Quiz 3

Question 1

What is analgesia?

Answer 1

Elimination of pain

Question 2

What is anesthesia?

Answer 2

Elimination of sensation

Question 3

What are the inhaled anesthetics?

Answer 3

NO
Halothane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane

Question 4

What are the IV anesthetics?

Answer 4

Benzos (midazolam, lorazepam, diazepam)
Opioid analgesics (fentanyl)
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Dexmedetomidine

Question 5

What are the s/sx of malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 5

Rapid onset of tachycardia
HTN
Severe muscle rigidity
Hyperthermia (107)
Hyperkalemia
Acidosis

Question 6

What is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 6

Stop trigger event
Dantrolene
Supportive

Question 7

What are the supportive cares for malignant hyperthermia: hyperthermia?

Answer 7

Cooling blankets, ice bags, chilled NS

Question 8

What is the supportive care for malignant hyperthermia: arrhythmias?

Answer 8

BBs (propranolol, metoprolol, esmolol)
Amiodarone
NOT CCBs/dig

Question 9

What are the indications for neuromuscular blockers?

Answer 9

Facilitate short procedures under heneral anesthesia
Facilitate mechanical ventilation
ARDS
Manage increased ICP
Treat muscle spasms
Decreased oxygen consumption
Surgery

Question 10

What are the neurmuscular blockers?

Answer 10

Succinylcholine
Pancuronium
Vecuronium
Rocuonium
Atracurium
Cistracurium

Question 11

What are the 7 Ps for rapid sequence intubation series?

Answer 11

Pre-event preparation
Preoxygenate
Pretreatment
Premedication
Paralyze after sedation
Protection/positioning
Post-intubation management

Question 12

What drugs are used for pretreatment?

Answer 12

Lidocaine
Atropine
Esmolol
Fentanyl

Question 13

What drugs are used for premedication

Answer 13

Midazolam
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopental

Question 14

What drugs are used to paralyze after sedation?

Answer 14

Succinylcholine
NMBAs (rocuronium
Vecuronium)

Question 15

What medications are commonly used for post intubation management?

Answer 15

Midazolam, fentanyl, lorazepam

Question 16

Why is procedural sedation used?

Answer 16

Creates a decreased level of awareness for a patient when maintaining protective airway reflexes and adequate spontaneous ventilation

Question 17

What is the goal of procedural sedation?

Answer 17

To provide analgesia, amnesia, and anxiolysis during a painful or frightening procedure

Question 18

What meds are used for procedural sedation?

Answer 18

Ketamine and benzos

Question 19

How do we monitor sedation: Anesthesiologist/CNR?

Answer 19

HR

BP

Question 20

How do we monitor sedation: BIS monitor-mini EEG?

Answer 20

BIS < 60 = no recall

Question 21

How do we monitor sedation: RASS, RAMSEY?

Answer 21

Objective measures of responsiveness

CAM-Confusion Assessment Method-measure delirium

Question 22

What is a cardioembolic stroke?

Answer 22

Embolic phenomenon

• AFib
• Valvular heart disease
• Other emboli

Question 23

What is a thrombotic stroke?

Answer 23

Local thrombus formation

• Atherosclerosis
• 30% cryptogenic

Question 24

How do we manage fere in stroke?

Answer 24

Antipyretics

Question 25

What is the AHA/ASA goal for glucose in stroke?

Answer 25

140-180

Question 26

How do we manage hyperglycemia in stroke?

Answer 26

IV insulin

Question 27

Over what BP does AHA/ASA suggest startingantihypertensives?

Answer 27

SBP > 220 | DBP > 120

Question 28

Which antihypertensives are used in stroke?

Answer 28

Labetalol/nicardipine

Question 29

What BP must patients have to use tPA?

Answer 29

< 185/110

Question 30

How does we use tPA?

Answer 30

Associated with improved outcomes Most benefit if treated w/in 60 minutes of onset Treatment up to 180 minutes after onset has some benefit

Question 31

Why is ASA used in stroke?

Answer 31

Reduce long-term death and disability

Question 32

Why are anticoagulants not used in stroke?

Answer 32

Never use over tPA | Do not administer w/in 24 hours of tPA

Question 33

What is the calculation for MAP?

Answer 33

((2xdiastolic)+systolic)/3

Question 34

What is the goal MAP for hemorrhagic stroke?

Answer 34

< 130

Question 35

What is the acute treatment of hemorrhagic stroke?

Answer 35

Nimodipine (NOT IV)

Question 36

What is the secondary prevention of non-carbioembolic stroke?

Answer 36

ASA ASA + dipyramidole Plavix

Question 37

What is the secondary prevention of cardioembolic stroke?

Answer 37

``` Anticoagulant therapy Warfarin Dabigatran Apixaban Rivaroxaban Edoxaban ```

Question 38

What does CHADS-VASc stand for?

Answer 38

``` C = HF H = HTN A2 = Age > 75 D = DM S2 = h/p stroke V = Vascular dz A = age 65 - 75 S = female ```

Question 39

What does a CHADS-VASc of 0 stand for?

Answer 39

Low - ASA

Question 40

What does a CHADS-VASc of 1 stand for?

Answer 40

Low/mod - DOAC/ASA

Question 41

What does a CHADS-VASc of 2-4 stand for?

Answer 41

Mod - DOAC

Question 42

What does a CHADS-VASc of 5 stand for?

Answer 42

High - DOAC

Question 43

What does a CHADS-VASc of 6+ stand for?

Answer 43

Very high - DOAC

Question 44

If a patient has AFib and a CHADS-VASc 2+, what treatment do they receive?

Answer 44

DOAC