Quiz 2

Question 1

indications for pulmonary function tests/spirometry

Answer 1

• Preop eval of lungs and pulmonary reserve
• response to bronchodilator therapy
• differentiate between restrictive and obstructive
• chronic pulmonary disease
• determine diffusing capacity of lungs
• inhalation allergy tests

Question 2

forced vital capacity (FVC)

Answer 2

Amount of air that can be forcefully expelled from a maximally inflated lung position. Less than expected values occur in obstructive and restrictive pulmonary diseases.

Question 3

forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

Answer 3

Volume of air expelled during the first second of FVC. In obstructive pulmonary disease, airways are narrowed and resistance to flow is high. Therefore not so much air can be expelled in 1 second, and FEV1 is less than the predicted value.

In restrictive lung disease, FEV1 is decreased because the amount of air originally inhaled is low, not because of airway resistance. Therefore the FEV1/FVC ratio should be measured.

In restrictive lung disease a normal value is 80%, and in obstructive lung disease this ratio is considerably less.

The FEV1 value will reliably improve with bronchodilator therapy if a spastic component to obstructive pulmonary disease exists

Question 4

what’s a normal spirometry

Answer 4

Greater than 80% of expected value is normal

Question 5

when is airflow rate considered diminished

Answer 5

Diminished at less than 60% of normal. Increase of 20% with bronchodilator = prescribe

Question 6

how to dx COPD

Answer 6

Diagnosis of COPD requires demonstration of persistent airflow limitation based on spirometry testing, generally defined as post bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <70%.Classification of COPD severity should be determined by the assessment of spirometry testing at regular intervals. Some risk factors for COPD include smoking, pollution exposure, and genetic predisposition. COPD typically has an onset later in life and a slower progression of symptoms as compared to asthma.Additionally, COPD has a poorer response to inhaled therapy as compared to asthma

Question 7

Polysomnography (Sleep study) indications

Answer 7

Indicated in any person who snores excessively; experiences narcolepsy, excessive daytime sleeping, or insomnia; or has motor spasms while sleeping; and in patients with documented cardiac rhythm disturbances limited to sleep time. Sleep apnea

Question 8

Actigraphy

Answer 8

Watch that can be worn a few nights - at home

Question 9

what’s bronchoscopy used for

Answer 9

Used for performing various diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.oVisualization of the tracheobronchial tree; transbronchial and endobronchialbiopsies; bronchoalveolar lavage; removal of foreign bodies, clots, mucus plugs; and deployment of metallic stents. Aspiration of deep sputum, control of bleeding

Common clinical indications for bronchoscopy include (but are not limited to) hemoptysis, malignancy, interstitial lung disease, pulmonary infections, and pleural effusion

DOES NOT see esophagus

Question 10

What is Pleural Tap (Thoracentesis and pleural fluid analysis) and why performed

Answer 10

Performed to determine the cause of an unexplained pleural effusion. It is also performed to relieve the intra thoracic pressure that accumulates with a large volume of fluid and inhibits respiration. Transudates are most frequently caused by congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, and hypoproteinemia
Clear/serous, protein < 3
Exudates are most often found in inflammatory, infectious, or neoplastic conditions.
Cloudy/turbid, + WBC, protein > 3, Low glucose, pleural fluid/serum LCH > 0.6

*CXR is obtained before thoracentesis to ensure that the pleural fluid is mobile and accessible to a needle placed within the pleural space

Question 11

PE sx and dx findings

Answer 11

sx: Chest pain, SOB, feelings of doom, pleurodynia (pain w/ deep inhale), Tachycardia, hypoxemia, S4 gallop

dx: Increased D-Dimer, decreased fibrinogen, V/P mismatch, low PO2 and high/low PCO2, reduce diffusion capacity, Enlarged PA on CXR, increase alveolar dead space, R ventricular dysfunction, S1Q3T3 on ECG, Pulm artery emboli on CT

***Spiral CT scan dx

Question 12

what type of test is Ventilation/Perfusion Scan and what’s it used for

Answer 12

Nuclear medicine
Often used to detect PE - Will show mismatch in V/P

Question 13

CT scan

Answer 13

Diagnosing and evaluating pathologic conditions such as tumors, nodules, hematomas, parenchymal coin lesions, cysts, abscesses, pleural effusion, and enlarged lymph nodes affecting the lungs and mediastinum.
Tumors and cysts of the pleura and fractures of the ribs can also be seen.

When an intravenous (IV)contrast material is given, vascular structures can be identified and a diagnosis of aortic or other vascular abnormality can be made.

With oral contrast material, the esophagus and upper gastrointestinal (GI) structures can be evaluated for tumor and other conditions.

Spiral CT scan is considered the preferred study to identify pulmonary emboli(CT pulmonary arteriography)

Question 14

Why do CXR

Answer 14

ID and monitoring of:
- Tumors of the lung (primary and metastatic), heart (myxoma), chest wall(soft-tissue sarcomas), and bony thorax (osteogenic sarcoma)
- Inflammation of the lung (pneumonia), pleura (pleuritis), and pericardium(pericarditis)
- Fluid accumulation in the pleura (pleural effusion), pericardium(pericardial effusion), and lung (pulmonary edema)
-Air accumulation in the lung (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) and pleura (pneumothorax)
- Fractures of the bones of the thorax or vertebrae
- Diaphragmatic hernia
- Heart size, which may vary depending on cardiac function
-Calcification, which may indicate large-vessel deterioration or old lung granulomas (from histoplasmosis or some other former infection)
- Location of centrally placed intravenous access devices
- Infection in the lung, such as pneumonia or tuberculosis

***Fluoroscopy shows motion

Question 15

Fluoroscopy

Answer 15

uses x-rays to show motion

Question 16

Tuberculosis Testing and Indications

Answer 16

The tuberculin skin test, also known as the Mantoux test or the protein derivative test (PPD), is the standard method of determining whether a patient is/has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
A true positive result indicates that the person’s body was infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis at some point in life. It does not distinguish between active tuberculosis (TB) infection and latent/dormant TB infection. Rather it confirms exposure to the bacteria.
False positive reactions can occur, especially in patients who have previously received the BCG vaccination.
Patients with latent TB will have TB bacteria in their body but will not feel sick or spread the disease to others.
Patients with active TB will experience symptoms and have the potential to spread the disease to others

Acid-fast bacillus tests are ordered to diagnosis patients with active TB. The acid-fast bacillus test is a microscopic study that looks for acid-fast bacillus bacteria in sputum samples.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an acid-fast bacillus bacterium

Question 17

Use of sputum studies (cytology vs culture)

Answer 17

Cytology - Looks for malignant cells. Mostly replaced by biopsy. Used in patients w/ abnormal CXR, productive cough and nothing visible on bronchoscopy

Culture - Indicated in any patient with a persistent productive cough, fever, hemoptysis, or a chest x-ray picture compatible with a pulmonary infection.
Used to diagnose pneumonia, bronchiectasis, bronchitis, or pulmonary abscess.
Bacterium, fungus, or virus can be cultured

Question 18

Types of BP/HTN

Answer 18

Normal: <120/80 mmHg
Elevated: SBP between 120-129 mmHg and DBP less than 80 mmHg
Stage 1: SBP between 130-139 mmHg or DBP between 80-89 mmHg
Stage 2: SBP at least 140 mmHg or DBP at least 90 mmHg

Question 19

use of halter monitor

Answer 19

Used to record a patient’s heart rate and rhythm for 1 or more days.
Indicated in patients who experience syncope, palpitations, atypical chest pains, or unexplained dyspnea

Question 20

Blood Tests Used to Assess Risk for Coronary Vascular Disease

Answer 20

Total Cholesterol
* High-Density Cholesterol
* Low-Density Cholesterol
*Triglycerides
* Apolipoprotein B
* Lipoprotein (a)
* Apolipoprotein E Genotyping
* Fibrinogen
* C-Reactive Protein
* Homocysteine
* Insulin, Fasting

Question 21

Lipid profile use and meaning

Answer 21

risk of CVD
Lipoproteins are predictors of heart disease. Blood levels should be collected after a 12- to 14-hour fast.

HDL is often called good cholesterol, because it removes cholesterol from the tissues and transports it to the liver for excretion. High levels are associated with a decreased risk for coronary heart disease.

LDL is often called bad cholesterol, because it carries cholesterol and deposits it into the peripheral tissues. High levels are associated with an increased risk for CHD

Cholesterol varies greatly and should be verified by repeat test.

Triglycerides are transported by LDL/VLDL and are deposited in fatty tissue when levels are high

Question 22

Venous doppler- use and type of test

Answer 22

Ultrasound
Called duplex because it combines the benefits of Doppler with B-mode scanning
Used to detect DVT
Not accurate for detection of venous occlusive disease of the lower calf (venography better)

Question 23

DVT risks, dx, management

Answer 23

DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the lower leg, thigh, or pelvis, but sometimes it can occur in the arm
The most serious complication of DVT is when part of the clot breaks off, travels through the bloodstream to the lungs, then causing a blockage known as a pulmonary embolism

Risk factors for DVT include hospitalization, recent surgery, immobility, older age, obesity, positive family history, malignancy, estrogen-based medications (i.e.,birth control and hormone replacement), pregnancy, and injury/trauma

Symptoms of DVT include swelling (usually unilateral), pain, tenderness, and redness over the affected area

The standard diagnostic test for diagnosing a DVT is the venous duplex ultrasound study. It can detect blockages or clots in the deep veins. Other diagnostic tests for DVT include D-dimer blood test, MRI, and CT scan

Treatments for DVT usually include anticoagulants, thrombolytics, and placement of inferior vena cava filters. Providers should also try to eliminate the causative factor. Compression stockings are often encouraged

Question 24

arterial doppler

Answer 24

Single-mode arterial Doppler studies - peripheral arteriosclerotic occlusive disease of the extremities can be easily located. By slowly deflating blood pressure cuffs placed on the calf and ankle, systolic pressure in the arteries of the extremities can be accurately measured by detecting the first evidence of blood flow with the Doppler transducer. The extremely sensitive Doppler ultrasound detector can recognize the swishing sound of even the most minimal blood flow.

Normally systolic blood pressure is slightly higher in the arteries of the arms than in the legs. If the difference in blood pressure exceeds 20 mm Hg, occlusive disease is believed to exist immediately proximal to the area tested. Lower extremity arterial bypass graft patency can also be assessed with Doppler ultrasound

Question 25

Ankle/Brachial Index (ABI)

Answer 25

Arterial plethysmography is performed by applying three blood pressure cuffs to the proximal, middle, and distal parts of an extremity. Pressure readings are also taken in the upper arm (brachial) artery. These are then attached to a pulse volume recorder (plethysmograph) that enables each pulse wave to be displayed. A reduction in amplitude of a pulse wave in any of the three cuffs indicates arterial occlusion immediately proximal to the area where the decreased amplitude is noted. Also, measurements of arterial pressures are performed at each cuff site. A difference in pressure of greater than 20 mm Hg indicates a degree of arterial occlusion in the extremity. A positive result is reliable evidence of arteriosclerotic peripheral vascular occlusion. However, a negative result does not definitely exclude this diagnosis, because extensive vascular collateralization can compensate for even a complete arterial occlusion. An Ankle/Brachial Ratio of <0.9 indicates peripheral vascular disease in the lower extremity. Arterial plethysmography can also be performed immediately after exercise to determine if symptoms of claudication are caused by peripheral vascular occlusive disease.

Question 26

how to dx MI, what is it, risks, sx

Answer 26

creatinine kinase, troponin, electrocardiography [EKG] MI is defined as "damage to the cardiac muscle as evidenced by elevated cardiac troponin levels in the setting of acute ischemia" Risk Factors can include older age, male gender, chronic renal disease, diabetes mellitus, known atherosclerotic disease, family history of coronary artery disease, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension. Symptoms can include retrosternal chest pain (with or without radiation to arms, neck, jaw), chest pressure, abdominal pain, dyspnea, nausea/vomiting, sweating, and syncope.

Question 27

EKG and MI

Answer 27

Should be performed within 10 minutes of presentation Need to assess for ST segment T wave changes, development of pathologic Q waves, or new left bundle branch block

Question 28

Serum cardiac troponin measurements and MI

Answer 28

An elevated cardiac troponin is required for diagnosis of MI Watch for a rise or fall of the cardiac troponin One troponin value should be above the 99 percentile of the normal reference range

Question 29

Natriuretic Peptides use

Answer 29

Used to identify and stratify patients with congestive heart failure (CHF). * BNP is best marker Neuroendocrine peptides that oppose the activity of the renin-angiotensin system. Released by heart muscle to cause vasorelaxation, inhibition of aldosterone secretion from the adrenal gland and renin from the kidney, thereby increasing natriuresis and reduction in blood volume. Increased in CHF

Question 30

Peripheral artery disease

Answer 30

PAD is caused by plaque buildup in the peripheral arteries, most commonly in the arteries of the lower extremities. This plaque buildup results in reduced blood flow to the legs and feet Risk factors for PAD include smoking, high cholesterol levels, hypertension, diabetes, obesity, positive family history of cardiac disease, and poor eatingpatterns Symptoms of PAD include pale or discolored extremities, cold extremities, leg weakness or numbness, feeling of pins and needles in legs/feet, sores or wounds on the lower extremities, and lack of growth of toenails and leg hair A hallmark symptom of PAD is called intermittent claudication, defined as pain, aching, heaviness, or cramping in the legs with walking or climbing the stairs. This discomfort resolves with rest. It usually occurs in the calves. This is the most common symptom of PAD The first diagnostic test used to diagnose PAD is the ankle-brachial index (ABI) test. This test compares the blood pressure in the ankle with the blood pressure in the arm. As the blood pressure cuff deflates, the blood pressure in the arteries is recorded. An ultrasound doppler device is utilized to amplify the sound of arterial blood flow in the brachial, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses. The test is usually performed with the patient in a supine position. A healthy ABI is 1.00 or greater; if the ABI is less than 0.90 at rest, PAD may be suspected. An ABI less than 0.40 indicates severe PAD Treatments for PAD often include antiplatelet medications, statins, anti-HTN medications, angioplasty, arterial bypass surgery, and modification of risk factors

Question 31

Peripheral venous disease sx

Answer 31

swelling of the legs or ankles (edema) pain that gets worse when you stand and gets better when you raise your legs, leg cramps, aching, throbbing, or a feeling of heaviness in your legs, itchy legs, weak legs, thickening of the skin on your legs or ankles, skin that is changing color, especially around the ankles, leg ulcers, varicose veins, a feeling of tightness in your calves

Question 32

Echocardiogram

Answer 32

type of ultrasound Performed to evaluate heart wall motion (a measure of heart wall function) and to detect valvular disease, evaluate the heart during stress testing, and identify and quantify pericardial fluid. Used in ER for chest pain Used to diagnose pericardial effusion, valvular heart disease (eg, mitral valve prolapse, stenosis, regurgitation), subaortic stenosis, myocardial wall abnormalities (eg, cardiomyopathy), infarction, aneurysm, and cardiac tumors (eg,myxomas). Atrial and ventricular septal defects and other congenital heart diseases, and post infarction mural thrombi are also recognized with this testing. Can be done transesophageal (useful in COPD because air gets in way)

Question 33

cardiac stress test

Answer 33

Eval for CAD in angina, intermittent claudication, evaluate treatment and safe exercise limits Exercise, chemical or pacer stress EKG, heart rate and BP usually but echo and nuclear scan can also be used

Question 34

Arteriography/Venography

Answer 34

Injecting dye and taking x-rays to see vasculature

Question 35

CT abdomen/pelvis

Answer 35

Used in evaluating the abdominal organs and pelvis. CT can be used to guide needles during biopsy of tumor and aspiration of fluid, in staging known neoplasms, and to monitor abdominal disease when serially and repeatedly performed

Question 36

diverticulitis

Answer 36

Diverticulosis occurs when small pouches form and push outward through weak spots in the wall of the colon, most commonly the sigmoid colon Diverticulitis occurs when one or a few of these pouches become inflamed and/or infected Symptoms of Diverticulitis often include: Severe pain, typically in the lower left side of the abdomen, Nausea and/or vomiting, Constipation or diarrhea, Fever and chills Diagnostic Tests for Diverticular Disease (in order of importance) include: 1. CT Scan of abdomen and pelvis 2. Blood tests to rule out infection (CBC) 3. Colonoscopy 4. Lower GI series, also known as a barium enema (X-ray) Treatments often include: High fiber diet and/or fiber supplements, Probiotics, If infection is noted (i.e. diverticulitis)- bowel rest, liquid diet, antibiotics. Severe cases may require colon resection surgery

Question 37

Acute pancreatitis

Answer 37

Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas. Acute pancreatitis occurs suddenly and is usually short-term. Approximately 275,000 hospital stays occur in theUnited States each year for acute pancreatitis Risk factors include: male gender, African American race, positive family history of pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, elevated triglycerides, cystic fibrosis, gallstones, obesity, alcohol abuse, and cigarette smoking Symptoms include: Severe pain in the epigastric (upper) area of the abdomen, often radiates to the back or can be in the left upper quadrant, Fever, Nausea and/or vomiting, Swollen or tender abdomen on palpation, Tachycardia Diagnostic Tests often include: Blood Tests: Amylase and Lipase (usually elevated) Lipid Profile (usually elevated) Blood Glucose (usually elevated due to impaired beta cell function) CBC (to assess for infectious processes) Imaging: Pancreatic and/or gallbladder ultrasound CT Scan Treatments often include: Bowel Rest, IV hydration (if hospitalized), Pain medicine, Antibiotics, Low fat diet, Elimination/Treatment of risk factors or predisposing conditions

Question 38

Stool testing

Answer 38

C. Diff - PCR test. Treat with metronidazole or vancomycin Culture, O&P (ova & parasites)- diarrhea, fever, and bloating. Normal stool flora can become pathogenic if bacterial overgrowth occurs as a result of antibiotics, immunosuppression, or excessive catharsis. Occult blood - colorectal cancer screen. Red meat must be avoided x 3 days

Question 39

amylase and lipase

Answer 39

Tests for pancreatic disorders Amylase most sensitive to acute pancreatitis, but not specific *Lipase usually 5-10 times normal limit in pancreatitis

Question 40

CMP

Answer 40

Albumin, blood urea nitrogen, calcium, carbon dioxide, chloride, creatinine, glucose, potassium, sodium, total bilirubin and protein, and liver enzymes(alanine amino transferase, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate amino transferase).

Question 41

Liver function test

Answer 41

Alanine transaminase (ALT) test. ALT is an enzyme that helps break down proteins and is found mainly in your liver. High levels in your blood could mean you have liver damage. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) test. ALP is an enzyme in your liver, bile ducts, and bone. You might have high levels if you have liver damage or disease, a blocked bile duct, or bone disease. Aspartate transaminase (AST) test. AST is another enzyme in your liver. High blood levels could be a sign of damage or disease. Albumin and total protein test. Your liver makes two main proteins: albumin and globulin. Low levels might mean damage or disease. Keep in mind that your immune system also makes globulin. Bilirubin test. Your body makes bilirubin when it breaks down red blood cells. Usually, your liver cleans bilirubin out of your body. If you have high levels in your blood, a problem called jaundice, you may have liver damage. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) test. High levels of the GGT enzyme could point to liver or bile duct damage. L- lactate dehydrogenase (LD) test. LD is another enzyme that's high when you have liver damage, but other conditions can also raise its level.

Question 42

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

Answer 42

Endoscopy that looks inside biliary ducts/gallbladder Used in the evaluation of the jaundiced patient. It is also used to evaluate patients with unexplained upper abdominal pain or pancreatitis.

Question 43

Colonoscopy

Answer 43

Recommended for patients who have had a change in bowel habits or obvious or occult blood in the stool or who have abdominal pain. It is also used as a surveillance tool for patients who have had colorectal cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, or polyposis. Virtual done with CT

Question 44

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

Answer 44

Up to 60cm from anus

Question 45

colorectal cancer screening guidelines

Answer 45

Screening for colorectal cancer is recommended starting at age 50 years and should continue until age 75 years The decision to screen for colorectal cancer in patients aged 76 to 85 years should be an individual decision, taking into account the patient's state of health and prior screening history There are several different screening tests to detect early-stage colorectal cancer including: - Fecal Occult Blood Testing- completed annually - Colonoscopy- completed every ten years - Flexible Sigmoidoscopy- completed every five years - Fecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)- completed annually - Fecal Immunochemical Test + DNA (FIT-DNA) - completed every one to three years

Question 46

Upper endoscopy

Answer 46

Procedure used to visualize the upper digestive system using a tiny camera attached the end of a long, flexible tube. Used to diagnose and treat conditions of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum Investigate symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and GI bleeding Collect biopsy of tissues in the upper GI tract Complete minor procedures such as burning a blood vessel, widening a narrow esophagus, or removing a polyp or a foreign object

Question 47

Barium swallow x-ray

Answer 47

Identifies swallowing/esophageal abnormalities Provides visualization of the lumen of the esophagus. It is indicated in patients with the following symptoms: * Dysphagia * Noncardiac chest pain * Painful swallowing * Swallowing abnormalities * Gastroesophageal reflux

Question 48

Testing for H Pylori

Answer 48

Indicated in patients who are suspected of having peptic ulcers (active or past history), gastric MALT lymphoma, melena, hematemesis, weight loss, persistent vomiting, dysphagia, or anemia. Culture - takes a week but give antibiotic sensitivities Biopsy - also takes time Rapid Urease testing - piece of gastric mucosa used, results in 3 hours Breath for urea - may be first line, expensive but reliable Serology - IgG or IgM -least sensitive Stool test - ELISA to monitor for eradication after treatments

Question 49

Cholecystitis

Answer 49

Symptoms of cholecystitis: Painful episodes associated with nausea and vomiting following "heavy"meals, Scleral icterus/jaundice, Marked right upper quadrant (RUQ) and epigastric tenderness to palpation(Murphy's sign). Guarding, diminished bowel sounds, low grade fever. Pancreatitis usually presents as LUQ tenderness with or without epigastric pain. The gallbladder is located in the RUQ; therefore, cholecystitis typically presents as RUQ tenderness with or without epigastric pain. Because this patient also presents with scleral icterus (i.e. jaundice), it is important to rule out a blockage in the common bile duct or the pancreatic duct. In order to assess the patency of these ducts, an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) should be ordered and completed. The ERCP combines an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with x-rays to visualize and treat problems of the bile and pancreatic ducts Initial treatment of acute cholecystitis begins with definitive diagnosis. Management includes rehydration with IV fluids, antibiotics, analgesics, and GI rest. If vomiting is persistent, an NG tube is inserted. If sepsis is suspected, an aminoglycoside is added to the antibiotic coverage.

Question 50

what can an US see in abdomen

Answer 50

aorta, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, spleen, kidneys, ducts

Question 51

What can CT w/ contrast helps to dx in abdomen

Answer 51

diverticula disease

Question 52

what should you question in pt with abdominal pain and known alcoholism

Answer 52

pancreatitis and dehydration

Question 53

what type of test is a PET scan

Answer 53

nuclear study

Question 54

transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)

Answer 54

a test that uses ultrasound to create images of your heart. This test is either non-invasive or minimally invasive. A TTE can evaluate heart valves, determine how well the heart is pumping blood, measure blood pressure and how quickly blood is flowing through your heart, measure the size and shape of your heart's chambers. TTE is used to screen for, diagnose, or follow up on medical conditions including aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection, blood clots, congenital heart conditions, heart failure, heart valve disease, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and heart cancer. o A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is a type of echo that creates pictures from inside the body. The provider guides a thin, flexible tube down the esophagus. The transducer is a device that makes sound waves. The sound waves bounce off the different areas of your heart making echoes. The transducer then sends these echoes to a computer that makes them into pictures. These pictures show the structure and function of your heart in great detail. A TEE can diagnose many problems including blood clots and infections in the heart. o An exercise stress echocardiogram is an ultrasound of the heart taken before and after exercise. It produces moving images that show how well your heart functions under stress.

Question 55

***#1 test for TB

Answer 55

AFB (acid-fast bacillus) *sputum smear test so done by microbiology

Question 56

***microbiology tests

Answer 56

cultures, all viral studies (covid, flu)

Question 57

**scan meaning

Answer 57

scan usually means nuclear medicine ex PET scan, VQ scan

Question 58

** thoracentesis

Answer 58

*fluid analysis study, can be sent for culture (micro) indications: pleural effusion, trying to drain fluid, send fluid to testing to look for malignancy (exudated vs transudated), culture, analysis of glucose etc.

Question 59

**ABG

Answer 59

pH, CO2, bicarbonate, PO2

Question 60

**when ABG indicated

Answer 60

sepsis or impending respiratory failure

Question 61

***acid base balance

Answer 61

serum CO2; need ABG if impending respiratory failure or can't get SO2

Question 62

***COPD dx

Answer 62

spirometry (PFT) gold standard

Question 63

***spirometry (PFT)

Answer 63

can tell restrictive vs obstructive lung disease also pre-op (before anesthesia/intubation) done with bronchodilators to check response

Question 64

**polysonography test

Answer 64

sleep study for sleep apnea

Question 65

**TB skin test sensitivity/specificity

Answer 65

sensitivity 59% specificity 99% exposure NOT dx, so can rule it out but can't rule it in

Question 66

**CTA chest

Answer 66

indications= PE & aneurysm risk factors: Aneurysm - age, smoking, HTN, family history, bicuspid aortic valve, previous cardiac surgery PE - exogenous estrogen, history of blood clots, cancer, recent surgery/immobilization

Question 67

**D-dimer

Answer 67

protein that is made when a blood clot dissolves - (used to be called fibrin degradation products). NOT SPECIFIC - Specificity 61-64% Sensitivity 97% rule something out but not in

Question 68

**bronchoscopy indications

Answer 68

to get a sample for eval emergent if have obstruction (mucus plug) mass, need tissue sample or stent area goes down mouth and into airways

Question 69

**Laryngoscopy

Answer 69

back of throat

Question 70

**Thoracoscopy

Answer 70

surgical procedure - VATS, lung reduction, esophagus and esophagectomy

Question 71

**Mediastinoscopy

Answer 71

looks at the space between the lungs

Question 72

**genetic test for COPD

Answer 72

alpha 1 antitripsin to be done on all COPD pts

Question 73

**Carboxyhemoglobin

Answer 73

carbon monoxide exposure 10-20 - symptoms of carbon monoxide 30- severe carbon monoxide poisoning 50-80 - potentially deadly 100% oxygen and hyperbaric

Question 74

**best action for asx HTN

Answer 74

#1 repeat measurement, good H&P lifestyle changes (diet/exercise) order screening= lipids, cmp to look at renal function, hgb a1c

Question 75

**what's in lipid panel

Answer 75

LDL, triglycerides, HDL, cholesterol

Question 76

**troponin

Answer 76

gold standard for MI timed test recent or active chest pain CaNNOT be outpatient whenever

Question 77

**BNP

Answer 77

looking for HF

Question 78

***stress tests

Answer 78

exercise is best if no limitations nuclear or pharmacological if needed *know indications (uncontrolled HF, unstable angina, SBP > 200, recent MI, PE)

Question 79

**halter monitor

Answer 79

palpitations want to look at rhythm over multiple days

Question 80

***indications arterial or venous doppler studies

Answer 80

intermittent claudication, discoloration, loss of hair, non healing wound, pain after walking (arterial disease) unilateral swelling, concern of DVT, dependent edema (venous US)

Question 81

**EP (Electrophysiological) studies

Answer 81

arrhythmia- induce it in the lab to see where coming from. Can ablate/stop it

Question 82

**indications for echocardiogram

Answer 82

look at function, EF, size, valves of heart if concerned about blood clot or endocarditis (vegetation on valve) transesophogeal- invasive transthoracic- non invasive

Question 83

**Noncoronary percutaneous cardiac interventions

Answer 83

transcatheter mitral valve repair, transcatheter left atrial appendage closure

Question 84

**Appendicitis dx

Answer 84

US is first step esp. in children but CT (contrast) is most accurate

Question 85

**diverticulitis dx

Answer 85

NEEDS contrast CT can't see on US

Question 86

**cholecystitis dx

Answer 86

gold standard is US

Question 87

**ovarian, testicular torsion, hepatomegaly

Answer 87

US

Question 88

**c diff

Answer 88

sample has to be liquid risk= ABX, severe abdominal pain/cramping, fever, leukocystosis immunocompromised

Question 89

**other stool tests

Answer 89

ova parasite, stool for culture

Question 90

**LFTs

Answer 90

risk factors= jaundice (high liver enzymes and/or high bilirubin d/t bile duct obstruction), alcohol, ascites, h/o hepatitis

Question 91

***gold standard for pancreatitis

Answer 91

lipase

Question 92

**ammonia level

Answer 92

Ammonia level can be sent off for somebody who has liver failure, and now they have mental status changes, so it's help to risk stratify. It's not a diagnosis for liver failure, but it's a risk stratification. If they are having severe symptoms.

Question 93

**bilirubin

Answer 93

direct indication of bile duct obstruction urine changes color first, then yellow skin/jaundice

Question 94

**CMP

Answer 94

kidney, LFTs, albumin, electrolytes (Ca, Na, K, Cr, bicarb, anion gap, bilirubin) EXCEPT mag/phosph.

Question 95

**hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan

Answer 95

A nuclear medicine test that we look at to look at the gall bladder and small intestine. So it helps, if you are concerned about cholecystitis, but it didn't necessarily show up on Ct scan. It looks at the gall bladder ejection, so it can also give you chronic cholecystitis.

Question 96

**ERCP

Answer 96

And Ercp is what we do If we're looking at the liver, gall bladder and bile duct, it'll look at the pancreas as well. It's a type of X-ray with endoscopy that looks at the ducts. So that's the biggest thing that the Ercp will give you.

Question 97

**screening for colon cancer

Answer 97

colonoscopy low risk starts with sigmoid oscopy lowest risk (no risk factors or family hx) cologuard test (stool sample)

Question 98

**Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

Answer 98

Egd is going to be your upper GI study where they go down. It's a scope. It's an end. It's endoscopic study goes down and it can look up to the level of the duodenum, but it cannot look at the small intestine so it can look at the esophagus. It can look at the sphincter and the pyloric valve. It'll look at the stomach, and it can look at the duodenum. indications= pain, acid reflux, vomiting with blood (concern w/ upper GI bleed) can do ablation or ligation if find bleed

Question 99

**what type of study is CT

Answer 99

x-ray

Question 100

**epigastric pain, burning, worse, trouble swallowing

Answer 100

EGD test indicated

Question 101

**covid/flu test

Answer 101

microbiology viral study

Question 102

**risk for PE

Answer 102

immobilization, surgery, travel, cancer, DVT/previous clot

Question 103

**Ankle brachial index (ABI)

Answer 103

Ultrasound test if concerned about arterial disease (non healing wound, claudication, etc)

Question 104

**what in abdomen cannot be evaluated on US

Answer 104

bowel, diverticulitis may need CT for appendicitis and pancreatitis