Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is analgesia?

A

Elimination of pain

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2
Q

What is anesthesia?

A

Elimination of sensation

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3
Q

What are the inhaled anesthetics?

A
NO
Halothane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane
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4
Q

What are the IV anesthetics?

A
Benzos (midazolam, lorazepam, diazepam)
Opioid analgesics (fentanyl)
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Dexmedetomidine
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5
Q

What are the s/sx of malignant hyperthermia?

A
Rapid onset of tachycardia
HTN
Severe muscle rigidity
Hyperthermia (107)
Hyperkalemia
Acidosis
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6
Q

What is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Stop trigger event
Dantrolene
Supportive

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7
Q

What are the supportive cares for malignant hyperthermia: hyperthermia?

A

Cooling blankets, ice bags, chilled NS

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8
Q

What is the supportive care for malignant hyperthermia: arrhythmias?

A

BBs (propranolol, metoprolol, esmolol)
Amiodarone
NOT CCBs/dig

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9
Q

What are the indications for neuromuscular blockers?

A
Facilitate short procedures under heneral anesthesia
Facilitate mechanical ventilation
ARDS
Manage increased ICP
Treat muscle spasms
Decreased oxygen consumption
Surgery
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10
Q

What are the neurmuscular blockers?

A
Succinylcholine
Pancuronium
Vecuronium
Rocuonium
Atracurium
Cistracurium
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11
Q

What are the 7 Ps for rapid sequence intubation series?

A
Pre-event preparation
Preoxygenate
Pretreatment
Premedication
Paralyze after sedation
Protection/positioning
Post-intubation management
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12
Q

What drugs are used for pretreatment?

A

Lidocaine
Atropine
Esmolol
Fentanyl

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13
Q

What drugs are used for premedication

A
Midazolam
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopental
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14
Q

What drugs are used to paralyze after sedation?

A

Succinylcholine
NMBAs (rocuronium
Vecuronium)

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15
Q

What medications are commonly used for post intubation management?

A

Midazolam, fentanyl, lorazepam

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16
Q

Why is procedural sedation used?

A

Creates a decreased level of awareness for a patient when maintaining protective airway reflexes and adequate spontaneous ventilation

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17
Q

What is the goal of procedural sedation?

A

To provide analgesia, amnesia, and anxiolysis during a painful or frightening procedure

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18
Q

What meds are used for procedural sedation?

A

Ketamine and benzos

19
Q

How do we monitor sedation: Anesthesiologist/CNR?

A

HR

BP

20
Q

How do we monitor sedation: BIS monitor-mini EEG?

A

BIS < 60 = no recall

21
Q

How do we monitor sedation: RASS, RAMSEY?

A

Objective measures of responsiveness

CAM-Confusion Assessment Method-measure delirium

22
Q

What is a cardioembolic stroke?

A

Embolic phenomenon

  • AFib
  • Valvular heart disease
  • Other emboli
23
Q

What is a thrombotic stroke?

A

Local thrombus formation

  • Atherosclerosis
  • 30% cryptogenic
24
Q

How do we manage fere in stroke?

A

Antipyretics

25
Q

What is the AHA/ASA goal for glucose in stroke?

A

140-180

26
Q

How do we manage hyperglycemia in stroke?

A

IV insulin

27
Q

Over what BP does AHA/ASA suggest startingantihypertensives?

A

SBP > 220

DBP > 120

28
Q

Which antihypertensives are used in stroke?

A

Labetalol/nicardipine

29
Q

What BP must patients have to use tPA?

A

< 185/110

30
Q

How does we use tPA?

A

Associated with improved outcomes
Most benefit if treated w/in 60 minutes of onset
Treatment up to 180 minutes after onset has some benefit

31
Q

Why is ASA used in stroke?

A

Reduce long-term death and disability

32
Q

Why are anticoagulants not used in stroke?

A

Never use over tPA

Do not administer w/in 24 hours of tPA

33
Q

What is the calculation for MAP?

A

((2xdiastolic)+systolic)/3

34
Q

What is the goal MAP for hemorrhagic stroke?

A

< 130

35
Q

What is the acute treatment of hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Nimodipine (NOT IV)

36
Q

What is the secondary prevention of non-carbioembolic stroke?

A

ASA
ASA + dipyramidole
Plavix

37
Q

What is the secondary prevention of cardioembolic stroke?

A
Anticoagulant therapy
Warfarin
Dabigatran
Apixaban
Rivaroxaban
Edoxaban
38
Q

What does CHADS-VASc stand for?

A
C = HF
H = HTN
A2 = Age > 75
D = DM
S2 = h/p stroke
V = Vascular dz
A = age 65 - 75
S = female
39
Q

What does a CHADS-VASc of 0 stand for?

A

Low - ASA

40
Q

What does a CHADS-VASc of 1 stand for?

A

Low/mod - DOAC/ASA

41
Q

What does a CHADS-VASc of 2-4 stand for?

A

Mod - DOAC

42
Q

What does a CHADS-VASc of 5 stand for?

A

High - DOAC

43
Q

What does a CHADS-VASc of 6+ stand for?

A

Very high - DOAC

44
Q

If a patient has AFib and a CHADS-VASc 2+, what treatment do they receive?

A

DOAC