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Sophin Rai 775 class preparation > questions for FITZGERALD STDS > Flashcards

questions for FITZGERALD STDS Flashcards

1
Q

Chlamydial infections occur most frequently among women in which age group?

A. younger than 25 years

B. 25 to 35 years

C. 40 to 50 years

D. over 60 years

A

A

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2
Q

Common sites of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women include all of the following except:

A. ovaries.

B. cervix.

C. endometrium.

D. urethra.

A
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3
Q

71.The incubation period for C. trachomatis is approximately:

A. 24 hours.

B. 3 days.

C. 7 to 14 days.

D. 24 days.

A

C

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following include characteristics of a friable cervix?

A. presence of a dull pain, particularly prior to menses

B. a constant burning sensation

C. presence of multiple polyps

D. easily irritated and prone to bleeding, especially following intercourse

A

D

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5
Q
  1. An annual screening for C. trachomatis infection is recommended for

: A. all sexually active women.

B. sexually active women 25 years of age and younger.

C. sexually active women who have had two or more partners in the past 12 months.

D. sexually active men 25 years of age and younger.

A

A

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a normal finding in a woman during the reproductive years?

A. vaginal pH of 4.5 or les

s B. Lactobacillus as the predominant vaginal organism

C. thick, white vaginal secretions during the luteal phase

D. vaginal epithelial cells with adherent bacteria

A

D

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following findings is most consistent with vaginal discharge during ovulation?

A. dry and sticky

B. milky and mucoid

C. stringy and clear

D. tenacious and odorless

A

C

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8
Q
  1. What is the approximate incubation period for Neisseria gonorrhoea?

A. 1 to 5 days

B. 7 to 10 days

C. 18 days

D. 28 days 77.

A

A

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9
Q

A recommended treatment for rectal gonorrhea is:

A. oral amoxicillin.

B. oral azithromycin.

C. oral ciprofloxacin.

D. ceftriaxone injection.

A

D

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10
Q
  1. Physical examination of a 19-year-old woman with a 3-day history of vaginal itch reveals moderate perineal excoriation, vaginal erythema, and a white, clumping discharge. Expected microscopic examination findings include:

A. a pH greater than 6.0.

B. an increased number of lactobacilli.

C. hyphae.

D. an abundance of white blood cells.

  1. Women with bacterial vaginosis typically present with:

A. vulvitis. B. pruritus. C. dysuria. D. malodorous discharge.

A

78: C
79: D

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11
Q
  1. Treatment of vulvovaginitis caused by Candida albicans includes:

A. metronidazole gel.

B. clotrimazole cream.

C. hydrocortisone ointment.

D. clindamycin cream.

A

B

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12
Q
  1. A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of thin, green-yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on microscopic examination. These findings most likely represent:

A. motile sperm with irritative vaginitis.

B. trichomoniasis.

C. bacterial vaginosis.

D. condyloma acuminatum.

A

B

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13
Q

a 82. A preferred treatment option for trichomoniasis is:

A. oral metronidazole.

B. clindamycin vaginal cream.

C. topical acyclovir.

D. oral azithromycin.

A

A

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14
Q
  1. Treatment options for bacterial vaginosis include all of the following except:

A. oral metronidazole.

B. clindamycin cream.

C. oral clindamycin.

D. oral azithromycin.

A

D

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15
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination reveals a friable cervix covered with thick yellow discharge. T

his description is most consistent with an infection caused by:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis.

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

C. human papillomavirus (HPV).

D. Trichomonas vaginalis.

A

A

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following agents is active against N. gonorrhoeae?

A. ceftriaxone

B. metronidazole

C. ketoconazole

D. amoxicillin

A

A

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following agents is most active against C. trachomatis?

A. amoxicillin

B. metronidazole

C. azithromycin

D. ceftriaxone

dOXYCYCLINE ( 2021

A

now it is doxicycline (

18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of gonococcal infection?

A. The risk of transmission from an infected woman to a male sexual partner is about 80%.

B. Most men have asymptomatic infection.

C. The incubation period is about 2 to 3 weeks.

D. The organism rarely produces beta-lactamase.

A

B

19
Q
  1. Complications of gonococcal and chlamydial genitourinary infection in women include all of the following except:

A. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

. B. tubal scarring.

C. acute pyelonephritis.

D. acute peritoneal inflammation.

A

C

20
Q
  1. What percentage of sexually active adults has serological evidence of human herpes virus 2 (HHV-2 or herpes simplex type 2)?

A. 5.8%

B. 14.5%

C. 18.9%

D. 35.6%

A

C

21
Q
  1. All of the following are likely reported in a woman with an initial episode of genital HSV-2 (HHV-2) infection except:

A. painful ulcer.

B. inguinal lymphadenopathy.

C. thin vaginal discharge

. D. pustular lesions.

A

D

22
Q
  1. In the person with HSV-2 infection, the virus can spread via:

A. genital secretions.

B. oral secretions.

C. normal-looking skin.

D. all of the above.

A

D

23
Q
  1. During asymptomatic HSV-2 infections, genital shedding of virus occurs during approximately of days.

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 100%

A

A

24
Q
  1. Diagnostic testing of a person with primary HSV-2 infection would likely show:

A. negative virological and serological test results.

B. a negative virological test result and positive serological test result.

C. a positive virological test result and negative serological test result

. D. positive virological and serological test results.

A

C

25
Q
  1. Treatment options for HSV-2 genital infection include:

A. ribavirin.

B. indinavir.

C. famciclovir.

D. cyclosporine. .

Now it is valacyclovir

A

valacyclovir

26
Q
  1. Suppressive therapy reduces the frequency of genital herpes recurrences by:

A. 5% to 10%.

B. 20% to 25%.

C. 40% to 50%.

D. 70% to 80%.

A

D

27
Q
  1. Recommended comprehensive STI testing includes testing for all of the following except:

A. hepatitis .

B. syphilis

. C. hepatitis A.

D. HIV.

A

C

28
Q

Women with PID typically present with all of the following except:

A. dysuria.

B. leukopenia.

C. cervical motion tenderness.

D. abdominal pain.

A
29
Q
  1. A 22-year-old woman complains of pelvic pain. Physical examination reveals cervical motion tenderness and uterine tenderness. Which of the following would further support a diagnosis of PID?

A. temperature less than 100°F (37.8°C)

B. absence of white blood cells in vaginal fluid

C. mucopurulent vaginal discharge

D. laboratory documentation of cervical infection with Escherichia coli ion.

A

C

30
Q
  1. The most likely causative pathogen in a 23-year-old woman with PID is:

A. E. coli.

B. Enterobacteriaceae. C.

C. trachomatis.

D. Pseudomonas.

A

C

31
Q
  1. The presence of an adnexal mass in the woman with PID most likely indicates the presence of:

A. uterine fibroids.

B. an ectopic pregnancy.

C. ovarian malignancy.

D. a tubo-ovarian abscess.

A

D

32
Q
  1. Expected laboratory findings for the woman with PID include all of the following except:

A. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

B. elevated C-reactive protein (CRP).

C. elevated creatinine clearance (CrCl).

D. leukocytosis.

A

C

33
Q
  1. A transvaginal ultrasound in the woman with PID will likely show:

A. tubal thickening with or without free pelvic fluid.

B. cervical thickening.

C. endometrial thinning.

D. inflammation of the ovaries.

A

A

34
Q

Which of the following is a treatment option for a 28-year-old woman with PID who has no history of medication allergy and has undergone a bilateral tubal ligation?

A. ofloxacin with metronidazole

B. gentamicin with cefpodoxime

C. ceftriaxone with doxycycline

D. clindamycin with azithromycin

A

C

35
Q

Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-year-old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin?

A. ofloxacin with metronidazole

B. amoxicillin with gentamicin

C. cefixime with vancomycin

D. clindamycin with azithromycin

.

A

D

36
Q
  1. How long after contact do clinical manifestations of syphilis typically occur?

A. less than 1 week

B. 1 to 3 weeks

C. 2 to 4 weeks

D. 4 to 6 weeks

A

C

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not representative of the presentation of primary syphilis?

A. painless ulcer

B. localized lymphadenopathy

C. flu-like symptoms

D. spontaneously healing lesion

A

C

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is not representative of the presentation of secondary syphilis?

A. generalized rash

B. chancre

C. arthralgia

D. lymphadenopathy

A

B

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is found in tertiary syphilis?

A. arthralgia

B. lymphadenopathy

C. macular or papular lesions involving the palms and soles

D. gumma

A

D

40
Q
  1. Syphilis is most contagious during which of the following?

A. before onset of signs and symptoms

B. at the primary stage

C. at the secondary stage

D. at the tertiary stage dition.

A

C

41
Q
  1. First-line treatment options for primary syphilis include:

A. penicillin.

B. ciprofloxacin.

C. erythromycin.

D. ceftriaxone.

A

A

42
Q
A

Sophin Rai 775 class preparation (22 decks)

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