quiz 2 - final lectures 10,11,12,13 Flashcards

(198 cards)

1
Q

describe a virus

A

non living
not able of reproducing without host cell
small 20-200nm
genetic info like DNA or RNA contained in capsid (sometimes surrounded by additional membranous envelope)
Class IV, V and VI animal viruses

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2
Q

how many classes of viruses are there

A

6

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3
Q

describe class I

A

adenovirus & HPV
ds DNA
special enzymes/proteins

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4
Q

describe class II

A

parvovirus
ssDNA
special enzymes/proteins

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5
Q

describe class III

A

reovirus
ds DNA
special enzymes/proteins

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6
Q

describe class IV

A

coronavirus
rhinovirus
ssRNA, positive strand
RNA is mRNA
special enzymes/proteins

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7
Q

describe class V

A

influenza
ebola
ssRNA negative (antisense) strand
RNA is template for mRNA
special enzymes/proteins

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8
Q

describe class VI

A

HIV
ssRNA, retro
RNA is template for dsDNA
reverse transcriptase - special enzymes/proteins

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9
Q

what do all 3 classes of ssRNA viruses have

A

special enzymes/proteins (glycoproteins in envelope)

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10
Q

definition of contagion

A

highly contagious airborne virus
more likely to result in epidemic

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11
Q

definition of incubation time

A

time it takes to produce symptoms of disease
longer incubation time = more spread

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12
Q

definition of virulence of virus

A

ability to cause disease and kill
rapid killing lowers spread

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13
Q

describe structure of class IV, V & VI (diagram)

A

single stranded mRNA
capsid proteins
membrane envelope - phospholipid bilayer
spike proteins - membrane/surface glycoproteins

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14
Q

describe HPV (class I) steps of replication (5 steps)

A

1- entry and uncoating/disassembly
2 - replication
3 - transcription and manufacture of capsid proteins
4 - self assembly of new virus particles and exit from cell
5 - host cell death ->disease

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15
Q

viral gene transcription and translation are… (HPV)

A

dependent on host enzymes
RNA polymerase
host ribosomes

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16
Q

viral DNA replication is … (HPV)

A

also generally dependent on
host enzymes
DNA polymerase

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17
Q

describe steps of class VI-corona and class v -influenza (general)

A

1 goes in
binding to receptor
fusion of viral and plasma membrane (entry)
uncoating/disassembly
RNA replication
Viral RNA
self asembly
1000s exit
host cell death and disease

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18
Q

whats the main difference between class IV and class V

A

class IV - ssRNA is mRNA
class V - ssRNA to mRNA (transcription)

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19
Q

describe retroviruses - HIV class VI

A

STDs, blood, injections
no universal vaccine
genetic info as 2 ssRNA molecules
reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease
coat proteins
membranous envelope with gp120
infects - CD4+ immune cells, lymphocytes and macrophages

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20
Q

how many steps of HIV replication

A

7

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21
Q

describe AIDS symptoms (appear when? and why?)

A

10 years after infection (latent phase)
BECAUSE
the provirus is not active and viral proteins are not expressed
the immune system of host keeps viral replication under control

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22
Q

describe anti HIV drugs (3 things)

A

cocktail of antiviral drugs
1 - CCR5 blockers inhibit a non essential cellular protein CCR5 - prevents entry
2 - reverse transcriptase inhibits it’s activity AZT mimics nucleotides (competitive inhibition)
3 - viral proteases that cleave viral poly protein to individual and functional polypeptide chains the drugs inactivate the viral proteases so functional proteins are not made (prevent assembly and exit)

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23
Q

what are bacteriophages

A

bacterial viruses
reproduce according to lytic and or lysogenic cycle

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23
Q

what are virulent phages

A

T4
always kills the host (bacteria)
lytic cycle

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24
what are temperate phages
lambda doesn’t always kill the infected host lysogenic and lytic cycles
25
describe lytic cycle
early genes - nucleases to destroy host DNA middle genes - capsid proteins, head, tail late genes - protease (lysozyme) to lyse host (bacteria) by damaging cell wall
26
describe lysogenic cycle
default state of temperate phage only involves incorporation of phage DNA into bacterial chromosome called prophage (replication occurs together with bacterial DNA replication during cell division) bacteria are not lysed phage and bacteria co exist
27
describe main steps of lytic cycle (5)
attachment entry of phage DNA and degradation of host DNA (early, middle) synthesis of viral genomes and proteins assembly (late) release / exit
28
generally describe bacterial genetics (prokaryotes)
singular circular chromosome (+/- plasmid) binary fission (can’t sexually reproduce)
29
mechanisms to increase genetic variation
genetic variation = diversity increase chances of survival in ever changing environment has steps (a,b,c,d)
30
in the case of pathogenic bacteria - changing environment = host and immune system - solutions?
acquiring antibiotic resistance through mutations or other means developing better virulence genes for attacking host changing antigenic makeup to avoid immune system of host (similar to RNA viruses)
31
what is vertical gene transfer
within species
32
what is horizontal gene transfer
between species
33
describe mutations (a)
random errors in DNA can be beneficial - selection can be harmful - elimination
34
describe transformation (b)
acquisition of foreign DNA from the environment or surrounding may involve plasmids or chromosomal DNA most common way of acquiring antibiotic resistance (Griffith experiment and e. coli lab 7)
35
describe transduction (c)
transfer of DNA between donor and recipient bacteria using phase vector (transmission agent) bacteriophages acquire random genes (from donor to recipient) virulent or temperate pages during lytic cycle
36
describe conjugation and how many types are there
like sexual reproduction divert transfer of DNA between bacteria using conjugation bridge 2 types
37
describe type I (conjugation)
involves transfers of DNA from F+ donor to F- recipient info transferred is the F plasmid at end - both cells are F+ (R plasmids can be transferred this way too)
38
describe type II (conjugation)
involved an Hfr donor bacterium F plasmid has integrated into bacterial chromosome transfers parts of F factor along with bacterial genes of the chromosome to F- recipient bacterium (acquires bacterial genes that become incorporated into its own chromosome by recombination) F- recipient doesn’t become F+
39
what are plasmids
circular pieces of DNA may contain genes that help relaxed plasmid replication is independent of bacterial chromosome (opposite of stringent replication)
40
how are plasmids transferred
by transformation or conjugation type I
41
what are F plasmids
contain info for formation of sex pili and conjugation
42
what are R plasmids
F plasmids that contain in addition info for antibiotic resistance
43
what do plasmids used for cloning usually have
origin of replication multiple cloning site (MCS) antibiotic resistance gene
44
what is cloning
insertion of a gene or any foreign DNA into a bacterial plasmid making 1000s of copies of genes of interest
45
why do we do cloning (3 reasons)
study gene structure (gene and promoter sequence) produce recombinant protein in bacteria - then be used for medical or industrial purposes manipulate gene of interest by introducing mutations, introducing the DNA into organism of interest (GMOS)
46
how many steps of cloning are there
5
47
describe generally (diagram) of steps of cloning
1- bacteria plasmid DNA 2 - restriction digestion 3 - ligation (used ligaments seals plasmid and DNA) 4 - transformation (competency and heat shock) 5 - cell division and selection on plating
48
describe step 1 of cloning
isolation or purification of DNA genomic or cDNA from source (organism of interest) isolation of plasmid DNA from bacteria
49
describe step 2 of cloning
restriction digestion of DNA and bacterial plasmid DNA with same restriction endonucleases
50
describe restriction enzymes (step 2 of cloning)
cut within DNA cleave ssDNA at recognition sites (palindromic) hydrolyze phosphodiesther bonds on both strands blunt ends and sticky ends
51
describe function of restriction enzymes (step 2 of cloning)
have evolved to digest foreign DNA (phage) prevent its insertion into bacterial chromosome prevent phage replication host DNA is methylated (not digested bc of this)
52
describe step 3 of cloning
ligation of foreign DNA into bacterial plasmid (ligase + ATP) anneal compatible sticky ends not all plasmid DNA will incorporate foreign DNA or DNA of interest
53
describe diagram of step 3 of cloning (plasmid DNA used as vector)
plasmid used for cloning MCS - multiple cloning site, insertion of foreign DNA (multiple restriction sites) AMPR, Bla, beta lactamase - destroys ampicillin (allows bacterial growth in the presence of antibiotic ampicillin) origin of replication
54
describe step 4 of cloning
transformation of recombinant plasmid into bacteria by heat shock
55
describe bacteria before transformation in step 4 of cloning
AMP S - un transformed
56
describe bacteria after transformation in step 4 of cloning
AMP R - resistant
57
describe step 5 of cloning
plating and selection antibiotic resistance - selection for bacterial with plasmid on medium each col out has identical bacteria carrying same plasmid each colony carries different plasmid colonies can be screened (colony hybridization) radioactive probe = bait, fluorescent, ssDNA sequence complementary to gene of interest
58
describe cloning using PCR plasmid (steps)
1 - isolate source DNA, plasmid DNA 2 - PCR with specific primers that anneal to ends of gene of interest 3 - PCR products and plasmid 4 - ligation 5 - transformation 6 - plating and selection on ampicillin medium
59
what is a library
pool of recombinant clones storage of genes from organism/cell of interest library can be screened at a later date for gene of interest
60
what is cDNA
complementary DNA made from mRNA of cell of interest that has been reverse transcribed using reverse transcriptase
61
what are the advantages of cDNA
better source of genetic info (bacterial expression plasmid) no eukaryotic promoter sequence no intron sequences bacteria can therefore express foreign protein (eukaryotic intron and promoter won’t be recognized by bacteria)
62
describe steps of cDNA library (6 steps)
1 - mRNA - reverse transcriptase 2 - cDNA - restriction digestion 3 - cDNA fragments - ligation into plasmid 4 - library of cDNA plasmids - transformation 5 - library of bacterial cDNA clones 6 - plating and selection
63
what is genomic DNA
isolated from chromosomes of cells
64
what are the advantages of genomic DNA
uncertain about expression of gene of interest (low levels mRNA made - may be hard to clone as cDNA) interest in studying gene sequences and regulatory sequences (splicing has removed introns in mRNA and in cDNA, mRNA doesn’t contain promoter and upstream regulatory sequences)
65
what is polymerase chain reaction
amplification of DNA sequence of interest
66
describe PCR
used in forensic sciences, paternity testing and cloning, hiv, covid tests synthesis reaction test tube in vitro reaction (also entails cutting amplified with restriction enzyme, ligation into plasmid, transforming bacteria, selecting recombinant plasmid of interest
67
name and describe PCR ingredients (5)
DNA source - 2 strands template heat tolerant DNA polymerase (TAQ polymerase) specific primers to delimit region of interest to be amplified (2 F & R DNA primers) dNTPs thermocycler = adjusts temp rapidly automatically for each step
68
describe 3 steps of PCR
repetition 20-30x 1 - denauturation at 94c 2 - annealing/hybridization with specific F & R primers 45-65c 3 - elongation/extension (complementary strand to region of interest is synthesized with TAQ polymerase at 72c
69
what are RFLPs
restriction fragment length polymorphisms
70
describe RFLPs
polymorphisms are regions of genome that are variable between individuals distinguished based on patterns of DNA fragment sizes follow restriction digestion of DNA
71
describe 3 steps of RFLPs
DNA isolation restriction digestion AGE - agarose gel electrophoresis
72
describe RFLPs and alleles (genes)
sickle cell anemia - recessive aa, mutation in B globin gene - defective hemoglobin and defective RBC - anemia aa = recessive AA = dominant Aa = heterozygous carrier
73
what is DNA sequencing
method to sternum if cloned DNA is the one of interest if there is a polymorphism (single gene mutations associated with inherited diseases) synthesis reaction in vitro reaction
74
name and describe ingredients of DNA sequencing (5)
DNA of interest - one template strand DNA polymerase primer for specific DNA (one primer, provided 3’ OH) dNTPs ddNTPs - fluorescently labelled (ddGTP - green…)
75
what are dideoxyribonucleotides
stop elongation/extension reaction whenever they get incorporated into the daughter strand synthesized produce DNA strands or fragments of different sizes lengths and colours
76
whats the difference between dNTP (deoxyribonucleotides) and ddNTP (dideoxyribonucleotides)
dNTP - OH anchor for synthesis ddNTP - H synthesis stops
77
name the 2 types of immunity
innate adaptive - acquired
78
describe innate immunity
rapid response against a broad range of microbes (non specific) cells - macrophages, neutrophils, natural killer cells
79
name the types of innate immunity
external internal
80
name the 3 major subcategories of innate external
skin mucous membranes - mucus with lysozyme secretions - acidic pH, salive, tears, lysozyme
81
describe mucous membranes of innate external
lysozyme - digests bacterial cell wall nostrils digestive tract ears, mouth,lips genital area anus
82
name the 4 major subcategories of innate external
antimicrobial proteins and molecules phagocytosis - macrophages and dendritic cells inflammatory response natural killer cells - target cancer and viral infected cells
83
describe antimicrobial proteins and molecules of innate internal
complement system - proteins in blood form MAC (membrane attack complex) - pore in the membrane of invading microbe interferons - secreted by viral infected cells, signal infection, short term resistance defensins - NO and free radicals (stored in granules, released only around microbes)
84
describe phagocytosis of innate internal
toll like receptors on macrophages recognize general features peptidoglycan cell wall and sugars on surface of bacteria flagellin in flagella dsRNA in viruses
85
describe inflammatory response of innate internal
chemokines released by macrophages to attract more phagocytic cells to site of infection histamines released by mast cells - dilation and increased permeability of capillaries - extravasation if phagocytic cells fever - systemic generalized response
86
describe acquired - adaptive immunity
slower responses for specific microbes cells - macrophage, antigen presenting cells, lymphocytes humoral response - B lymphocytes, antibodies cell mediated response cytotoxic T lymphocytes (killing of target cells)
87
name and describe 3 cell types of blood and their %
55% plasma - liquid 1% white blood cell 44% red blood cells
88
describe stem cell lineages
2 lymphocytes - B cells or T lymphocytes (in circulation, in blood, lymph) myeloid - all other blood cells
89
describe white blood cells
lymphocytes derived from lymphoid stem cells - adaptive immunity B cells - made in bone marrow T cells - made in thymus
90
describe macrophages
innate and adaptive immunity
91
what type immunity are dendritic cells involved in
acquired
92
what type immunity are neutrophils involved in
innate
93
what type of cells are macrophages and dendritic cells
phagocytosis cells antigen presenting cells (apc)
94
what are lymphocytes
acquired immunity B and T lymphocytes
95
name the 3 types of lymphocytes
Th - helper cells Tc - cytotoxic cells B cells
96
describe Th helper cells
central role in humoral and cell mediated response stimulate activation of Tc and B cells by recognizing foreign antigens displayed on apcs secrete cytokines which activate T and B cells
97
describe Tc cytotoxic cells
destroy infected body cells, cancer cells and foreign graft tissue Tc cells required in T cell mediated response activated by infected cell/cancer cells and by T helper cells
98
describe B cells
secrete defensive proteins called antibodies involved in humoral response activated by antigens and T helper cells
99
what is the humoral response
production of antibodies by differentiated B cells called plasma cells
100
what is cell mediated response
specific killing of target cells (viral or bacterial infected cells, cancer or any foreign cells) by Tc cells
101
describe (basic) the 3 steps of the 2 responses
1 - presence of antigen 2 - phagocytosis (uptake), digestion and displays of antigen fragments by macrophages 3 - activation of T helper lymphocytes
102
describe step 2 (more detailed) of responses
final products = MHC - major histo compatibility complex - unique proteins and define immune identity antigen fragment displays (apc macrophage)
103
describe antigen
generally foreign protein that elicits immune response freely circulating bound - presented in context of self MHC
104
describe step 2 of response for type I
found on surface of all body cells presents foreign antigens each MHC I-antigen is recognized by a specific T cytotoxic TCR signals to Tc that a cell is infected
105
describe step 2 of response for type II
found on surface of apc cells and b cells presents foreign antigens each MHC-II antigen is recognized by specific t helper (t cell recollected TCR) activation of humoral and cell mediated responses
106
describe CD4 (in relation to 3 steps of responses)
surface protein in Th cells binds to type II receptor interaction between apc and Th cells activation of Th cells cytokines = immune hormone that stimulate lymphocytes
107
describe humoral response
produce antibodies to provide response to pathogens and toxins
108
describe structure of humoral response
quaternary 2hc 2 lc held by s-s bonds each chain has constant and variable regions
109
what are variable regions responsible for in humoral response
antigen specificity
110
describe b cell receptors - humoral response
BCR antibody anchored in membrane of B cells first to encounter free antigen or microbe
111
describe functions of humoral response (3 steps)
viral neutralization opsonization activation of complement system and pore formation (MAC)
112
where are the variable and constant regions (humoral response)
light and heavy chains antigen binding sites
113
how many antigen binding sites per antibody (humoral response)
2
114
describe clonal selection recognition
antigens circulating in the body are recognized by B cells that specifically interact with these via their B cell receptors - only lymphocytes that recognize antigen are activated
115
describe clonal selection cell division
proliferation of activated B cells to form 2 clones of daughter cells
116
describe clonal selection differentiation
one clone consists of short lived plasma B cells which secrete antibodies with same antigen specificity as the initial B cell receptor on naive cell
117
how many steps in activation of humoral pathway
6
118
describe step 1 of humoral pathway
presence of antigen
119
describe step 2 of humoral pathway
processing of antigen and presentation in context of MHC II on surface of macrophage and B cell
120
describe step 3 of humoral pathway
T helper cells activation binding of TCR+CD4 to MHC antigens complex cytokines released by APC
121
describe step 4 of humoral pathway
B cell activation by cytokines and by direct interaction with activated T helper cells
122
describe step 5 of humoral pathway
clonal selection - proliferation and differentiation into clones of plasma and memory cells
123
describe step 6 of humoral pathway
antibody secretion and antigen activation
124
describe primary response
first exposure of the B lymphocytes to a particular antigens (antibody concentration is maximal within 14 days after first encounter)
125
describe secondary response
second exposure to same antigen much more rapid - 1 week stronger - 1000x higher concentration of antibodies memory cells generated in first encounter rapidly differentiate into plasma cells immunization by vaccination
126
describe antibody concentration in relation to primary and secondary response
first peak is first encounter second peak is second encounter (much higher, lasts longer bc memory cells)
127
describe Tc cells in cell mediated response
cytotoxic T cells specialized in killing target cells infected with virus or cancer cells TCR binds to antigens on surface of tater cells in context of MHC
128
describe TCR in cell mediated response
T cell receptor resembles BCR with two chains (one alpha one beta) anchored in membrane antigens binding site
129
name and describe 2 types of TCR (cell mediated response)
cytotoxic TCR - binds to antigen bound to MHC I of infected cells helper TCR - binds to antigen bound to MCHII of apc (macrophages and B cells)
130
describe TCR diversity
similar to BCR and antibody diversity - highlight specific to antigen
131
describe ~3 steps of cell mediated response
binding to apc MHCII activation T helper
132
describe cell mediated response (important info)
Th cell activation - cytokines Tc cells activation and clonal selection (TCR to antigen class I MHC on surface of infected or cancer cell, cytokines) perforin secretion - pores in target cell membrane proteolytic enzymes (granzymes) initiates apoptosis in target cell memory Tc cells
133
name 3 types of impaired immune function
exaggerated allergies - IgE antibodies self - directed - autoimmune disease immunodeficiency
134
describe exaggerated allergies
IgE antibodies allergens bund specifically to IgE molecules expressed on surface of mast cells binding can cause cross linking of adjacent IgE receptors and thus trigger release of histamines by mast cells inflammation and other symptoms
135
describe self - directed - autoimmune disease
immune system loses self - tolerance and attacked self (self antigens) targeted cell death lupus, celiac, type I diabetes, multiple sclerosis
136
describe immunodeficiency
destruction of cells of the immune system will lead to immunodeficiency and i ability to combat pathogenic diseases and cancer genetic - SCID loss of T helper cells - AIDS humoral and cell mediated responses impaired - increased infections and cancer
137
describe active immunity
develops when an organisms own lymphocytes produce B and Tc cells specific to an infectious agent
138
describe passive immunity
process of injecting antibodies specific for a particular antigen or infection into a person who has never encountered antigen (not immune to it)
139
compare active and passive immunity (ex)
vaccinations vs breast feeding
140
name and describe vaccines
produce memory cells useful to combat future infections inactivated vaccines Acellular vaccines attenuated vaccines mRNA vaccines
141
describe nervous system
cns - brain and spinal cord (central) pns - all nerves innervating the body (peripheral)
142
name 2 types of cells of action potential
neurons neuroglia
143
describe neurons (and 2 types of neurons)
transmit nervous impulses sensory interneurons motor neurons
144
describe neuroglia (2 types of cells + def)
feed and support neurons oligodendrocytes - envelop neurons of cns, form protective myelin sheath schwann cells - envelop axons of motor and sensory neurons pns, form protective myelin sheath
145
definition of dendrites
extension of cell body, synapse with other neurons
146
definition of axon hillock
nervous impulse (ap) initiation site
147
definition of axon
transmission of ap
148
definition of axon terminals
synaptic transmission
149
ap generation (gen)
movement of ions Na+ and K+ across voltage gated channels across pm
150
ap transmission (gen)
lateral movement of ions Na+ along membrane
151
synaptic transmission (gen)
neurotransmitters bind to ligand gated receptor channel
152
describe 2 steps of action potential
generation = movement of ions across membrane, change in membrane potential, axon hillock propagation = involved lateral movement of ions, axon
153
describe membrane potential
caused by separation of ions and counter ions all cells have membrane potential also called resting potential in neurons generally negative inside
154
how (and name) many steps can generate membrane potential
2 electrogenic pump ion channel
155
describe electrogenic pump
the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which pumps three Na+ out of cell against 2K+ into cell creates charge separation slow and energy requiring essential to establish gradients across membrane (pumps Na+ out and K+ in)
156
describe ion channel
facilitated diffusion of specific ions - resting channels are always open - voltage gated channel - open and closed based on Em fast, not energy requiring influx = diffusion into cell efflux = diffusion out of cell
157
describe action potential generation
measured in one spot overtime movement of ions across membrane THRESHOLD VALUE (if below = no ap, if above = full ap)
158
how many steps of ap generation
5
159
name all 4/5 steps of action potential generation
rest stimulation to threshold depolarization repolarization hyperpolarization
160
describe step 1 of ap generation
rest - resting potential Na+/K+ pump K+ resting channels - K+ efflux Na+ channels leaky - some Na+ influx Overall -70mV - close to Eeq K+
161
describe step 2 of ap generation
stimulation to threshold few Na+ gates open
162
describe step 3 of ap generation
depolarization threshold reached - all Na + gates open (massive Na+ influx +40mV) at peak - Na+ gates close and K+ gates open Na+ voltage gated channels are inactivated (not leaky, cant be opened again)
163
describe steps 4 and 5 of ap generation
repolarization and hyper polarization K+ efflux -> Em ~ Eeq K+ ~ 80mV
164
describe refractory period
period in space and time when second ap can’t be triggered
165
name and describe 2 types of refractory period
absolute - a second ap can’t be triggered because Na+ V channels inactivated relative - a second ap could be triggered but stimulus needs to be stronger to reach threshold
166
describe rest open and inactivated (also order)
rest - closed but a little leaky, minimal Na+ influx open - Na+ influx inactivated - inactivation peptide, tight shut, no influx order - rest open inactivated rest open inactivated
167
describe ap propagation (3 main periods/things)
peak of AP - Na+ influx refractory period (membrane repolarizing, Na+ V channels inactivated) resting potential
168
describe step 1 of ap propagation
ap is self propagating depolarization ahead of ap opens Na+ channels - threshold is reached ahead -> ap is triggered
169
describe step 2 of ap propagation
ap only moves in one direction, never behind because of refractory period deplorarization behring the ap doesn’t affect the inactivated Na+ channels - absolute refractory period (ap doesn’t move backwards)
170
describe step 3 of ap propagation (image description)
resting potential refractory period ap resting potential (horizontal order across axon)
171
describe myelinated axons
conducts the ap by saltatory conduction faster - zone of depolarization jumps from node or ranvier to next cheaper - gradients not maintained Ms - autoimmune disease caused by destruction of myelin sheath (oligodendrocytes)
172
describe synapse
small space that separates presynpatic cell (neuron) from a postsynaptic cell (another neuron, gland or muscle cell) ap cannot always be transmitted chemical synapses
173
how many steps seen for synaptic transmission
9
174
describe step 1 of synaptic transmission
wave of ap arrives at terminal branch (axon terminus) of a presynaptic cell presynaptic terminal membrane is depolarized
175
describe step 2 of synaptic transmission
Ca2+ voltage gated channels open allow movement of ion down electrochemical gradient into presynaptic cell (influx)
176
describe step 3 of synaptic transmission
increase in intracellular Ca2+ causes vesicles inside presynaptic cell containing neurotransmitter (nt) to fuse with membrane of terminal branch
177
describe step 4 of synaptic transmission
release of nt into the synapse (synaptic cleft)
178
describe step 5 of synaptic transmission
binding of nt to ligand gated receptor channels of the postsynaptic cell
179
describe step 6 of synaptic transmission
ligand gated channels depend on nt : Na+ influx (epsp) corresponding depolarization post synaptic membrane potential K+ efflux (ipsp) corresponding hyperpolarizarion post synaptic membrane potential
180
describe step 7 of synaptic transmission
hyper polarized membrane is an inhibitory signal (ipsp) and depolarized membrane is excitatory signal (epsp) for post synaptic cell
181
describe step 8 of synaptic transmission
transmission of signal terminated when nt detaches from ligand gated channel
182
describe step 9 of synaptic transmission
ipsp s and epsp s are summed in time (temporal summation) and in space (spatial summation) - ap is fired at axon hillock of post synaptic cell if overall summation results in depolarization or above threshold potential - if not then no ap fired
183
what does EPSP and IPSP stand for
excitatory post synaptic potential Inhibitory post synaptic potential
184
describe regulation of lysogenic cycle
when cells are stressed (irradiation or chemicals) lytic cycle is induced when repressor protein is expressed lytic cycle is inhibited when repressor protein inactivated the lytic cycle is activated
185
describe step 1 of HIV replication
entry gp120 binds to receptors CD4 and CCR5 on CD4+ cells (macrophages and Th cells)
186
describe step 2 of HIV replication
fusion of viral and cell membrane release of capsid
187
describe step 3 of HIV replication
synthesis of dsDNA reverse transcriptase (viral enzyme)
188
describe step 4 of HIV replication
integration of viral dsDNA into host chromosomes provirus integrase (viral enzyme) hiv positive for life
189
describe step 5 of HIV replication
transcription and translation of viral proteins using host enzymes (DNA RNA protein)
190
describe step 6 of HIV replication
packaging and exit of new viral particles surrounded by host membrane
191
describe step 7 of HIV replication
death of macrophages and Th cells AIDS
192
what is CD4
cellular receptor
193
what is CCR5
cellular coreceptor
194
describe resistance to HIV
lack CCR5 co receptor on surface of T cells
195
describe temporal summation (graph)
ap peak E1 twice
196
describe spatial summation (graph)
ap peak E1 + E2
197
describe spatial summation (epsp and ipsp)
no ap cancellation depolarization at E1 hyper polarization at I E1 + I