Questions Flashcards
(104 cards)
1
Q
Bacterial cells can have:
- Mitochondria
- Electron transport
- Golgi apparatuses
- Nuclear membrane
- All of the above
A
B. Electron Transport
2
Q
An 8 year old boy comes in with an infection, what is the body’s First response to an infection?
- Innate immunity
- Adaptive immunity
- B and T lymphocytes
- Dendrites
A
A. Innate immunity
3
Q
Which of the following is true in regards to the elderly:
- The risk is inevitable w/ age for disease and disability
- Like their younger counterparts health screenings will improve health
- w/ the age is it less frequent for suicide and depression
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. III only
A
C. I and II
4
Q
Which one of these is true regarding older geriatric population?
- Just like younger people smoking cessation and alcohol abstinence is recommended
- They are susceptible to diseases
- The rate of suicide is lower in older geriatric population
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 2
- D. 3 only
A
C. 1 and 2
5
Q
Horizontal laminar workflow bench:
- is designed to protect the preparation, not the worker
- has classes, 10, 1000, 10000
- must be vented to the outside of the compounding area
- are also known as biological safety cabinets
- are used to handle cytotoxic compound
A
A. is designed to protect the preparation, not the worker
6
Q
Which drug will cause the blockade of PgP and increase digoxin levels?
A. Potassium
B. Rifampin
C. Quinidine
D. HCTZ
A
C. Quinidine
7
Q
Bronsted-Lowry bases will:
A. Accept a proton
B. Donate a proton
C. Accept a lone-pair of electrons
D. Donate a lone-pair of electrons
A
A. Accept a proton
8
Q
Ethnicity is considered what kind of value?
A. Ordinal
B. Ratio
C. Nominal
D. Interval
A
C. Nominal
9
Q
What is the MOA of Allopurinol?
A. Strong inhibitor of CYP2C9
B. Strong inducer of CYP3A4
C. Strong inducer of Xanthine oxidase
D. Strong inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase
A
D. Strong inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
10
Q
A pulmonary function test was conducted on patient YP and the results are as follows:
Green zone: 400
Yellow zone: 375
Red zone: 325
What are the patients green, yellow and red zones?
- Green (400-320), Yellow (320-240), Red < 240
- Green (400-320), Yellow (320-200), Red < 200
- Green (400-300), Yellow (300-200), Red < 200
- Green (400-300), Yellow(300-240), Red < 160
A
B. Green (400-320), Yellow (320-200), Red < 200
Lower limit of green zone is calculated by 80% x 400= 320
so the green zone range for this patient is 320-400
Lower limit of yellow zone is calculated by 50% x 400=200
so the yellow zone range for this patient is 200-320
The red zone is anything less than 200 for this patient
11
Q
Which enzyme that has zinc dipeptidase and has to do with blood pressure control?
- ACE
- PDE5
- AT1
- AT2
A
A. ACE
12
Q
Clinical trial comparing two drugs. Group 1 uses a tablet drug and tablet placebo. Group 2 uses a capsule drug and capsule placebo.
Is this a double-dummy trial?
A. Yes
B. No
A
A. Yes
13
Q
What are the ADRs of giving a selective alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist. (Select All)
- Orthostatic hypotension
- Reflex tachycardia
- Bradycardia
- Diuresis
- Hypertension
A
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Reflex tachycardia
remember that when you give an alpha 1 antagonist you will cause the dilation of the blood vessels and the blood pressure will drop. So in order for the body to compensate for the drop it will increase HR to try increaseing blood pressure again.
14
Q
What is the primary response to antigens that invade the body?
A. IgE antibodies attack with high affinity to antigen
B. IgM antibodies attack with high affinity to antigen
C. IgG antibodies attack with high affinity to antigen
D. IgM antibodies attack with low affinity to antigen
E. IgG antibodies attack with low affinity to antigen
A
D. IgM antibodies attack with low affinity to antigen
The primary response consits of IgM antibodies that have low affinity for the antigen
15
Q
Donald is old fellow at stage 3 COPD. He has sob and chest tightness. His BP is high, Pulse rate is high, rr is high. Doctor told him that he has COPD exacerbations. It can be treated at home. What was the medication?
a. albuterol + oral steroids
b. albuterol + oral steroids + antibiotics
c. salmeterol + oral steroids + antibiotics
d. fluticasone + oral steroids
e. ipatropium + oral steroids
A
A. albuterol + oral steroids
you can do the same with asthma exacerbations
16
Q
what happens when the rate of drug infusion increases?
a. Increase time to reach steady state
b. Decrease time to reach steady state
c. Increase steady state plasma concentration
d. Decrease steady state plasma concentration
e. Increase total clearance.
A
C. Increase steady state plasma concentration
17
Q
What is true about relationship between blood pressure, blood flow?
a. Blood flow occurs if there is a difference in pressure gradient
b. Blood pressure occurs if there is a difference in flow
c. Absolute blood pressure is not dependent on pressure gradient.
d. none of the above are true
A
A. blood flow occurs if there is a difference in pressure gradient
18
Q
Rank the order of diuretics from Most effective to Least effective.
- Loop > Thiazide > Potassium Sparing
- Thiazide > Loop > Potassium Sparing
- Loop > Potassium Sparing > Thiazide
- Thiazide > Potassium Sparing > Loop
A
A. Loop > Thiazide > Potassium Sparing
19
Q
If an individual has a defect where he can’t produce vasopressin (ADH), what would be the result?
- Patient will excrete dilute urine
- Patient will excrete concentrated urine
- Patient will urinate more frequently
- Patient will urinate less frequently
A
A. Patient will excrete dilute urine
20
Q
What is a self-treatment for diaper dermatitis?
- topical antibiotic
- topical antifungal
- topical zinc oxide
- topical triamcinolone
- topical analgesic
A
C. Topical zinc oxide
21
Q
An infusion has started for a 132 lbs patient and the dose is 7.5mg/kg How many ml is required if the drugs come in 500 mg/ 2ml concentration?
- 2.0
- 0.9
- 0.5
- 1.8
A
D. 1.8
22
Q
The “golden triangle” of health care includes all EXCEPT:
- Access
- Cost
- Virtue
- Quality
A
C. Virtue
23
Q
Polarity has an affect on which drug property:
- bioavailability
- route of administration
- distribution
- solubility
- all of the above
A
E. all of the above
24
Q
An infant has an enlarged liver and a glucose 6 diphophatase deficiency. This infant:
- Cannot maintain blood glucose levels
- Can only maintain blood glucose by glycogen
- Cannot maintain blood glucose by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
- can convert pyruvate to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels
A
C. Cannot maintain blood glucose by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Person was unsure of this answer
25
particle size diameter affects: (Select All)
1. ionization properties
2. diffusion across membranes
3. dosage form selection
4. tablet dimensions
5. systemic circulation
B. Diffusion across membranes
E. Systemic circulation
the original question had only E as an answer and B was a blank choice. the particle size diameter affects the diffusion across the membrane which in turn will affect the systemic circulation of the drug.
26
A drug is eliminated by first-order reaction, the amount of drug elminated from the body:
1. increases while the fraction is constant
2. constant while elimination fraction increases
3. constant while the elmination fraction decreases
4. decreases while the fraction is constant
D. decreases while the fraction is constant
27
Which of these drugs has the highest efficacy?
A. Drug A
B. Drug B
C. Drug C
D. Drug D
E. Drug E
B. Drug B
Remember the higher the line is the more efficacy the drug has
28
Chronic use of an antagonist such as propranolol can lead to:
A. Receptor upregulation
B. Receptor downregulation
C. Decreased receptor affinity
D. Increased receptor affinity
A. Receptor Upregulation
29
Which one of these causes dry eyes?
1. Menopause
2. Histamine
3. Cholinergic agents
4. Allergens
5. Humidifier
A. Menopause
I looked this up as well and it is confirmed that menopause causes dry eye
30
Which of the following follows an activation of a beta 1 adrenergic receptors by epinephrine?
A. Nervousness by Gi
B. Arterial vasoconstriction by Gq
C. Arterial vasodilation by Gs
D.Tachycardia by Gs
E. Bradycardia by Gs
D. Tachycardia by Gs
Remember that G= G protein and s= stimulation. B1 receptors are on the SA node and cardiac muscle so stimulating these receptors using epinephrine will cause a stronger force of contraction AND increased heart rate (tachycardia)
31
EB , male patient, has Hb = 10.9. His hemoglobin is stable but requires ESA. ESA therapy is not responsive. Which is NOT a possible explanation for his anemia
1. Possible blood loss
2. Pulmonary disease
3. Vit B12/folic acid deficiency
4. Absolute iron deficiency
5. Infection/inflammation
B. Pulmonary Disease
pulmonary disease is not a cause of anemia but the others are possible causes for anemia
32
Competitive (reversible) antagonist
1. Reduces both potency of an agonist and its maximal response
2. Increases potency of agonist without effect on maximal response
3. Increases maximal response without effect on potency of agonist
4. Increases both potency of agonist and its maximal response
5. Reduces potency of agonist without effect on maximal response
E. Reduces potency of agonist without effect on maximal response
33
The following are characteristics of DMEs (Drug-metabolizing enzymes) EXCEPT:
A. Xenobiotic deactivation
B. Possible Inhibition
C. Possible polymorphism
D. Possible inducibility
E. Drug-selective and specific
E. Drug-selective and specific
Drug metabolizing enzymes like CYP34 are NOT drug specific because they can deactive or activate multiple drugs.
34
Chemical synapses contain all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Post synaptic membrane
2. Two neuron synapse
3. Gap junction
4. Receptor protein
5. Neurotransmitter
C. Gap junction
35
Which of these patients is considered a binge drinker?
A. 3 or more alcoholic beverages in one sitting for a female
B. 5 or more alcoholic beverages in one sitting for a male
C. 1 alcoholic beverage for a male or female for at least 2 months
D. 2 or more alcoholic beverages in one sitting for a female
B. 5 or more alcoholic beverages in one sitting for a male
36
Which of these medications will remain as a Schedule II drug regardless of the concentration it is formulated in?
A. Codeine
B. Meperidine
C. Cocaine
D. Meth
B. Meperidine
37
Zyrtec is a second generation antihistamine that has little to no CNS side effects such as drowsiness. Why is this?
1. Molecular weight of 2nd generation anthistamines is too low to cross the BBB
2. They are zwitterionic which makes them polar and prevents it from crossing the BBB
3. Extensively metabolized in the GI so it lowers systemic absorption
4. Increased lipophilicity in comparison to 1st generation antihistamines makes it unable to cross the BBB
B. They are zwitterionic which makes them polar and prevents it from crossing the BBB
38
Given lipid panel: Total cholesterol. 240, Triglycerides 1500, HDL 40 LDL 90. Which of these medications should be used
1. Atorvastatin
2. Simvastatin
3. Pitavastatin
4. Pravastatin
A. Atorvastatin
39
A polymorphism is defined as
A. A rare genetic variant
B. A genetic variant that occurs with a frequency of at least 1%
C. A common genetic variant
D. A genetic variant that occurs with a frequency less than 1%
B. A genetic variant that occurs with a frequency of at least 1%
40
What are the anticholinergic effects that can be expected from the 1st generation antihistamines?
I. Loss of accommodation
II. Increase urinary frequency
III. Diarrhea
1. I only
2. III only
3. I and II only
4. II and III only
5. I, II, and III
A. I only
41
The net diffusion of a penetrating solute into a cell decreases as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
1. Surface area decreases
2. Temperature increases
3. Size of the solute decreases
4. Permeability of the solute increases
A. Surface area decreases
42
Max ratio for pharmacist to technicians in a class B pharmacy is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:3
4. 1:5
5. no max
B. 1.2
43
Information slide:
Definition of Standard Deviation
A quantitiy calculated to indicate the extent of deviation for a whole group
44
Which disease could result in an increase in cholesterol?
1. Coronary artery disease
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hypertension
4. Liver failure
B. hypothyroidism
45
What is the most common side effect of varenicline (Chantix)?
A. Dry mouth
B. Watery eyes
C. Tachycardia
D. Nausea
E. Increased salavation
D. Nausea
46
Initial plasma concentration 120mg/ and half life was 3. What was the concentration after 12 hours of administration?
7.5
47
Which of the following causes ovulation?
A. FSH surge
B. TSH surge
C. LH surge
D. ACTH surge
C. LH surge
48
What form must be used to order a Schedule II medication?
A. DEA form 256
B. DEA form 222
C. DEA form 333
D. DEA form 279
B. DEA form 222
49
What is the zinc dependent carboxylase that regulates blood pressure?
1. Renin
2. ACE
3. AT1
4. AT2
B. ACE
50
Which of the following is the MOST absorptive organ?
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. Colon
E. Small intestine
E. Small intestine
51
Which is a high-energy nucleotide?
A. AMP
B. GMP
C. ATP
D. cGMP
C. ATP
52
Recombinant DNA is used to produce what pharmaceutical agent
1. Liposomes
2. Proteins
3. Small, organic molecules
4. Glucose
5. Amino acids
B. Proteins
53
The process of reversible transfer to and from the site of measurement and peripheral tissue is
1. Excretion
2. Biotransformation
3. Metabolism
4. Absorption
5. Distribution
E. Distribution
I think it could be diffusion but I'm not sure??
54
What is correct about hypertension?
1. Secondary hypertension has an unknown etiology
2. Essential (primary) hypertension has identifiable causes
3. Hypertension is defined as once in awhile blood pressure above 120/80
4. Hypertension is variable among age, race, and gender
D. Hypertension is variable among age, race and gender
55
All are **_true EXCEPT_**?
1. Essential HTN has unknown etiology
2. Secondary HTN is due to a known cause
3. Pre HTN is 120-139/80-89
4. HTN is \> 140/90
5. HTN affects everyone equally without regard to sex, age, race, etc.
E. HTN affects everyon equally without regard to sex, age and race
This is a repeat of the previous question but with slightly different choices and is asked a different way.
56
Which Km is associated with the highest substrate affinity?
1. Km = 2 uM
2. Km = 1 nM
3. Km = 5 mM
4. **Km = 10 pM**
5. Km = 0.3 mM
D. Km= 10 pM
remember that smaller Km means a HIGHER affinity
This question was asked in a strange way but it does help you remember which units are smaller.
57
Divalent metal ions like calcium decrease the absorption of drugs like tetracycline by
I) Chelation
II) Decrease solubility
III) Decrease lipophilicity
1. I only
2. III only
3. I and II
4. II and III
5. I, II, and III
C. I and II
58
Which of the following drugs can decrease the production of aqueous humor?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Benadryl
C. Filgrastim
D. Eltrombopag
A. Pilocarpine
Pilocarpine is a cholinergic AGONIST
59
Drug A requires twice the dosage of Drug B in order to achieve complete saturation of the receptors. What can you conclude?
A. Drug A has higher affinity for that particular receptor than drug B
B. Drug B has lower affinity for that particular receptor than drug A
C. Drug A has lower affinity for that particular receptor than drug B
D. Both drug A and Drug B have equal affinity for that particular receptor
C. Drug A has lower affinity for that particular receptor than drug B
60
How long do CE records need to be kept?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 10 years
C. 3 years
61
Orange Book approved drugs that are therapeutically equivalent?
1. AB
2. BA
3. TA
4. CD
5. BC
A. AB
62
Kidney’s response to Hyperventilation isà hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis
A. Increasing secretion of H+ and decreasing absorption of HCO3-
B. Increasing secretion of H+ and increasing absorption of HCO3-
C. Decreasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3-
D. Decreasing secretion of H+ and increasing absorption of HCO3-
C. Decreasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3-
63
In the management of hyperkalemia, which of the following will shift extracellular potassium in to the intraceullular space?
1. Calcium gluconate
2. Furosemide
3. Kayexalate
4. Albuterol
5. Dialysis
D. Albuterol
64
Antimetabolite acts on which phase of the cell cycle?
1. g1
2. g2
3. S
4. g0
5. M
C. S
65
Which Anticancer may cause diarrhea- K-Type
1. Capecitabine
2. Doxorubicin
3. Trastuzumab
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I, II, and III
C. I and II
Need to confirm this
66
Which of these when used in combination will increase chances of heart failure? (Select 2)
A. Capecitabine
B. Trastuzumab
C. Anastrazole
D. Tamoxifen
E. Doxorubicin
B. Trastuzumab
E. Doxorubicin
67
Mesna is used in conjunction with ___ to decrease the acrolein biproduct that is produced through metabolism of this drug.
A. Doxorubicin
B. Capacitabine
C. Daunarubicin
D. Cyclophosphamide
D. Cyclophosphamide
68
Which of these medications can cause red urine?
A. Capecitabine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Cytarabine
D. Trastuzumab
B. Doxorubicin
69
What is true about Amiodarone's structure?
A. Highly lipophilic and attaches to skin and tissues
B. Has a long half-life
C. Inhibits warfarin metabolism by inhibiting CYP2C9
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
70
Which statement about the Metoprolol structure is true?
1. methoxyethyl structure contributes to the b1 selectivity
2. metoprolol contains a structure similar to catechol
3. metoprolol is the most lipophilic out of all beta adrenergic medications
A. Methoxyethyl structure contributes to the B1 selectivity
71
Patient has psoriasis with 15% involvement of body, what do you use?
1. PUVA
2. Shampoo
3. Switch to betamethasone ointment
4. Switch to hydrocortisone cream
5. Cyclosporine therapy
E. Cyclosporine therapy
Person was not sure about this answer so we should look it up.
stated the patient had already tried hydrocoritsone cream and it did not work.
72
Which of these statments is true regarding steroid MOA?
I: Bind to GRE (+/-) to affect transcription
II: Bind to NFKB/ap1 to alter transcription
III. Disrupts DNA helix
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
C. I and II
apparently it does nothing to the DNA helix according to the explanation that was provided. Can verify if needed.
73
What non-pharmacological agents can be used for psoriasis?
A. hot bath
B. Lubricating bath
C. Abrasive cleanser
D. Aluminum packets
B. Lubricating bath
74
What could increase exacerbation of psoriasis?
A. Infections, such as strep throat or skin infections
B. Cuts/Scrapes/ Bug bites
C .Stress
D. Cold weather
E. Smoking and alcohol
F all of the above
F. All of the above
The question may have been a case question asking about what could be exacerbating the patients psoriasis but no case was written down. So instead I put a list of all the things that could exacerbate psoriasis (also medications)
75
What is a possible side effect of beta blocker usage?
A. Hypertension
B. Bronchodilation
C. Increased renin output
D. Bradycardia
E. Tachycardia
D. Bradycardia
76
Which of these medications has NOT been shown to decrease **mortality**?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metoprolol
C. Digoxin
D. Amlodipine
E. All of these decrease mortality
C. Digoxin
77
Given the structure of Ceterizine why does it not cross the BBB?
A. Phenyl groups increase lipophilicity
B. Carboxylic groups increase lipophilicity
C. Phenyl groups are ionized and cannot cross BBB
D. Carboxylic group is ionized and cannot cross BBB
D. Carboxylic group is ionized and cannot cross BBB
78
All of these mechanisms would increase blood pressure except:
1. Increase venous return
2. Increase blood volume
3. Increase sympathetic nerve output
4. Increase parasympathetic nerve output
5. Constrict arterial vessels
D. Increase parasympathetic nerve output
79
Metoprolol should not be given with which of these medications? (Select All)
A. Lisinopril (Prinivil)
B. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
C. HCTZ
D. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
E. Verapamil (Calan)
D. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
E. Verapamil (Calan)
Remember that diltiazem and verapamil are considered NON-Dihydropyradine calcium channel blockers and cannot be used with Metoprolol because they both slow down HR
Amlodipine is a Dihydropyridine CCB so that is ok to use.
80
Diltiazem has higher affinity for ___ calcium channels in the \_\_\_.
A. T-Type, Heart
B. L-Type, Heart
C. L-Type, Vessels
D. T-Type, Vessels
B. L-Type, heart
non-dihydropyradine CCBs like diltiazem and verapamil have higher affinity for L-type calcium channels in the heart
Dihydropyridine CCBs like Amlodipine have higher affinity for L-type calcium channels in the blood vessels.
81
Which one of the following is TRUE about Metoprolol?
1. It is non-selective BB
2. It is alpha 1 agonist
3. It shifts the dose response curve to the right
4. It cause reflex tachycardia
C. It shifts the dose-response curve to the right
Remember that when antagonists are used the dose response curve shifts to the right
82
Patient’s LDL 95 and elevated LFT, what do you do to his regimen? (patient is taking Simvastatin 40 mg)
1. Stop simvastatin and monitor LFTs
2. No change on the drug, look over LFT in next follow-up
3. Change to rosuvastatin 5mg
4. Change to atorvastatin 20 mg
B. No change on the drug, look over LFT in next follow-up
Regarding LFTs, statins should only be stopped if the LFT is at least 3x the patients baseline level. So if the patient has an LFT of 40 baseline and a reading of 120 then we can stop the statin for now and monitor LFTs
If the LFT is elevated but is less than 3x the baseline then we continue the statin and then reassess in 1 month
83
Which of these medications will cause Hypokalemia?
I: Furosemide
II: Lisinopril
III: HCTZ
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
E. I and III
84
Lisinopril undergoes 1st order kinetics. How does this affect its rate of elimination
1. highest elimination when drug is at highest level
2. lowest elimination when drug at highest level
3. highest elimination at lowest level
4. time related
5. independent
A. Highest elimination when drug is at highest level
85
Based on the structure of Simvastatin and Lovastatin which of these statments is false?
1. Simvastatin decreases cholesterol biosynthesis
2. Simvastatin and lovastatin are both prodrugs
3. Simvastatin is HMG COA reductase inhibitor
4. Simvastatin and lovastatin have lactone and ester groups
5. Lovastatin is the active form of simvastatin
E. Lovastatin is the active form of simvastatin
86
Which of the following MOAs is true? (Select all)
1. Lisinopril is an ace inhibitor.
2. Metoprolol is alpha-1 antagonist
3. hyralazine is potent vasodilator
4. Aspirin is an irreversible COX-2 inhibitor
A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor
C. Hydralazine is a potent vasodilator
87
43. Pt had a stroke after being on ASA for 8 months? Which would you do? Don’t remember
1. ASA + clopidogrel
2. Clopidogrel
3. Warfarin
B. Clopidogrel
* For ACUTE ischemic stroke plain aspirin has shown to be effective . For ACUTE ischemic stroke, anticoagulant is NOT beneficial (not talking about A-fib)
* So if there is aspirin failure you could go to either one , between clopidogrel vs Aggrenox
* dual antiplatelet therapy for chronic ischemic heart disease or stroke prevention is NOT BENEFICIAL & it increases the risk for major bleeds
* If a patient comes in with a stroke you don’t want to give warfarin until after discharge in case they have a hemorrhagic transformation of an ischemic stroke to an intracranial bleed
88
What is true about enalapril?
1. It is a prodrug
2. It is an ace inhibitor
3. the carboxylate binds to zinc at the ACE site.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
E. I, II, and III
Point number III about ace inhibitors using their carboxylate groups to bind to zinc on the ACE enzyme has been mentioned before in a previous question
89
Metformin immediate release tablet has the salt HCl. The salt is used to optimize:
1. pH
2. permeability
3. stability
4. Solubility
5. partition coefficient
D. Solubility
Remember that salt forms will have better solubility
90
The adult dose of iron is 150-300 in three divided doses daily. Patient is currently taking ferrous sulfate 325 mg TID What is true?
1. patient is receiving the necessary dose of iron daily
2. the patient receives 65 mg of iron in each 325 mg tablet
3. The patient is receiving the correct dose and regimen.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
Although I think the recommendation has changed since in class they told us adult dosing is between 100-200 mg of iron a day for an adult
91
PhosLo drug. pt takes 667mg of calcium acetate.(MW= 158). How much elemental calcium in mg does the pt receive in one day? (Calcium AW= 40) (pt takes 2 tablets TID)
1. 1 mg
2. 50.7 mg
3. 507 mg
4. 1,013 mg
5. 2,026 mg
D. 1013 mg
Not sure if they will ask this but it is a basic concept that relies on percentage and woudn't hurt to know just in case.
92
Patient gets drug from mexico b/c she thinks it is equivalent to glyburide. The drug Glebenclamide what resource do you use to look this up?
1. Micromedex
2. Google
3. Wikipedia
4. Facts and Comparisons
A. Micromedex
if i'm not mistaken micromedex has the orange book which talks about equivalents. I'm not sure if Facts and comparisons does. Also i added the other three choices because they were empty
93
Patient has a paCO2 of 20 and a HCO3 of 20 and a RR of 22 what is the patients acid base status?
1. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
2. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
3. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
4. Respiratory and metabolic alkalosis
A. metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
There is a formula to use to check compensation. i'm not sure if it will be that detailed on the exam. made some questions before
94
What drug in the presence of renal failure can you get lactic acidosis?
1. Metformin
2. Captopril
3. APAP
4. Ibuprofen
A. metformin.
did not know this but they may not ask it
95
What drug resource is the most reliable to look up FDA approved indications?
1. Micromedex
2. Lexicomp
3. Facts and Comparisons
4. Package Insert
D. Package insert
If I'm not mistaken Dr. Lopez has said this before when it comes to FDA approved indications and also you can get the package insert from **Daily Med** if its not available in paper
96
UTI with history of Gonorrhea
- C/C: painful urination; AA male, PMH of gonorrhea and nephrolithiasis, many sexual partners
- Allergies – rash
- Patient has a history of valacyclovir on the computer system. What is the most likely cause?
1. HPV
2. HSV
3. VPZ
4. Chlamydia
5. Chancroid
B. HSV
Need to confirm if the HSV caused this. However patient was taking valacyclovir and I think that is used to treat HSV
97
How do you assess for pyelonephritis?
A. Look at patients CBC
B. Look at urinary analysis
C. Look at patients temperature
D. Check patients abdominal sounds
E. Assess intercostal-area pain and tenderness
E. Assess intercostal-are pain and tenderness
I think this was from cotas lecture. The person who made this document also included this picture for explanation.
98
What is the synergistic effect of Sulfamethaxole/Trimethoprim?
1. Sulfamethoxazle inhibits dyhydropteroate synthase while trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
2. Sulfamethoxazole increases binding affinity of trimethoprim to bacterial receptors
3. Trimethoprim blocks lactamases that would normally degrade sulfamethoxazole
4. none of the above
1. Sulfamethoxazle inhibits dyhydropteroate synthase while trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
I confirmed this is how the synergism works for this medication
Confirm if folic acid supplementation is ok while taking bactrim. Another question asked this and said it was ok because bactrim ONLY effects DHFR of bacteria?
99
What is valacyclovir used to treat?
A. HSV
B. VSV
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonorrhea
A. HSV
100
Patient has a prescription for Macrobid x 28 days to treat UTI. What is your receommendation
1. Not appropriate due to incorrect length of therapy
2. Requires IV cefazoline before patient discharge
3. Not appropriate for treatment of UTI
4. Fill medication as the medication and duration are appropriate
A. not appropriate due to incorrect length of therapy
Macrobid is only used for 7 days not 28 days
101
Which is a potential adverse effect of Ibuprofen ?
1. Nephrotoxicity
2. Gastritis
3. Acute MI
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
E. I, II, and III
Remember the black boxed warning of Ibuprofen in case they ask that
102
Lantus 40 U SQ qHS. 3 ml with 100U/ml. How many days will 1 vial last?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 7
5. 8
D. 7
103
Which is a DMARD?
1. Abatacept
2. Ibuprofen
3. Prednisone
4. Tamoxifen
A. Abatacept
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