonucleic acid

A
  • RNA

- I nucleic acid involved in protein synthesis that carries and transfers genetic information and assembles proteins

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16
Q

what serious adverse reactions are linked to aminoglycosides?(2)

A
  1. loss of hearing (ototoxicity)

2. kidney damage (nephrotoxicity)

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17
Q

define: deoxyribonucleic asset

A
  • DNA

- The repository of hereditary characteristics; this nucleic acid contains the genetic blueprint

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18
Q

define: beta-lactamase

A

enzymes secreted by some microbes that has the ability to destroy beta-lactam antibiotics

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19
Q

gram-positive bacteria strain ______ and gram-negative bacteria strain ______.

A
  1. purple

2. pink

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20
Q

define: antimicrobial

A

A substance capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of the microorganism

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22
Q

what are the third-generation cephalosporins?(4)

hint: generic names

A
  1. cefotaxime
  2. ceftazidime
  3. ceftriaxone
  4. cefixime
    - -also, cefpodoxime and ceftibuten(US only)
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23
Q

examples of infections treated by aminoglycosides are: (7)

A
  1. lower respiratory infection
  2. Peritonitis
  3. Septicemia
  4. meningitis
  5. pelvic inflammatory disease
  6. endocarditis
  7. Osteomyelitis
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24
Q

T/F: aminoglycosides are administered parenterally.

A

false

Aminoglycosides can be administered parenterally, orally or topical application for eye, skin, and ear infections

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25
Effective treatment of bacterial infections is dependent on what three factors?
1. host factors 2. bacterial factors 3. drug factors
26
what classification is Garasol?
Aminoglycoside
27
T/F: miss use of antimicrobial agents is a major cause for the development and spread of microbial resistance.
true
28
ophthalmic dosage forms of aminoglycosides are also prescribed for the treatment of ______ and ______.
1. blepharitis | 2. conjunctivitis
29
what classification is maxipime?
cephalosporin | -fourth-generation
30
why are aminoglycosides effective against aerobic bacteria and not anaerobic bacteria?
Aminoglycosides enter the bacterial cell via an oxygen dependent transport system.
32
Aminoglycosides are used for the treatment of serious infections of the...(8) hint: tissues, organs, systems
1. bone 2. abdomen 3. heart 4. brain 5. urinary tract 6. reproductive system 7. skin 8. kidneys
33
misuse of antimicrobial agents is defined as the following.(5)
1. inappropriate prescribing 2. failure to complete full course of therapy 3. administration of antibacterial agents for viral infections (eg., common cold) 4. antibiotics in the food chain 5. lack of guidelines for preventing the spread of infection in institutional care settings
33
T/F: aminoglycosides may also be administered to sterilize the bowel prior to bowel surgery
true
34
what is a common ending for aminoglycosides?
-mycin
35
T/F: Innate or nonspecific immunity is in place before a person is exposed to a particular harmful particle or condition.
true The primary types of cells involved in innate immunity are epithelial barrier cells, phagocytic cells (neutrophils, macrophages), and natural killer(NK) cells
37
what classification is keflex?
cephalosporins | -first-generation
38
what are the second-generation cephalosporins?(3) hint: generic names
1. cefaclor 2. cefoxitin 3. cefuroxime - --also, cefotetan(US only)
39
_______ is needed for the bacterial synthesis of DNA.
Folic acid | -unlike humans, bacteria must synthesize their own folic acid; they cannot get it from external sources
40
___________ are anti folate drugs and _______ is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor.
1. sulfonamides 2. trimethoprim - both block the bacterial synthesis of folic acid
40
T/F: microbes can learn how to withstand the effects of antibiotics; currently, there exists superbugs that are resistant to any available antimicrobial agent.
true | -Multidrug resistance is a serious problem
42
what drug classification does zyvoxam belong to?
oxazolidinones
43
_____ is used for the treatment of tuberculosis
isoniazid
44
what classification is Tobrex?
Aminoglycoside
45
______ is the only glycopeptide antibiotic available
vancomycin
46
second-generation cephalosporins are most effective against what type of bacteria?
gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
47
what is the only fourth-generation cephalosporin? hint: generic name
cefepime
49
T/F: the oral absorption of fluoroquinolones is low.
false | Oral absorption is good, the half-life of newer agents (moxifloxacin) is long permitting once daily dosing.
50
T/F: outdated tetracycline becomes less potent
false | becomes toxic
51
cephalosporins are formulated for ____, ______, and ______ use.
1. oral 2. intramuscular 3. intravenous
52
what is a fourth-generation cephalosporin administered to treat?(2)
1. pneumonia | 2. urinary tract infections
53
what classification is ceclor?
cephalosporin | -second-generation
55
what drug classification is a Zithromax?
macro life's and related anti-infectives
56
what kind of bacterial infections are first-generation cephalosporins effective in the treatment of?(2)
1. staphylococcal infections 2. streptococcal infections of the skin and soft tissue
57
which drug classifications are Beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?(4)
1. penicillins 2. cephalosporins 3. carbapenems 4. monobactums
58
______ may produce a metallic taste
metronidazole
59
fluoroquinolones are indicated for the treatment of______. (6)
1. urinary tract infections 2. sinusitis 3. sexually-transmitted infections 4. bacterial conjunctivitis 5. infectious diarrhea 6. anthrax - and numerous other infections
60
what drug classification is effective for treating gonorrhea?
third-generation cephalosporins
61
what drug classification is Zymar?
fluoroquinolones
62
what adverse reactions are produced by cephalosporins? (9)
``` diarrhea headache dizziness nausea vomiting gas abdominal pain dry mouth heartburn ```
63
ceph- and cef- are common beginings for what drug classification?
cephalosporins
64
________ antibiotics are effective for treating aerobic gram-negative bacilli, staphylococci, and mycobacterium.
Aminoglycoside
65
what classification is Suprax?
cephalosporin | -third-generation
66
common side effects of linezolid include..(10)
``` skin rash itching change in taste headache mild diarrhea dizziness mild stomach upset nausea vomiting temporary tongue discoloration ```
67
the use of clindamycin is associated with the development _______ bacteria
C. difficile | -drinking plenty of fluids can lower the risk for development of this condition
68
are common adverse reactions of fluoroquinolones? (8)
``` diarrhea crystalluria photosensitivity dizziness drowsiness headache nausea upset stomach ```
69
______ is one of the first antibiotics discovered
pencillin
70
fluoroquinolones are formulated for _____, _____ and _____ use.
1. oral 2. ophthalmic 3. parenteral
71
T/F: fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnant women
true. | Cartlidge deformities and tendon rupture may occur in children and developing fetuses
73
what are tetracyclines used for the treatment of?
STI- such as chlamydia Lyme disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever
74
what drug classification is Levaquin?
fluoroquinolones
75
what drug classification does biaxin belong to?
macrolides
77
macrolide antibiotics are primarily used for the treatment of ______.
upper respiratory infections
78
what are adverse reactions of tetracyclines?(4)
vomiting diarrhea nausea photosensitivity
79
T/F: oral penicillins are used to treat many infections, including upper respiratory infections, skin infections and strep throat
true. | also otitis media, and to prevent recurrent rheumatic fever.
80
erythromycin is used for the prevention of _______ infections and _____ in addition to URI treatments
1. neonatal eye infections | 2. acne
81
what is a common adverse reaction with the use of macrolides?
gastrointestinal(GI) upset | -they may also decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives
82
what kind of bacteria are first-generation cephalosporins most effective against? hint: bacteria type not infection type
gram-positive aerobic bacteria
83
________'s may be administered before dental and other medical procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in individuals with prosthetic heart valves.
penicillins
84
______ may be prescribed for pelvic inflammatory disease.
ampicillin
85
Standard penicillins lack stability in gastric acids, which is why most are administered _______.
intramuscularly | --or must be taken on an empty stomach. The exception is penicillin VK, which is relatively acid stable
86
penicillins that are formulated as powders for reconstitution have shortened expire ration dates. expiration dates range from ____ to ___ days, depending on the drug
10 to 14
87
why are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy and small children?
they can weaken fetal bone, retard bone growth, weaken tooth enamel, and strain teeth
88
what are the most common adverse reactions to penicillins? (7)
``` diarrhea loss of appetite nausea vomiting sore mouth stomach gas heartburn -May also decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives ```
89
what 2 drugs are most effective against the bacterium H. influenzae? hint: generic names
1. azithromycin | 2. clarithromycin
90
what are some other adverse effects of penicillins?(4)
1. superinfection 2. hypersensitivity 3. hematological reactions 4. neurological reactions
91
_______ is abbreviated as INH. (however use of acronyms may cause medication errors)
isoniazid
92
______ are the oldest antimicrobial agents.
sulfonamides | -developed in 1930, use spread in 1940s(WWII)
93
what are the first generation cephalosporins?(4) hint: generic names
1. cefazolin 2. cefadroxil 3. cephalexin 4. cephalothin
94
common adverse reactions with the use of sulfonamides are...(8)
``` nausea vomiting abdominal pain headache drowsiness dizziness diarrhea photosensitivity ```
96
_____ destroys the protozoa that causes giardiasis (travelers diarrhea) and trichomoniasis (a STI)
metronidazole
97
metronidazole is formulated for _____, _____, ______, and _____ use.
oral parenteral vaginal topical
98
what warning label should be applied to prescription vials for tetracycline?
- avoid antacids and dairy product's within two hours of dose - avoid tanning and prolonged exposure to sunlight
99
isoniazid may cause ______ and ______. therefore concurrent administration of vitamin B6 is recommended.
liver disease | nerve damage
100
Carbapenems are more effective against gram-_____ bacteria then other Beta-lactam antibiotic agents.
negative | -this is because they have a greater ability to penetrate the outer membrane of the bacteria
101
T/F: first-generation cephalosporins do not penetrate the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in adequate concentration to treat meningitis.
true | ...whereas most third-generation agents reach a high enough level
102
The expiration date of powder for the oral suspension of erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin is ______ once the drug is reconstituted
shortened
103
what type of infections are second-generation cephalosporins effective for treating?
upper respiratory infections such as Haemophilus influenzae
103
A common ending for tetracycline drugs is _____.
-cycline

35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection (2 decks)

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