Questions Flashcards
(240 cards)
1
Q
CHAPTER 01 - Introduction to the Fire Officer (7 Questions)
1. According to the NFPA, how many levels of Fire Officers are there? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
A
Answer: C
C) 4
2
Q
2. What is the lowest level of Fire Officer that is qualified for a Chief Officer position? A) II B) III C) IV D) V
A
Answer: B
B) III
3
Q
- According to NFPA 1021, does a Fire Officer II have to meet the requirements of Fire Officer I?
A) No, the two certifications are parallel, and one is not more advanced than the other.
B) No, not formally, but it is a good idea.
C) No, but both levels must be certified as Fire Fighter II.
D) Yes, Fire Officer I is a prerequisite for Fire Officer II.
A
Answer: D
D) Yes, Fire Officer I is a prerequisite for Fire Officer II.
4
Q
4. Which term does the International Association of Fire Chiefs use for a Fire Officer II? A) Station Officer B) Managing Fire Officer C) Supervising Fire Officer D) Administrative Line Officer
A
Answer: B
B) Managing Fire Officer
5
Q
- All of the following are common ways of organizing a fire department except one. Choose the exception.
A) Function
B) Geography
C) Demographics
D) Staffing
A
Answer: C
C) Demographics
6
Q
- Which of the four functions of management deals with developing a scheme, program, or method that is worked out beforehand to accomplish an objective?
A) Organizing
B) Leading
C) Controlling
D) Planning
A
Answer: D
D) Planning
7
Q
- Which type of organizational document establishes or prescribes specific operational or administrative methods to be followed routinely for the performance of designated operations or actions?
A) Policy
B) Standard operating procedure
C) Rule
D) Regulation
A
Answer: B
B) Standard operating procedure
8
Q
CHAPTER 02 - Preparing for Promotion (3 Questions)
- What is the term for the ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure on a consistent basis?
A) Validity
B) Objectivity
C) Reliability
D) Selectivity
A
Answer: C
C) Reliability
9
Q
- To be effective in a role-playing exercise, a candidate’s supervisory decisions should be strictly based on __________.
A) past practice
B) the larger context
C) the subordinate’s work history
D) Policies and Regulations
A
Answer: D L
D) Policies and Regulations
10
Q
- Which level of Fire Officer would expect to find an examination question pertaining to the evaluation of a fire company’s performance?
A) Direct line officer
B) Administrative officer
C) Supervising fire officer
D) Managing fire officer
A
Answer: D
D) Managing fire officer
11
Q
CHAPTER 03 - Fire Fighters and the Fire Officer (7 Questions)
- Which statement best summarizes the role of the Supervising Fire Officer in decision making and problem solving?
A) All serious issues will be deferred entirely to the Chiefs for their handling.
B) Fire Officers will work together with Chiefs on issues that come up, and they will present a united front to fire fighters.
C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
D) Fire Officers will run their own stations, leaving the Chiefs out of it entirely.
A
Answer: C
C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
12
Q
- The formal Fire Department organization considers a Fire Officer to be the representative of whom?
A) The customer
B) The fire fighter
C) The local government
D) The Fire Chief
A
Answer: D L
D) The Fire Chief
13
Q
- Fire Officers should consult their supervisors if they are going to make a decision that __________________.
A) goes beyond their scope of authority
B) will be felt differently by different people
C) is not explicitly spelled out in a directive from above
D) has no explicit precedent in that department
A
Answer: A
A) goes beyond their scope of authority
14
Q
- It is said that Fire Officers should “walk the talk.” What does that mean?
A) They should use fire-service–specific language with fire fighters.
B) They should be willing to back up their subordinates.
C) They should be willing to complete any orders.
D) They should demonstrate the behaviors they say are important.
A
Answer: D
D) They should demonstrate the behaviors they say are important.
15
Q
- According to Annex A of NFPA 1021, public safety personnel must make choices based on the ________________________.
A) swiftest mitigation of the original and consequent incidents
B) minimal expenditure of resources to correct the problem
C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the community
D) closest adherence possible to public speculations
A
Answer: C
C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the community
16
Q
- According to the International Association of Fire Chiefs, a person who worked as a Managing Fire Officer for 3 to 5 years, is certified at the NFPA Fire Officer III level, and has completed formal education equivalent to a Bachelor’s degree is known as a(n) _____________.
A) Administrative Fire Officer
B) Tactical Fire Officer
C) Executive Fire Officer
D) Career Fire Officer
A
Answer: A
A) Administrative Fire Officer
17
Q
- __________________ is the complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person’s moral and ethical actions and reactions.
A) Honor
B) Integrity
C) Veracity
D) Reliability
A
Answer: B
B) Integrity
18
Q
CHAPTER 04 - Fire Officer Communications (5 Questions)
- What is an effective method of providing feedback to responders for improving their emergency radio communications skills?
A) Running a simulation communications exercise with portable radios
B) Installing microphone filters on radios that do not allow shouting
C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
D) Running an exercise in which, each intended communication is delayed 10 seconds, then allowed only 3 seconds to take place
A
Answer: C
C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
19
Q
- What does the “P” stand for in SOP?
A) Practice
B) Personnel
C) Premises
D) Procedure
A
Answer: D
D) Procedure
20
Q
- Which type of documents are SOPs?
A) Formal and permanent
B) Formal and temporary
C) Informal and permanent
D) Informal and temporary
A
Answer: A
A) Formal and permanent
21
Q
- Which of the following is a type of communication that is archived as a permanent file?
A) External communication
B) Informal communication
C) Formal communication
D) Internal communication
A
Answer: C
C) Formal communication
22
Q
- Which formal document addresses a specific subject, policy, condition, or situation?
A) Routine correspondence
B) Legal correspondence
C) An announcement
D) A general order
A
Answer: D
D) A general order
23
Q
CHAPTER 05 - Safety and Risk Management (8 Questions)
- What is the leading cause of on-duty death among fire fighters?
A) Burns
B) Falls or crushing
C) Asphyxiation
D) Sudden cardiac death
A
Answer: D
D) Sudden cardiac death
24
Q
- What is the likelihood of fire fighters dying of a heart attack versus people in other occupations?
A) Fire fighters are more likely to die of a heart attack.
B) Fire fighters are equally as likely to die of a heart attack.
C) Fire fighters are less likely to die of a heart attack.
D) There is no consistent comparison.
A
Answer: A
A) Fire fighters are more likely to die of a heart attack.
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3. Approximately _____ of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing a seat belt.
A) 25 percent
B) 40 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 75 percent
Answer: D
D) 75 percent
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4. NFPA 1500 requires _______________ to track identities, assignments, and locations of all fire fighters operating at an incident scene.
A) tracking boards
B) helmet tags
C) a personnel tracking database
D) a personnel accountability system
Answer: D
D) a personnel accountability system
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5. What is one of the most important reasons for establishing and maintaining an effective incident command structure at every incident?
A) Reduce costs
B) Promote situational awareness
C) Perform risk–benefit analysis
D) Justify use of human resources
Answer: B
B) Promote situational awareness
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6. Who determines when it is safe to reduce the level of PPE at an incident scene?
A) Safety officer only
B) Safety officer and company officer
C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
D) Incident commander and company officer
Answer: C
C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
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7. All of the following are phases of an accident investigation except one. Choose the exception.
A) Identification and collection of evidence
B) Employee administrative action
C) Interviewing of witnesses
D) Written documentation phase
Answer: B
B) Employee administrative action
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8. In addition to meeting regulatory requirements, how can records of accidents be used?
A) Identifying accident-prone employees
B) Insurance reporting
C) Identifying trends
D) Employee administrative action
Answer: C
C) Identifying trends
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CHAPTER 06 - Understanding People (1 Questions)
1. What is the term used for the process of setting performance standards and evaluating performance against those standards?
A) Performance management
B) Labor standards
C) Labor relations
D) Staffing
Answer: A
A) Performance management
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CHAPTER 07 - Leading the Fire Company (8 Questions)
1. Gary Yukl described leadership as the process of influencing others to ______________________.
A) be productive regardless of their level of motivation
B) understand and agree about what needs to be done
C) be willing to set aside their own agenda for the greater good
D) prioritize group identity over individual identity
Answer: B L
B) understand and agree about what needs to be done
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2. In which emergency is a democratic leadership style appropriate?
A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
B) Whenever the span of control is exceeded
C) When immediate action is required
D) There are no emergency situations where it is appropriate.
Answer: A
A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
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3. In which situation is an autocratic leadership style required?
A) There are not enough personnel to cover all the usual roles of an evolution.
B) There is a unified command structure.
C) The operation is expected to go beyond a single operational period.
D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.
Answer: D
D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.
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4. Which leadership style uses all the ingenuity and resourcefulness of the group in determining how to meet an objective or complete a task?
A) Democratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Autocratic
D) Centralized
Answer: A
A) Democratic
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5. A goal of an effective Fire Officer is to delegate decision making in routine activities to the ________________.
A) most experienced individual
B) lowest possible level
C) most qualified individual
D) group consensus
Answer: B
B) lowest possible level
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6. According to Studies of Social Power, an Incident Commander directing resources on an incident is an example of _____ power.
A) reward
B) referent
C) coercive
D) legitimate
Answer: D
D) legitimate
38
7. Which of the following is a key component of leading?
A) Motivating
B) Delegating
C) Empathizing
D) Following
Answer: A
A) Motivating
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8. Which of the following is one of the two unique leadership challenges faced by Fire Officers?
A) Recruitment
B) Fire station as a work location
C) Budgets
D) Technology
Answer: B
B) Fire station as a work location
40
CHAPTER 08 - Training and Coaching (8 Questions)
1. “The process of achieving proficiency through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment and systems” is the definition of __________.
A) training
B) coaching
C) mastery
D) learning
Answer: A
A) training
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2. _____________ is the process of imparting knowledge or skill through systematic instruction.
A) Teaching
B) Education
C) Training
D) Mentoring
Answer: B
B) Education
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3. To require a fire fighter to perform with a rusty skill set in an emergency situation is considered to be______________________.
A) the best reinforcing device
B) the best motivator for learning
C) having an essentially neutral impact
D) dangerous
Answer: D
D) dangerous
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4. Which trend was started when the National Fire Protection Association helped standardize fire fighter training by publishing the inaugural edition of NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications, in 1974?
A) Establishment of regional training institutions
B) Accreditation of training institutions
C) Development of consensus standards for training
D) Reduction in line-of-duty deaths
Answer: C
C) Development of consensus standards for training
44
5. Which entity provides accreditation for fire service professional certification programs?
A) National Fire Protection Association
B) International Fire Service Training Association
C) International Society of Fire Service Instructors
D) International Fire Service Accreditation Congress
Answer: D
D) International Fire Service Accreditation Congress
45
6. Which of the following is a prerequisite to becoming a Supervising Fire Officer?
A) Fire Officer I
B) Fire Instructor II
C) Fire Officer II
D) Hazardous Materials Technician
Answer: A
A) Fire Officer I
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7. Which of the following is a prerequisite to becoming a Managing Fire Officer?
A) Fire Officer III
B) Fire Officer II
C) Fire Inspector II
D) Fire Instructor II
Answer: B
B) Fire Officer II
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8. What is the NFPA standard for live fire training?
A) 1001
B) 1403
C) 1500
D) 1596
Answer: B
B) 1403
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CHAPTER 09 - Evaluation and Discipline (3 Questions)
1. Which program is designed to deal with issues such as substance abuse, emotional or mental health issues, marital and family difficulties, or other difficulties that affect job performance?
A) Employee Assistance Program
B) Critical incident stress management
C) Member referral program
D) Performance assistance program
Answer: A L
A) Employee Assistance Program
49
2. The success of an Employee Assistance Program relies on the ability of an Officer to __________.
A) create a healthy working environment
B) recognize signs of stress in an employee
C) deal with employees in a fair and consistent manner
D) establish trust with subordinates
Answer: B
B) recognize signs of stress in an employee
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3. Successful Employee Assistance Programs place a high value on __________.
A) critical incident stress management
B) transparency
C) confidentiality
D) personal relationships
Answer: C
C) confidentiality
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CHAPTER 10 – Organized Labor and the Fire Officer (0 Questions)
CHAPTER 11 - Working in the Community (2 Questions)
1. What is the first step in establishing a local public education program?
A) Establish objectives for the program.
B) Determine the resources that will be required.
C) Identify the fire or life-safety problem.
D) Identify the population to be instructed.
Answer: C
C) Identify the fire or life-safety problem.
52
2. Which NFPA standard outlines the principal duties of a public information officer?
A) 1035
B) 1028
C) 1021
D) 1001
Answer: A
A) 1035
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CHAPTER 12 - Handling Problems, Conflicts and Mistakes (3 Questions)
1. What happens to the number and complexity of decision-making situations as Fire Officers move up through the ranks?
A) Both the number and the complexity decrease.
B) The number increases, but the complexity decreases.
C) The complexity increases, but the number decreases.
D) Both the number and the complexity increase.
Answer: D
D) Both the number and the complexity increase.
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2. The primary purpose of an investigation of a complaint is to __________________.
A) determine the legitimacy of the complaint
B) establish the credibility of the department
C) get buy-in from the involved parties
D) obtain additional information
Answer: D
D) obtain additional information
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3. Which of the following is one of the four possible responses to an investigation?
A) Take no further action.
B) Refer the issue to another officer.
C) Table the issue.
D) None of the above
Answer: A
A) Take no further action.
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CHAPTER 13 – Pre-Incident Planning and Code Enforcement (12 Questions)
1. A facility with which feature, is required to submit information to the local emergency planning council in connection with pre-incident planning?
A) Elevators intended for human use
B) Height of four stories or more
C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials
D) High terrorist target potential
Answer: C
C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials
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2. Which of the following is a primary goal of pre-incident planning?
A) Allow for office-based code inspections
B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions
C) Put a face on the fire department that the community can see
D) Document the history of calls to that building
Answer: B
B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions
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3. In the pre-incident plan, assessment of the roof, floor, and wall construction and their structural integrity should focus on ________________________________.
A) factors that could lead to collapse
B) the expected level of difficulty of making an interior breach between rooms
C) the likely flow paths
D) where the utility lines run within the walls and floors
Answer: A
A) factors that could lead to collapse
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4. A facility that has an evacuation or emergency operations plan should provide the Fire Department with __________________ as soon as command is established.
A) a liaison
B) access to the public-address system
C) a schematic of the private fire protection system
D) facility-specific protective ensembles
Answer: A
A) a liaison
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5. What is the major risk factor that should be considered with assembly occupancies?
A) Ceiling collapse
B) Fire spread to adjacent exposures
C) Multiple-fatality fires
D) Combustible construction
Answer: C
C) Multiple-fatality fires
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6. Which NFPA term means “an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or a procedure”?
A) Responsible party
B) Enforcing agency
C) Regulatory body
D) Authority having jurisdiction
Answer: D
D) Authority having jurisdiction
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7. Which of the following is legally enforceable?
A) Fire code
B) Building code
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A or B
Answer: C
C) Both A and B
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8. Which NFPA standard provides information on pre-incident planning?
A) NFPA 1001
B) NFPA 1500
C) NFPA 1620
D) NFPA 1981
Answer: C
C) NFPA 1620
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9. Properties containing agricultural equipment, electronic data processing equipment, or scientific equipment; fine arts centers; and storage or manufacturing sites are examples of ____________ properties.
A) high-rise
B) assemblies
C) multistory
D) high-value
Answer: D
D) high-value
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10. Nuclear power plants, bulk fuel storage facilities, hospitals, and jails are examples of ____________ properties.
A) high-risk
B) assemblies
C) multistory
D) high-value
Answer: A
A) high-risk
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11. Which type of code applies to existing buildings?
A) Building
B) Fire
C) Construction
D) Plan
Answer: B
B) Fire
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12. What can an agency conduct to identify hazards and the probability of the hazard occurring?
A) Business continuity evaluation
B) Hazard analysis
C) Incident probability analysis
D) Risk assessment
Answer: D
D) Risk assessment
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CHAPTER 14 – Budgeting and Organizational Change (11 Questions)
1. A ______________ is defined as an itemized summary of estimated or intended revenues and expenditures.
A) fiscal analysis
B) budget
C) revenue plan
D) financial plan
Answer: B
B) budget
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2. What is the first step in the budget process?
A) Differentiation of capital and consumable items
B) Shadow analysis of prior period expenditures
C) Efficiency determination of goods versus services
D) Identification of needs and required resources
Answer: D
D) Identification of needs and required resources
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3. In a Career Fire Department, approximately _____ of the budget goes to personnel expenses.
A) 60 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 80 percent
D) 90 percent
Answer: D
D) 90 percent
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4. Which of the following is a capital item?
A) Gasoline
B) Electricity
C) SCBA
D) Maintenance services
Answer: C
C) SCBA
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5. One of the best ways to ensure approval of a budget proposal is to show that __________.
A) it is necessary to comply with some legal requirement
B) it is voluntary and would represent goodwill by the governing body
C) it would be a popular action to take
D) the entire fire department is behind the request
Answer: A
A) it is necessary to comply with some legal requirement
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6. Uniforms are classified as which type of expense?
A) Periodic
B) General
C) Capital
D) Operating
Answer: D
D) Operating
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7. In a bidding process, the requirements that the purchase must meet are stated in the __________.
A) vendor provisions
B) stated provisions
C) specs
D) performance requirement bond
Answer: C
C) specs
75
8. What has been used in recent years to streamline purchases and leverage greater discounts?
A) Requests for proposal
B) The Internet
C) Adoption of military specifications
D) Interagency cooperation
Answer: D L
D) Interagency cooperation
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9. Which type of expenditure is a durable item that will last more than one year?
A) Capital
B) Operating
C) Durable
D) Fixed
Answer: A
A) Capital
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10. Which budget covers the day-to-day costs of delivering services?
A) Capital
B) Operating
C) Administrative
D) Recurring
Answer: B
B) Operating
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11. Which purchasing process is best suited for complex, technical items?
A) Purchase order
B) Requisition
C) Request for proposal
D) Bid by specifications
Answer: C
C) Request for proposal
79
CHAPTER 15 – Managing Incidents (12 Questions)
1. One of the benefits of the ICS is to maintain ________________.
A) a manageable span of control
B) unity of command
C) a unified command structure
D) a rational risk–benefit ratio
Answer: A
A) a manageable span of control
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2. In the ICS, which command level defines the actions necessary to achieve the strategic goals?
A) Strategic
B) Logical
C) Tactical
D) Executive
Answer: C
C) Tactical
81
3. Which of the following is one of the three strategic priorities within the ICS?
A) NIMS compliance
B) Incident stabilization
C) Restoration of property
D) Determination of cause
Answer: B
B) Incident stabilization
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4. In the ICS, who is responsible for assigning the needed resources to perform the tactical assignments at an incident?
A) Individual company officers
B) Incident commander
C) Chief fire official
D) Division or group supervisor
Answer: B
B) Incident commander
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5. Which of the following is one of the three command options that the first-arriving companylevel fire officer has when arriving at an incident and assuming command?
A) Defensive mode
B) Rescue mode
C) Investigation mode
D) Offensive mode
Answer: C
C) Investigation mode
84
6. What is the preferred method of communication between two officers during transfer of command?
A) Radio
B) Face-to-face
C) Writing
D) There is no preferred method
Answer: B
B) Face-to-face
85
7. Which of the following is one of the five components of NIMS?
A) Resource management
B) Programmed response
C) Recovery
D) Reimbursement
Answer: A
A) Resource management
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8. Which component of ICS outlines the strategic objectives and states how emergency operations will be conducted?
A) Operational plan
B) Standard operating procedures
C) Incident action plan
D) Situation status briefing
Answer: C
C) Incident action plan
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9. Where should later-arriving units stand by while awaiting instructions?
A) The nearest fire station
B) Rehab
C) The staging area
D) The command post
Answer: C
C) The staging area
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10. When a fire officer observes poor performance by an individual on an incident scene, the matter should be discussed ___________.
A) in private
B) immediately
C) with the entire crew
D) during the incident critique
Answer: A
A) in private
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11. When conducting an incident review for a building fire, the process should begin with _________________.
A) the initial 911 call
B) a review of the building
C) the first-arriving fire officer
D) the first officer to enter the structure
Answer: B
B) a review of the building
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12. During a critique, in which order should fire officers present their descriptions of the incident?
A) By order of rank, from lowest to highest
B) By order of rank, from highest to lowest
C) In the order they arrived on scene
D) In any order
Answer: C
C) In the order they arrived on scene
91
CHAPTER 16 – Rules of Engagement (12 Questions)
1. According to the Rules of Engagement, who makes the final decision regarding whether to proceed with an assigned objective?
A) The company tasked with achieving the objective
B) The Safety Officer
C) The Operations Chief
D) The Incident Commander
Answer: A
A) The company tasked with achieving the objective
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2. What is the first Rule of Engagement?
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.
D) Size up the tactical area of operation.
Answer: D
D) Size up the tactical area of operation.
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3. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a legacy home occurs in about _____ minutes.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
Answer: D
D) 30
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4. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a modern home occurs in about _____.
A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds
B) 6 minutes
C) 10 minutes and 30 seconds
D) 13 minutes and 20 seconds
Answer: A
A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds
95
5. What is Rule 2 of the Rules of Engagement?
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
D) Determine and control the flow path.
Answer: A
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
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6. Which phrase best summarizes the factors to be considered when determining the occupant survivability profile?
A) Fire conditions upon arrival of the fire department
B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process
C) The likely location of the occupants
D) Available resources
Answer: B
B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process
97
7. According to the Rules of Engagement, how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save property that is “savable”?
A) None
B) Incidental
C) Limited
D) Significant
Answer: C
C) Limited
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8. What is Rule 4 of the Rules of Engagement?
A) Observe the benchmarks of air management.
B) Maintain continuous awareness of fire conditions.
C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.
D) Look for and respond to changes in the situation.
Answer: C
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9. Which term means “the level of understanding and awareness one has regarding the reality of a set of conditions”?
A) Size-up
B) Situational awareness
C) Command presence
D) Survival orientation
Answer: B
B) Situational awareness
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10. What is Rule 6 of the Rules of Engagement?
A) Maintain situational awareness through air management.
B) Constantly monitor communications for critical information.
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
D) Situational awareness is everyone’s responsibility.
Answer: C
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
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11. Which strategy is the most appropriate when a structure is fully involved in fire and the fire is threatening adjacent exposures?
A) Combination
B) Offensive
C) Transitional
D) Defensive
Answer: D
D) Defensive
102
12. According to the Rules of Engagement, who is responsible for observing and reporting unsafe conditions?
A) Everyone at the incident
B) Operations Chief
C) Safety Officer
D) Company Officers/team leaders
Answer: A
A) Everyone at the incident
103
CHAPTER 17 – Fire Attack (14 Questions)
1. What is the key to using an authoritative style of leadership effectively?
A) Projecting an overwhelming “command presence” that brooks no opposition
B) Giving orders only after beginning the activity being ordered
C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident
D) Consistent application of the “red-hot stove rule”
Answer: C
104
2. What is a primary product of a strong emphasis on SOPs?
A) Reduced reflex time
B) Strong leadership
C) Reduced supervisory load
D) Operational efficiency
Answer: D
D) Operational efficiency
105
3. What allows Fire Officers to be able to predict where the fire is burning and where it will spread?
A) The hot lap
B) Forcible entry
C) Knowledge of fire behavior
D) Familiarity with the specific structure
Answer: C
C) Knowledge of fire behavior
106
4. What does churning smoke indicate?
A) High organic fuel content
B) Ventilation-controlled fire
C) High heat-release rate
D) Fuel-controlled fire
Answer: C
C) High heat-release rate
107
5. Fire development in modern structures is __________-limited.
A) fuel
B) temperature
C) time
D) ventilation
Answer: D
D) ventilation
108
6. What is the end result of a good size-up?
A) Good tactical execution
B) An effective incident action plan
C) Unity of command
D) An incident command staff
Answer: B
B) An effective incident action plan
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7. Which strategy would an Incident Commander select when he or she believes the benefits of controlling and extinguishing the fire outweigh the risks to fire fighters?
A) Transitional
B) Combination
C) Offensive
D) Defensive
Answer: C
C) Offensive
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8. Compared to legacy dwellings, modern structures __________.
A) have greater compartmentalization
B) have a lower heat-release rate
C) have a shorter time to flashover
D) are less sensitive to changes in flow path
Answer: C
C) have a shorter time to flashover
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9. What are the two major components of the incident action plan?
A) Risk and analysis
B) Tactics and strategies
C) Staffing and fire conditions
D) Resources and fire flow requirements
Answer: B
B) Tactics and strategies
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10. Which incident priority takes precedence over the others?
A) Property conservation
B) Incident stabilization
C) Life safety
D) Fire attack
Answer: C
C) Life safety
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11. On what basis does the Incident Commander assign resources when tasks outnumber available resources?
A) Risk–benefit analysis
B) Tactical priorities and available resources
C) Tasks and conditions
D) Strategies and tactics
Answer: B
B) Tactical priorities and available resources
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12. Which resource can a Fire Officer consult to determine evacuation distances?
A) Fire Protection Handbook
B) NFPA Handbook
C) NIOSH Handbook
D) Emergency Response Guidebook
Answer: D
D) Emergency Response Guidebook
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13. In which type of building do the majority of civilian deaths occur?
A) Shopping malls
B) High-rise apartments
C) Multiple-family dwellings
D) Single-family dwellings
Answer: D
D) Single-family dwellings
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14. How do cathedral ceilings affect firefighting operations?
A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.
B) They are more prone to self-ventilation.
C) They increase heat build-up.
D) They are more prone to collapse.
Answer: A
A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.
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CHAPTER 18– Fire Cause and Determination (21 Questions)
1. When is the fire cause investigation conducted?
A) After the fire has been brought under control, but is not yet extinguished
B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner
C) Within the several hours immediately after the property is turned back over to the owner
D) After issuance of a warrant
Answer: B
B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner
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2. Who is responsible for conducting the fire cause investigation?
A) Chief fire official
B) Incident Commander
C) Property owner (by hiring a private agency)
D) Officer from the first-arriving engine company
Answer: B
B) Incident Commander
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3. A fire’s point of origin is usually determined by _________________________.
A) interviewing owners, witnesses, and bystanders
B) interpreting fire pattern evidence
C) using the Iowa volume formula
D) chemical sampling and analysis
Answer: B
B) interpreting fire pattern evidence
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4. A U- or V-shaped fire pattern is also known as ________.
A) pattern inversion
B) movement pattern
C) wall jet
D) day-sleeper’s fire
Answer: B
B) movement pattern
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5. What is the relationship between char and a fire’s point of origin?
A) The cracklier the char, the closer that surface was to facing 90 degrees from the direction of the point of origin.
B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.
C) Sooty char means it was far from the point or origin. D) There is no relationship between the two.
Answer: B
B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.
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6. In fire cause determination, when figuring out which fuel was first ignited, both the fuel type and the fuel _______________ must be identified.
A) condition
B) form
C) weight
D) specific gravity
Answer: B
B) form
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7. In fire cause determination, in addition to identifying and focusing on a possible cause that fits the circumstances, the investigator must __________.
A) interview suspects
B) take and submit samples
C) consult with law enforcement
D) rule out all other possibilities
Answer: D
D) rule out all other possibilities
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8. After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted, if two or more potential causes remain, the cause of the fire should be reported as __________.
A) the most likely of the potential causes
B) under investigation
C) undetermined
D) unreportable
Answer: C
C) undetermined
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9. What is the usual location of the ignition source relative to the point of origin?
A) Anywhere in the fire-burned area
B) At the opposite end of the flow path
C) In direct contact with the point of origin
D) At or near the point of origin
Answer: D
D) At or near the point of origin
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10. What does “transmission” mean in the context of a competent ignition source?
A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation
B) Sufficient heat energy being transmitted from the point of origin to the first exposure
C) Actions made in preparation for the creation of the ignition source
D) The act of changing a human intention into a physical fact of action
Answer: A
A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation
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11. Which of the following statements about the use of fire fighters as sources of information in fire cause determination is correct?
A) Their observations are valid only if they are cross-trained and certified as fire investigators.
B) They must be direct witnesses to an act or omission. C) The testimony of fire fighters is not legally valid.
D) Their observations can be relevant and valuable.
Answer: D
D) Their observations can be relevant and valuable.
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12. A(n) _________________ is used when an individual who is attempting to conceal information is being questioned.
A) ex parte interview
B) cross-examination
C) corroboration
D) interrogation
Answer: D
D) interrogation
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13. What is suggested by a vehicle fire involving a relatively new car that had its tires removed and replaced with old, worn-out tires?
A) The car may have been recently sold.
B) The owner intended to keep the car.
C) The fire may have been deliberately set.
D) The car may have been stolen.
Answer: C
C) The fire may have been deliberately set.
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14. What is the fire investigator’s primary responsibility when conducting a fire investigation?
A) Develop a properly documented case.
B) Determine the point of origin.
C) Determine the identity of the arsonist.
D) Complete the NFIRS documentation.
Answer: A
A) Develop a properly documented case.
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15. Which of the following is one of the three components of a competent ignition source?
A) Pyrolysis
B) Generation
C) Contact
D) Transfer
Answer: B
B) Generation
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16. When determining which material ignited first, the _____________ tells how the material is used.
A) type of material
B) configuration
C) form of material
D) material class
Answer: C
C) form of material
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17. Which of the following is the most likely indicator that a fire was intentionally set?
A) Multiple points of origin
B) U-pattern on the wall
C) Charring along a door frame
D) Inverted burn pattern
Answer: A
A) Multiple points of origin
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18. What is the flammable liquid of choice for most amateur arsonists?
A) Oil
B) Gasoline
C) Lighter fluid
D) Charcoal lighting fluid
Answer: B
B) Gasoline
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19. What must a Fire Officer do after he or she requests a fire investigator to respond to a suspected crime scene?
A) Secure the scene.
B) Notify the fire chief.
C) Instruct fire fighters to perform salvage and overhaul.
D) Collect evidence.
Answer: A
A) Secure the scene.
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20. Incendiary devices are tangible items that are classified as _________ evidence.
A) physical
B) demonstrative
C) documentary
D) admissible
Answer: B
B) demonstrative
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21. Who is responsible for preventing the contamination of evidence?
A) Fire investigator
B) Law enforcement
C) Fire crews on the scene
D) Homeowners
Answer: C
C) Fire crews on the scene
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Fire Service Instructor NFPA 1041 - Jones & Bartlett (Second Edition)
CHAPTER 01 – Today’s Emergency Services Instructor (11 Questions)
1. According to the text, this is the key to bringing excitement to the training environment.
A) Innovation
B) Motivation
C) Modernization
D) Experimentation
Ans: B
B) Motivation
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2. This level of instructor typically works as an overall training program manager.
A) Instructor I
B) Instructor II
C) Instructor III
D) Instructor I & II
Ans: C
C) Instructor III
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3. How do fire service instructors with mentorship abilities enhance the fire department's survival and success?
A) By developing budgets
B) By evaluating and developing the talent pool
C) By writing extensive suggested operating guidelines
D) By analyzing response data
Ans: B
B) By evaluating and developing the talent pool
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4. Of the following, which can be accomplished by fire service instructors?
A) Evaluate fire fighters
B) Suggest operational directives
C) Field-test new standard operating procedures
D) All of the above
Ans: D
D) All of the above
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5. How are changes and advancements in firefighting tactics implemented?
A) Through revisions in training curriculum
B) Through increases in budget categories
C) Through updating of
D) Through publication in fire service trade journals
Ans: A
A) Through revisions in training curriculum
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6. The fire service instructor walks a fine line between which two essential aspects of his or her fire department organization?
A) Operations and Training
B) Administration and Operations
C) Inspection and Prevention
D) Training and Safety
Ans: A
A) Operations and Training
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7. What are the principles used to define behavior that is not specifically governed by rules or laws but rather in many cases by public perceptions of right or wrong?
A) Standards
B) Morals
C) Ethics
D) Quotas
Ans: C
C) Ethics
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8. Why is it important to document students who fail to meet training objectives?
A) To protect the integrity of the program
B) To provide grounds for termination
C) To evaluate the training curriculum
D) To provide feedback to the program coordinator
Ans: A
A) To protect the integrity of the program
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9. Good leaders are also good at identifying future _______________.
A) Leaders
B) Equipment
C) Resources
D) Training dates
Ans: A
A) Leaders
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10. ________________________ is the act of ensuring the continuity of the organization by preparing future leaders.
A) Long-term planning
B) Succession planning
C) Short-term planning
D) Pre-fire planning
Ans: B
B) Succession planning
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11. A set of guidelines outlining behaviors, qualifications of positions, or specifications for equipment or processes is known as __________________________.
A) Standards
B) Directives
C) Policies
D) Procedures
Ans: A
A) Standards
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CHAPTER 02 – Legal Issues (5 Questions)
1. Which NFPA standard specifies a checklist of safety activities to be followed when performing a controlled burn?
A) 1500
B) 1710
C) 1925
D) 1403
Ans: D
D) 1403
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2. The first line of defense against lawsuits is what?
A) Remaining up to date with current trends
B) Reading current trade service periodicals
C) Attending college-level classes
D) Maintaining proper and thorough record keeping
Ans: D
D) Maintaining proper and thorough record keeping
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3. Materials prepared for a training evolution should set forth what?
A) The purpose of the training
B) The equipment to be used
C) The goals of the training
D) All of the above
Ans: D
D) All of the above
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4. When using facilities or equipment that you have not used before, it is important to get __________.
A) A hold harmless and indemnification agreement
B) A receipt proving ownership
C) Proper instruction from a qualified person
D) Current maintenance records
Ans: C
C) Proper instruction from a qualified person
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5. A vital function of the fire service instructor is to minimize ___________.
A) Inconvenience
B) Class time
C) Training costs
D) Risk
Ans: D
D) Risk
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CHAPTER 03 – Methods of Instruction (2 Questions)
1. Which of the following play(s) a large role in the method of instruction that is used to deliver a training session?
A) Lesson plan content
B) Instructor's ability
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Ans: C
C) Both A and B
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2. Which of the following questions should you ask yourself when reviewing and planning for the delivery of a lesson plan?
A) What are the goals of the lesson?
B) How will you achieve those goals?
C) How will you know when those goals are achieved?
D) All of the above
Ans: D
D) All of the above
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CHAPTER 06 – Lesson Plans (1 Questions)
1. A _____________________ describes a specific job task, lists the items necessary to complete the task, and defines measurable or observable outcomes and evaluation areas for the specific task.
A) Risk/benefit analysis
B) Job performance requirement
C) Job/task analysis
D) Task performance prerequisite
Ans: B
B) Job performance requirement
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CHAPTER 07 – The Learning Environment (3 Questions)
1. __________ is defined as a combination of the classroom's physical and emotional elements.
A) Learning environment
B) Training grounds
C) Classroom
D) Administrative offices
Ans: A
A) Learning environment
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2. Learning environments can include both ____________ and _____________ settings.
A) Rated, unrated
B) Daily, weekly
C) Career, volunteer
D) Formal, informal
Ans: D
D) Formal, informal
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3. Proper selection of the __________________ will determine the success or failure of the class in meeting the learning objectives.
A) Overtime rate
B) Learning environment
C) Textbooks
D) Class roster
Ans: B
B) Learning environment
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CHAPTER 09 – Safety During the Learning Process (7 Questions)
1. What training activity tops the list of high-risk training events?
A) Ladder deployment
B) Search and rescue
C) Live fire attack
D) Technical rescue
Ans: C
C) Live fire attack
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2. Safety during training begins when?
A) After the drill is over
B) In the burn tower
C) On the drill grounds
D) In the classroom
Ans: D
D) In the classroom
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3. One of the more common causes of injuries during training is _____________________.
A) Faulty equipment
B) Horseplay
C) Failure to follow established safety practices
D) Excessive pump pressures
Ans: C
C) Failure to follow established safety practices
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4. ______________ is the title given to the individual who is appointed by the authority having jurisdiction and is qualified to maintain a safe working environment at all training evolutions.
A) Company Officer
B) Incident Commander
C) Officer in charge
D) Safety Officer
Ans: D
D) Safety Officer
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5. ______________ is the title given to the individual who is qualified as an instructor and designated by the authority having jurisdiction to be in charge of the fire fighter training.
A) Officer in charge
B) Instructor in charge
C) Incident Commander
D) Safety Officer
Ans: B
B) Instructor in charge
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6. The primary goal of virtually all training in the fire service must be to create (a) _______________________________.
A) Well-balanced schedule
B) Safety-conscious student
C) Good employee-customer relationship
D) Effective product testing grounds
Ans: B
B) Safety-conscious student
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7. The proper student-to-instructor ratio when conducting training involving live fire is recommended to be ____________________.
A) 1:1
B) 3:1
C) 5:1
D) 7:1
Ans: C
C) 5:1
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CHAPTER 10 – Evaluating the Learning Process (3 Questions)
1. Performance tests should be reviewed by SMEs to ensure their technical accuracy. “SME” stands for _____________________________________.
A) Subject Matter Expert
B) Standard Matter Evaluator
C) Subject Mastery Expert
D) Standard Material Evaluator
Ans: A
A) Subject Matter Expert
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2. What is the characteristic of a test that measures what it is intended to measure on a consistent basis?
A) Competency
B) Responsibility
C) Validity
D) Reliability
Ans: D
D) Reliability
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3. The most significant advantage of using valid and reliable computer-based test banks with large numbers of questions is what?
A) The amount of time saved in test development
B) The money saved by purchasing test bank questions
C) The statistics available from post-test analysis
D) The reduction in chances for test compromise
Ans: D
D) The reduction in chances for test compromise
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CHAPTER 11 – Evaluating the Fire Service Instructor (3 Questions)
1. If the fire service coursework addresses practical evolutions, the fire service instructor should wear ______________________________.
A) A lesser level of protection as that required of the students
B) The same level of protection as that required of the students
C) A greater level of protection as that required of the students
D) None of the above
Ans: B
B) The same level of protection as that required of the students
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2. During practical or drill-ground evaluations, the major focus of the evaluation is the ____________________________________.
A) Attainment of personal goals
B) Completion of learning objectives
C) Accomplishment of timing features
D) Safety of the students
Ans: D
D) Safety of the students
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3. Course evaluations typically include which of the following sections for the student to evaluate?
A) Fire service instructor
B) Classroom setting
C) Instructional materials
D) All of the above
Ans: D
D) All of the above
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CHAPTER 12 – Scheduling and Resource Management (3 Questions)
1. The primary function of the Fire Instructor II position is to __________________________.
A) Budget sufficient funds to buy new equipment
B) Develop new curriculum
C) Purchase new apparatus maintenance manuals
D) Manage the training program so that it is delivered effectively
Ans: D
D) Manage the training program so that it is delivered effectively
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2. The most common delivery method of training in the fire service is _______________.
A) On the job
B) Computer based
C) In-service drills
D) College classes
Ans: C
C) In-service drills
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3. The best training schedules, calendars, and _________________________ are tested daily when the alarm sounds, and departments respond to calls for service.
A) Organizational skills
B) Fire apparatus
C) Power tools
D) Emergency operations plan
Ans: A
A) Organizational skills
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CHAPTER 13 – Instructional Curriculum Development (5 Questions)
1. A typical method of conducting a training needs assessment is through ____________.
A) Curriculum development
B) Job observation
C) Instructor evaluation
D) None of the above
Ans: B
B) Job observation
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2. Training needs assessments are designed to identify gaps or deficiencies in ________________.
A) Curriculum development
B) Skills and knowledge
C) Instructor performance
D) Student attendance
Ans: B
B) Skills and knowledge
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3. The most common method of determining training needs is the ________________ method.
A) Job observation
B) Compliance and regulation
C) Skill/knowledge development and improvement
D) None of the above
Ans: A L
A) Job observation
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4. Objectives that are achieved through the attainment of a skill, knowledge, or both and that can be measured or observed are known as ___________________________ objectives.
A) Curriculum
B) Enabling
C) Lesson
D) Behavioral
Ans: D
D) Behavioral
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5. When developing ______________________ objectives, it must be ensured that all safety issues and concerns are addressed for both the student and the instructor.
A) Learning
B) Behavioral
C) Terminal
D) Practical skill
Ans: D
D) Practical skill
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CHAPTER 15 – Training Program Management (2 Questions)
1. A major use of ______________________ is to assure regulatory compliance.
A) Attendance records
B) Lesson plans
C) Training records
D) Training plans
Ans: C
C) Training records
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2. The most common training record report is one used to:
A) Document purchases of training resources
B) Categorize suggested operating guidelines
C) Establish a training calendar
D) Document the ongoing training of members
Ans: D
D) Document the ongoing training of members
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5. When developing ______________________ objectives, it must be ensured that all safety issues and concerns are addressed for both the student and the instructor.
A) Learning
B) Behavioral
C) Terminal
D) Practical skill
Ans: D
D) Practical skill
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CHAPTER 15 – Training Program Management (2 Questions)
1. A major use of ______________________ is to assure regulatory compliance.
A) Attendance records
B) Lesson plans
C) Training records
D) Training plans
Ans: C
C) Training records
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2. The most common training record report is one used to:
A) Document purchases of training resources
B) Categorize suggested operating guidelines
C) Establish a training calendar
D) Document the ongoing training of members
Ans: D
D) Document the ongoing training of members
186
IFSTA - Essentials of Firefighting and Fire Department Operations (6th Edition)
VARIOUS CHAPTERS (4 Questions)
1. Chapter 9, states the priorities of a primary search are;
A) Most severely threatened, least severely threatened, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.
B) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, other of hazard zones, and exposures
C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.
D) None of the above
C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.
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2. Chapter 5 lists and explains the following backdraft indicators;
A) Building, Smoke, Exposures, Flames, and Surfaces.
B) Smoke, Air Flow, Weather, Exposures, and Volume.
C) Fuel Load, Air Flow, Heat, Structure, and Volume.
D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.
D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.
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3. Chapter 4, Building Construction - When considering the potential for structural collapse factors such as renovations, additions, alterations, age of the structure, weather and loads are all factors. Other factors include;
A) Construction type, initial fire conditions, stage of fire, open trusses, and amount of water used.
B) If the building is being renovated or demolished, if there are breached walls, and the contents.
C) Initial fire tactics and type of extinguishment used.
D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.
D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.
189
4. Chapter 1, Orientation and Fire Service History, states that responsibilities of a District/Battalion Chiefs:
A) Supervise a fire company in the station and at fires and other emergencies. They may also supervise a group of fire companies within their response area.
B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions.
C) Supervise a group of fire companies, logistics units, or other functions.
D) None of the above.
B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions.
190
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1. In the Ontario Fire Code (2015), Section 8.1 General, it states that when a Firewatch is required on a demolition site, the site shall be toured:
A) Continuously
B) At least once each hour
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Once every four hours
```
B) At least once each hour
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2. The Ontario Fire Code (2015), Part 2, requires that for specified buildings to have emergency planning, and for supervisory staff to have “instructions in emergency procedures” including that:
A) Supervisory staff shall be instructed in the fire emergency procedures as described in the fire safety plan before they are given responsibility for fire safety.
B) Supervisory staff shall hold fire drills at least once every six months.
C) Supervisory staff shall notify the Chief Fire Official prior to every fire drill.
D) Supervisory staff has a copy of the fire Emergency Plan procedures and other duties for staff posted on the wall. This will be updated on an annual basis.
A) Supervisory staff shall be instructed in the fire emergency procedures as described in the fire safety plan before they are given responsibility for fire safety.
192
3. In the Ontario Fire Code (2015), the definition of "Approved" means:
A) Approved by the Chief Fire Prevention Officer of a municipality
B) Approved by the General Manager of a municipality
C) Approved by a Fire inspector
D) Approved by the Chief Fire Official
D) Approved by the Chief Fire Official
193
1. The Occupational Health and Safety Act (RSO 1990) in Part VIII (Enforcement) under Section 62 (3) “False information etc.” (pg. 58) states,
A) If the internal responsibility system fails to address adequately the health and safety issues in a workplace, or if the Act and regulations are not being followed, the Ministry of Labour has the authority to enforce the law.
B) No person shall knowingly furnish an inspector with false information or neglect or refuse to furnish information required by an inspector.
C) Inspectors have broad powers to inspect any workplace, investigate any worker, supervisor or employer who provides false information and order compliance with the Act and regulations and initiate prosecutions.
D) Employers, supervisor and workers must assist and co-operate with inspectors
B) No person shall knowingly furnish an inspector with false information or neglect or refuse to furnish information required by an inspector.
194
2. The Occupational Health and Safety Act (RSO 1990) in Part III.0.1 (Violence and Harassment) under Section 32.0.1 (1) “Policies, violence and harassment” states an employer shall;
A) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace violence, prepare a policy with respect to workplace harassment, and review the policies as often as necessary, but at least annually.
B) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace violence, prepare a policy with respect to workplace harassment, and review the policies as often as necessary, but at least semi-annually
C) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace use of force, prepare a policy with respect to workplace persecution, and review the policies as often as necessary, but at least semi-annually
D) Prepare a document with respect to workplace violence, prepare a document with respect to workplace harassment, and review the document as often as necessary, but at least annually
A) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace violence, prepare a policy with respect to workplace harassment, and review the policies as often as necessary, but at least annually.
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3. Under Part V – “Right to Refuse or to Stop Work Where Health and Safety in Danger”, within the Occupational Health & Safety Act, until the investigation is completed, the worker __________.
A) Shall remain in the office / work station of his or her supervisor
B) Shall be sent home but must be readily available to return to the work site as required
C) Shall remain at a safe place that is as near as possible to his or her workplace.
D) Stay in the nearest designated lunch room
C) Shall remain at a safe place that is as near as possible to his or her workplace.
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4. In the Occupational Health and Safety Act, (RSO 1990) (Page 10) a supervisor is defined as:
A) A person who undertakes with an owner, constructor, contractor or sub-contractor, to perform work or supply services.
B) A person who performs work or supplies services for monetary compensation.
C) A person, appointed by an employer, who has charge of a workplace or authority over a worker.
D) None of the above
D) None of the above
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5. A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, (2015) Part III, Duties of Employers and Other Persons (Page 28) states that an Ontario Employer who is covered by the Act, has an obligation to appoint competent persons as supervisors. “Competent person” has a very specific meaning under the Act. He or She must:
A) Carry out inspections and investigations
B) Be qualified through knowledge, training and experience; to organize work and its performance.
C) Keep and maintain accurate records as prescribed.
D) Carry out any prescribed training programs for workers, supervisors and committee members.
B) Be qualified through knowledge, training and experience; to organize work and its performance.
198
6. A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, (2015) Part III, Duties of Supervisors (Page 32) states that the Act sets out certain specific duties for workplace supervisors. A supervisor must:
A) Provide any information that the committee has the power to obtain from the employer.
B) Comply with a prescribed standard that limits the exposure of a worker to biological, chemical or physical agents.
C) Post a copy of the Occupational Health and Safety Policy in the workplace.
D) Advise a worker of any potential or actual health or safety dangers known by the supervisor.
D) Advise a worker of any potential or actual health or safety dangers known by the supervisor.
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1. Ontario Fire Service, Fire Fighters Guidance Note #6-23 – Safety During Salvage and Overhaul states the most common risk that this aspect of firefighting presents is:
A) Potential for building collapse.
B) Respiratory exposure.
C) Electrocution.
D) Sprains and strains
B) Respiratory exposure.
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2. The Ontario Fire Service, Fire Fighters Guidance Note # 6-18 – Unprotected Lightweight Building Construction states that Incident Commanders should:
A) Consider the type of construction, the presence of protective sprinkler systems and to what extent the structure may have been damaged by the fire before initiating firefighting efforts and continually evaluate the risks during operations in buildings that contain unprotected lightweight construction.
B) Consider employing offensive fire attack strategies where no threat to human life exists within buildings that contain unprotected lightweight construction.
C) Always use a thermal imaging camera as part of size up.
D) Employ emergency warning procedures every time there is an incident involving fire in lightweight construction buildings.
A) Consider the type of construction, the presence of protective sprinkler systems and to what extent the structure may have been damaged by the fire before initiating firefighting efforts and continually evaluate the risks during operations in buildings that contain unprotected lightweight construction.
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3. Ontario Fire Service, Fire Fighters Guidance Note # 6-17 – “Clandestine Drug Labs/Marijuana Grow Houses” states that the primary concerns for fire fighters entering Marijuana Grow Houses and Clandestine Drug labs are____________:
A) Wire entanglement, toxic atmospheres, false floors and doorways, weapons, low hanging light fixtures, hoarding, unstable occupants, mold, unauthorized hydro connections,
B) Electrocution, flammable liquid explosions, structural collapse, chemical hazards, mold hazards, improperly contained toxic chemicals, and highly secured areas.
C) Electrocution, propane/natural gas/flammable liquid explosions, structural collapse, chemical hazards, toxic and corrosive atmospheric hazards, improperly contained toxic chemicals, and booby traps.
D) Proper decontamination, police notification, building department involvement, engineering department assessment, hydro disconnection, utilities suspended, and media interest.
C) Electrocution, propane/natural gas/flammable liquid explosions, structural collapse, chemical hazards, toxic and corrosive atmospheric hazards, improperly contained toxic chemicals, and booby traps.
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MEMORANDUMS and TRAINING BULLETINS (4 Questions)
1. Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – July 14 - 2011 – All Personnel Memo: 2011-AP221: Trade/Exchanges/Union Subs/ Overtime on the 24 hour Shift Schedule, states that “any twenty-four hour (24) period on duty must immediately be followed by a minimum of ________”:
A) Twenty (20) hours off duty.
B) Twenty-Four (24) hours off duty.
C) Twelve (12) hours off duty.
D) None of the above.
A) Twenty (20) hours off duty.
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2. Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – May 24, 2012 – All Personnel Memo: 2012-AP149, Training Bulletin #177 – Safety Bulletin Photovoltaic Systems concludes “the single most critical message of emergency response personnel_________________”:
A) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems all their components as de-energized if disconnected from the site panel.
B) Is to always consider the weight of the photovoltaic systems on construction components.
C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight.
D) Is always to have accurate knowledge of the type of photovoltaic system that has been on fire or impinged by fire.
C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight.
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3. Hamilton Fire Department – March 14, 2016, All Personnel Memorandum 2016-AP-094-01 REVISED Mobile Command Unit, states that the Command Unit may requested by ____:
A) The Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief, or Assistant Deputy Chief.
B) Incident Command, the Fire Chief, or the EOC (Emergency Operations Centre).
C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief.
D) A Platoon Chief, the Fire Chief, or Deputy Fire Chief.
C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief.
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4. Training Bulletin 184 - Where are secondary means of Egress Flags to be attached when put onto ground ladders used for secondary means of Egress?
A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung
B) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 1st rung
C) Onto the tied off halyard
D) On the tip of the ladder
A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung
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1. The Hamilton Fire Department Incident Management System Identifies the Tactical Benchmarks in the correct order as?
A) Primary Search, Under Control, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped
B) Primary Search, Secondary Search, Under Control, Loss Stopped
C) Under Control, Primary Search, Loss Stopped, Secondary Search
D) Primary Search, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped, Under Control
A) Primary Search, Under Control, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped
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2. In Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 12 “Flame Spread Rating” it states that; “Interior finish relates to fire in four ways”: ___________________.
A) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a Backdraft conditions
B) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover conditions
C) It affects the rate of fire development to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire extension by flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire by contributing additional fuel, and it produces smoke and toxic gases that can contribute to life hazard and property damage.
D) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire and flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire, and contributes to life hazards.
C) It affects the rate of fire development to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire extension by flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire by contributing additional fuel, and it produces smoke and toxic gases that can contribute to life hazard and property damage.
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3. Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 37 “Wood Construction” states that, “The vertical combustible spaces between studs in balloon frame construction provide a ______.
A) Space for ventilation of hot gases to travel to other area of the structure.
B) Channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor.
C) Channel for the deployment of extinguishment from one area of the structure to another.
D) None of the above.
B) Channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor.
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4. Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 41 “Concrete” states “the problems of the fire department with concrete construction can be divided into three distinct subjects’
A) Collapse during firefighting operations, fire during construction, and fire when not occupied.
B) Collapse during construction with no fire, fire when under construction, fire in completed occupied buildings.
C) Pre-tensioning and post-tensioning increasing the danger of additional stresses, reinforcing rods increasing injury hazards, and precast concrete having hollow spaces that provide channels for fire spread.
D) Concrete is non-combustible but can be destroyed by fire, fire can compromise its strength if under excessive load, and it can protect the tensile strength of steel for a limited duration.
B) Collapse during construction with no fire, fire when under construction, fire in completed occupied buildings.
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5. In Book 2, Chapter 3, High Rise Construction, “the vertical travel of smoke and fire gases is aided by various openings, such as stairways, duct work and shaft ways that pierce floors.” It may also occur;
A) Through laundry chutes, escalator shafts, suspended ceilings, and attics.
B) Through laundry and trash chutes, elevator shafts, dumbwaiter shafts, and mail chutes.
C) Through elevator shafts, attic openings, sewer lines, and confined spaces
D) Through trash chutes, adjacent attics, dumbwaiter shafts, and confined spaces.
B) Through laundry and trash chutes, elevator shafts, dumbwaiter shafts, and mail chutes.
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1. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Policy 0118.00 Training Sessions, Courses & Conferences, it states, the “the District Senior Officers are responsible to see that each Career Fire-fighter on their shift and within their respective district is given a minimum of ______ per calendar year.
A) 150 to 200 hours of drill
B) 160 hours of drill
C) 100 hours theory and 80 hours practical
D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical
D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical
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2. In Hamilton Fire Department, Operational Policy 0113.00, Administration & Personnel/Uniforms, it states that;
A) Uniforms may be worn off-duty for community events.
B) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty.
C) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorized activities without the permission of the Fire Chief.
D) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorized activities without the permission of the respective Divisional Chief or Platoon Chief.
C) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorized activities without the permission of the Fire Chief.
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3. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Policy 0113.00, Administration & Personnel/Uniforms states that between the hours of _________, Monday to Sunday; Senior Officers and personnel acting in the role of Senior Officer shall wear their Class A – Working (Class A-W) uniforms.
A) 07:00 – 17:00hrs
B) 07:00 – 19:00hrs
C) 08:00 – 16:00hrs
D) 08:00 – 18:00hrs
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B) 07:00 – 19:00hrs
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4. Policy and Procedures – 0301.00 Incident Reporting – All reports shall be completed in ________ measurements?
A) Imperial
B) English
C) Metric
D) Metric and Imperial
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C) Metric
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5. Policy and Procedures, 0301.00 Incident Reporting – Company Officers observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the _____________ for that District who shall take appropriate action. All actions shall be reported in the Fire RMS using the Incident Action Request box and the narrative fields of the Incident Master Record or Apparatus Response Reports (Officers Supplemental)
A) Fire Prevention Officer
B) Senior Officer
C) Fire Inspector
D) Platoon Chief
B) Senior Officer
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6. Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting – District Senior Officers reviewing the Fire RMS Reports, the main objectives of the review process are to __________ ?
A) Ensure the reports being submitted are accurate
B) Ensure sufficient detail to reflect what took place
C) Raise the standard of report writing
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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7. Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting - District Senior Officers shall follow up with respective Company Officers to ensure Satisfactory reporting. Any identified deficiencies will be ___________?
A) corrected
B) debated
C) discussed
D) reviewed
A) corrected
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8. Policy and Procedures 0306.00 Notebooks - When an individual has filled a notebook, they shall contact their _________/Area Commander who will come and collect the full notebook and issue the individual a replacement. The ____________/Area Commander will then ensure that the completed notebook is sent to the Fire Prevention Bureau at 55 King William Street where it will be retained with 1.06 (above).
A) Platoon Chief
B) Senior Officer
C) Chief Fire Prevention Officer
D) Assistant Deputy Chief Operations
B) Senior Officer
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9. Policy & Procedure 0608.00 Overhaul Operations – After a fire has been extinguished and salvage and overhaul operations completed, the debris carried out from the house or building should be placed?
A) At the front of the building
B) At the rear of the building
C) At the side of the building
D) Does not matter
B) At the rear of the building
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10. Policy & Procedure 0649.00 Barrel Fires During Protests and Labour Action – Questions regarding warming barrel fires by HFD personnel or members of the public should be directed to?
A) The Fire Prevention Bureau.
B) The Fire Chief
C) The Public Information Officer
D) The Platoon Chief
A) The Fire Prevention Bureau.
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11. Policy & Procedure 0624.00 Technical Standards & Safety Authority – If, in the opinion of the Incident Commander, the use or handling of Hydrocarbon Fuels (gasoline, fuel oil, natural gas, propane, etc..) is directly involved with the suspected cause of the incident, who is the I.C. to notify?
A) Communications to contact TSSA
B) Communications to contact Senior Officer, if not on scene.
C) Communications to contact Deputy Chief D) All of the above
A) Communications to contact TSSA
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12. Policy & Procedure 0606.00 When the Communication Center initiates the evacuation tones, which one of the following sequence of tones shall be heard over the fire ground frequency_____?
A) 5 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 5 seconds of tones
B) 10 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 10 seconds of tones
C) 15 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 15 seconds of tones
D) 5 seconds of tones, 15 second delay, 5 seconds of tones
C) 15 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 15 seconds of tones
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1. Hamilton The City of Hamilton Corporate Culture Pillars are comprised of five pillars two of which are:
A) Enthusiastic Employees and Collective Ownership
B) Steadfast Integrity and Continuous Improvement
C) Sensational Service and Courageous Change
D) Engaged Empowered Employees and Collective Change
C) Sensational Service and Courageous Change
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2. Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy, Management is responsible to ensure that a workplace is free of Harassment and Discrimination by undertaking the following action:
A) When notified about a possible harassment issue establish a cooling off period to allow employs to rethink their actions
B) When notified about a harassment or discrimination complaint immediately conduct a formal investigation into the matter
C) When notified about a harassment or discrimination complaint advise the employee to contact Human Resources about the matter
D) When notified about harassment or discrimination issues immediately contact a City of Hamilton Human Rights Specialist.
D) When notified about harassment or discrimination issues immediately contact a City of Hamilton Human Rights Specialist.
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3. Managers have a major role in ensuring that the City of Hamilton maintains an environment that is safe for all employees. Which of following is not a manager`s responsibility under the Violence in the workplace prevention Policy:
A) Ensure that the Workplace Violence is not tolerated, ignored or condoned
B) Discipline employees in consultation with Human Resources found to have violated the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Policy
C) Participate in the investigation of critical injuries as a result of violence
D) Consult Human Resources for support concerning options to resolve incidents
C) Participate in the investigation of critical injuries as a result of violence
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4. In accordance with The City of Hamilton Communication Policy - Media Relations, Appendix 2 Social Media Use, the purpose and rationale in establishing a Social Media Use Policy is to:
A) Ensure the media have current information on city issues
B) Limit the liability of employees and the corporation
C) Provide city staff with an opportunity to comment on city issues
D) All of the above
B) Limit the liability of employees and the corporation
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5. In accordance with the Substance Use Procedure, Item 3. Steps to be Taken If You Believe that an Employee is Impaired /Unfit for Duty, a supervisor may undertake the following actions for an employee believed to be impaired/unfit for duty:
A) Remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for their behavior
B) Seek the opinion of a second supervisor where possible to confirm your observation
C) If there is reasonable cause to believe that an employee is impaired/unfit for duty, the employee must be removed immediately from the workplace
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
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6. In accordance with the City of Hamilton, Code of Conduct for Employees Policy ( Policy HR -01-09) Directors , Managers, Supervisors and Elected Officials must:
A) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct annually
B) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct on a bi annual basis
C) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct on a quarterly basis
D) None of the above
A) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct annually
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7. In the City of Hamilton Code of Conduct for Employees Schedule A: Conflict of Interest, if an employee has a conflict of interest they must notify their:
A) Immediate supervisor through verbal notification
B) Immediate supervisor by the end of the work day
C) Immediate supervisor in writing
D) Union representative of their conflict
C) Immediate supervisor in writing
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8. The City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy (Page 2) applies to all employees except:
A) Probationary employees
B) Visitors to city facilities
C) Student employees
D) Interns
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B) Visitors to city facilities
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9. In accordance with the City of Hamilton Smoke Free Workplace Policy, the purpose of the policy is to;
A) Protect employees from the potential hazards related to direct exposure to environmental tobacco smoke
B) To comply with the Hamilton Clean Air mandate
C) To reduce the environmental impact of the carbon footprint of the City
D) All of the above
A) Protect employees from the potential hazards related to direct exposure to environmental tobacco smoke
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1. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0608.00, Emergency Scene Operations/Overhaul Operations, states that “this document establishes guidelines for conducting overhaul operations. The goal of overhaul is to reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing for firefighter safety in doing so.” Additional objectives include;
A) Monitoring air quality, notifying personnel of safety hazards, checking exposures, and maintaining continuity of evidence.
B) Contacting responsible parties, contacting utilities, and ensuring police are securing the scene.
C) Preserving evidence and securing the fire scene.
D) Preserving property, ventilating, securing the scene, and conducting salvage operations
C) Preserving evidence and securing the fire scene.
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2. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0602.00 - Emergency Scene Operations/Firefighting Operations – General, under Cause Determination, it states that “it is the responsibility of the HFD to endeavor to determine fire cause and origin” and the Incident Commander responsibilities are; A
) Contacting and assisting the Fire Marshal with determining cause.
B) Assessing and reporting the fire cause and origin, in addition to contacting the OFM and Police if the cause is suspicious.
C) Assessing the dollar loss, using all available resources in determining cause, reporting the cause, and contacting the OFM if the cause is suspicious.
D) Assessing only the origin of the fire, using only those resources readily available to assist in determining the origin, reporting only the possible origin, and contacting police if the possible cause is suspicious.
B) Assessing and reporting the fire cause and origin, in addition to contacting the OFM and Police if the cause is suspicious.
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3. In Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0501.00 Incident Management/Incident Management Systems, under Components of the Incident Management System it states “the Incident Management System is comprised of three main components:
A) Incident Structure (to co-ordinate accountability of resources), Entry System (to track personnel entering the incident), and Rapid Response Teams (allows for the orderly search, rescue and treatment of missing or injured persons).
B) Removal of endangered persons, stops and/or control of the incident, and provides for the safety and welfare of emergency personnel.
C) Command Structure (to co-ordinate deployment of resources), Accountability System (to track personnel working at the incident), and Rapid Intervention Teams (allows for the orderly search, rescue and treatment of missing or injured personnel).
D) Command Structure (to maintain chain of command), Accountability (to track personnel in the chain of command), and Rapid Response Team (to initiate the efficient establishment of the chain of command).
C) Command Structure (to co-ordinate deployment of resources), Accountability System (to track personnel working at the incident), and Rapid Intervention Teams (allows for the orderly search, rescue and treatment of missing or injured personnel).
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4. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0509.00, Incident Management/Alarm Responses, states under First Alarm Assignment (Urban Response) - If an alarm is dispatched as a 1st alarm response, this response will NOT be downgraded until _________________.
A) Such time as the senior officer is on scene and visually been able to make a determination that a full 1st Alarm is not required.
B) Such time as an RP on scene has contacted Communications to confirm that a fire department response is not required.
C) Such time as the first arriving unit is on the scene and visually been able to make a determination that a full 1st Alarm is not required.
D) Such time as the first arriving unit is on scene and been in contact with an RP to confirm that a full 1st Alarm is not required.
C) Such time as the first arriving unit is on the scene and visually been able to make a determination that a full 1st Alarm is not required.
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5. In Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0602.00, Emergency Scene Operations/Firefighting Operations – General, under Offensive Operations, it states “Command must consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as they affect;
A) Rescue crew location, number of fire fighters on scene, exterior exposures, and air monitoring.
B) Rescue activities, level of risk to fire fighters, confinement efforts, exposure protection, and environmental concerns.
C) Location /position of attack, size of attack, and support functions.
D) None of the above.
B) Rescue activities, level of risk to fire fighters, confinement efforts, exposure protection, and environmental concerns.
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6. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0502.00, Incident Management/Incident Roles and Responsibilities, states the responsibility of the District Chief as:
A) The District Chief is responsible for major incidents in his/her district. In cases of complex tactical situations that have not been declared under control, the District Chief will automatically assume Command.
B) The District Chief is responsible for all incidents in his/her district. In cases of complex tactical situations that have not been declared terminated, the District Chief will automatically assume Command, after the transfer of Command has been completed.
C) The District Chief is responsible for all major incidents in his/her district. In cases of complex tactical situations that have not been declared terminated, the District Chief will automatically assume Command, after the transfer of Command has been completed
D) The District Chief is responsible for all incidents in his/her district. In cases of complex tactical situations that have not been declared under control, the District Chief will automatically, assume Command, after the transfer of Command procedure has been completed.
D) The District Chief is responsible for all incidents in his/her district. In cases of complex tactical situations that have not been declared under control, the District Chief will automatically, assume Command, after the transfer of Command procedure has been completed.
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7. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0640.00 Emergency Scene Operations/Atmospheric Monitoring at Fires, under Personal Protective Equipment it states:
A) The Safety Officer is responsible for recording toxic reading confirmed at major incidents.
B) SCBA is the best preventative measure for smoke exposure, SCBA is required to be worn at all fires where an exposure to smoke conditions may occur until monitoring has taken place.
C) The Incident Commander shall request the response of the MOE when a potential toxic atmosphere is present at an incident.
D) None of the above.
B) SCBA is the best preventative measure for smoke exposure, SCBA is required to be worn at all fires where an exposure to smoke conditions may occur until monitoring has taken place.
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8. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0518.00, Incident Management/Senior Officer Deployment-Two Multiple Alarms, it states that “When a multiple alarm is on-going and the Platoon Chief and One District Chief are committed to it and a first alarm is dispatched then the following shall occur:
A) The Platoon Chief and District Chief at the original alarm shall remain there, and the District Chief who was in Communications during the multiple alarm shall be dispatched.
B) The Platoon Chief and District Chief at the original alarm shall remain there, and the District Chief who was in his/her district station during the multiple alarm shall be dispatched.
C) The Platoon Chief shall remain at the original alarm and the District Chief from that alarm shall be dispatched, the District Chief who was in Communications during the multiple alarm shall remain there.
D) The Platoon Chief and District Chief at the original alarm shall remain there, and The District Chief who was in Communications during the multiple alarm shall be contact the on-call Deputy Chief to respond.
A) The Platoon Chief and District Chief at the original alarm shall remain there, and the District Chief who was in Communications during the multiple alarm shall be dispatched.
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9. Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guidelines 0612.00 Emergency Scene Operations/Fire Cause Determination and Arson, under Criminal or Suspicious Fires, it states the District Senior Officer should carry out the following steps;
A) Not allow anyone into the scene, complete scene examination, request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act, and ensure that the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding.
B) Not allow anyone into the scene, stop any further scene examination, request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act, and ensure that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding.
C) Limit access anyone into the scene, confirm arson with further scene examination, request that OFM respond, maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act, and ensure that the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding.
D) Not allow anyone into the scene, stop any further scene examination, request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel maintain hand over control to the RP in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act, and ensure that the police and/or insurance company protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding.
B) Not allow anyone into the scene, stop any further scene examination, request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act, and ensure that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding.
