Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the motility test?

A

To determine whether bacteria are motile (can move)

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2
Q

Why do we have a low percentage of agar in the motility test?

A

Semi-solid for detection of motility

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3
Q

What is the substrate in the motility test?

A

Triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC)

  • Detects bacterial growth - show us where the bacteria grows
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4
Q

What is the enzyme in the motility test?

A

Various endoenzymes
- Function as reductase to reduce TTC
- Reductase found in all bacteria

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5
Q

What is the reduced form of TTC?

A

Formazan

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6
Q

What is a positive and negative in the motility test?

A

Positive: fuzzy appearance migrating away from the stab line

Negative: growth only along stab line
- Able to grow where inoculated but not motile away from stab line

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the nitrate reduction test?

A

To determine whether bacteria can use nitrate (NO3) as the final electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration

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8
Q

What is the substrate of the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrate no3-

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9
Q

What is the enzyme used in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrate reductase

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10
Q

What is the product of the nitrate reduction test?

A

Nitrite no2-

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11
Q

What are the reagents used in the nitrate reduction test to detect nitrite and what color does it turn for a positive test?

A

Reagents A and B
- Turns red

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12
Q

What is ammonification?

A

The production of ammonium

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13
Q

What is denitrification?

A

Loss of biologically available nitrogen; occurs by release of nitrogenous gases

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14
Q

What is the one true negative in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Turns red after zinc is added
- Reducing agent that reduces any remaining nitrate into nitrite

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15
Q

What is the function of zinc in the nitrate reduction test?

A

A reducing agent, will cause nitrate to gain electrons
- If turns red, bacteria don’t use nitrate
- If remains clear, full reduction of nitrate occurred by bacteria

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16
Q

What is an acidophile?

A

Grows best at low pH

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17
Q

What is a neutrophile?

A

Grows best at neutral pH

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18
Q

What is an alkaliphile?

A

Grows best at high pH

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19
Q

What does osmotolerant mean?

A

Grows at a range of salt concentrations

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20
Q

Where do psychrophiles grow?

A

Grow below freezing and optimally in refrigerator but not at room temperature

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21
Q

Where do psychrotrophs grow

A

Grow in refrigerator and room temperature but not at human body temperature

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22
Q

Where do mesophiles grow?

A

Grow at room temperature and body temperature and a little above body temperature

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23
Q

Where do thermophiles grow?

A

Not at body temperature but above 40 to 80 degrees

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24
Q

Where do extreme thermophiles grow?

A

Boiling temperatures

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25
What is an example of a psychrotroph?
Listeria monocytogenes
26
What is the purpose of the steam sterilization?
To determine if the autoclave is working properly to sterilize instruments, media,etc
27
What are the minimum operating conditions for the steam sterilization test?
120 degrees celsius for 15 minutes at 15 PSI
28
What is in the kilit ampule?
Bacillus stearothermophilus endospores - heat resistant organism Bromocresol purple - pH indicator Purple = alkaline Yellow = acidic Glucose - fermentation - If organism survives, it will ferment glucose and produce acidic products
29
What would a sterile and non-sterile solution look like?
Not sterile = yellow - Acidic meaning glucose was fermented by bacteria Sterile = purple - Alkaline meaning glucose was not fermented and organism died in autoclave
30
What is the purpose of the kirby bauer method (disk diffusion)
To perform a culture and antibiotic sensitivity test on an organism
31
How is the Kirby bauer method a standardized test?
Uses a mueller-hinton agar pH = 7.2-7.4 Soft agar for diffusion 4mm in depth (lateral diffusion) Plates incubated at 37 degrees celsius Incubate for 18 hours Amount of drug
32
What is being measured for the readout for the kirby bauer?
Zone of inhibition - clear to clear - Measured in mm
33
What are the 3 levels of susceptibility?
Sensitive = a normal dose of an antibiotic is effective Intermediate = a higher than normal dose of an antibiotic is required Resistant = no acceptable dose of antibiotic is effective
34
Are all bacteria found within the clear area around the disks dead? T/F
No this would be false
35
Are gram negative or gram positive bacteria more resistant to antibiotics?
Gram negative
36
Which organisms are most resistant to least resistance?
Prions Endospores of bacteria Mycobacteria Cysts of protozoa Vegetative protozoa Gram-negative bacteria Fungi, including most fungal spores Viruses without envelopes Gram positive bacteria Viruses with lipid envelopes
37
What is a broad spectrum drug?
Kills or inhibits both gram + and gram - bacteria
38
What is a narrow spectrum drug?
Kills or inhibits ONLY specific types of bacteria, like only gram + bacteria
39
What is drug synergy?
two drugs display greater effectiveness together than either drug alone
40
What is the purpose of the membrane filter technique?
To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (presumptive test)
41
What does presumptive mean?
Results or data that has a high confidence (>95%) of accuracy
42
What is a coliform?
Gram - rod bacteria that ferment lactose to produce acid and gas
43
Why is the presence of coliforms a problem in water?
Coliforms are an indicator of sewage/fecal contamination that may contain pathogens (viruses, worms, protozoans, etc)
44
How big are the pores in the grid on the membrane filter and how is this relevant to bacteria?
Pores are 0.45 micrometers in size Most bacteria are 1-5 micrometers in size - Bacteria would be stuck on filter and would not pass through
45
What is the purpose of the multiple tube fermentation lauryl tryptose broth?
To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (confirmatory test) - Confirm if water contains coliforms
46
What are the selective ingredients in the LTB broth?
Sodium lauryl sulfate - Inhibits gram + growth
47
What are the differential ingredients in the LTB broth?
Lactose
48
What is a positive and negative in the LTB broth?
Positive: growth/turbidity + gas Negative: no growth or growth + no gas
49
What ingredients are differential in the BGLB broth?
Lactose
50
What ingredients are selective in the BGLB broth?
Oxgall -bile (gallbladder of ox) - Brilliant green dye
51
What is a positive and negative in the BGLB?
Positive: growth and gas produced Negative: no growth or growth + no gas
52
What is the purpose of multiple tube fermentation endo agar?
To test a water sample for the presence of coliform bacteria (presumptive test)
53
What are the selective ingredients in the endo agar?
Sodium sulfite and basic fuchsin - Inhibit gram + but promote gram - growth
54
What are the differential ingredients in the endo agar?
Lactose
55
What is the final electron acceptor in alcohol fermentation?
Acetaldehyde
56
What is a selective medium?
Inhibits certain types of organisms from growing, while allowing the growth of other types
57
What is a differential medium?
Used to differentiate closely related bacteria species (for example, changes color based on differences in bacterial metabolism)
58
What does a green metallic sheen mean on the endo agar?
Gram - bacteria grew Darkened with acetaldehyde and turned metallic green with low pH - rapid fermenter of lactose Presumptive E. coli
59
What does a dark pink/red mean on the endo agar?
Gram - bacteria grew Darkened with acetaldehyde and did NOT turn metallic green - pH did not lower - Slow fermenter of lactose Presumptive klebsiella pneumoniae (pneumonia)
60
What does a light pink/colorless mean on the endo agar?
Gram - bacteria grew Did NOT darken with acetaldehyde - Did not ferment lactose - Used peptones Presumptive salmonella typhi (typhoid fever) or shigella dysenteriae (shigellosis)
61
Entamoeba histolytica - disease it causes
Amebic dysentery - Diarrhea
62
Entamoeba histolytica - infective stage and mode of transmission
Transmitted through fecal and oral route - Quadranucloate cyst (infections) - Ingestion (hatches in small intestine)
63
Entamoeba histolytica - mode of motility
Pseudopod
64
Entamoeba histolytica - symptoms
Bloody diarrhea (penetrate lining of intestine and causes ulcers)
65
Entamoeba histolytica - treatment
Metronidazole
66
Entamoeba histolytica - method of diagnosis
- Some people are asymptomatic carriers (only 10-20% of infected people) - Stool sample to look for cysts or trophs
67
Entamoeba histolytica - stages in the life cycle
Cysts - up to 4 nuclei Trophs - 8 trophs
68
Balantidium coli - disease it causes
Balantidiosis - diarrhea
69
Balantidium coli - infective stage and mode of transmission
Fecal and oral transmission - Eating contaminated food or drinking water
70
Balantidium coli - mode of motility
cilia
71
Balantidium coli - symptoms
Often asymptomatic but can have bloody diarrhea, weight loss, stomach pain, etc.
72
Balantidium coli - treatment
metronidazole
73
Balantidium coli - method of diagnosis
Stool sample looking for trophs or cysts in stool sample
74
Balantidium coli - stages in the life cycle
Cyst - kidney shaped nuclei Troph - oval
75
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - disease it causes
Giardiasis - Backpacker’s diarrhea
76
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - infective stage and mode of transmission
Beavers are carriers and shed cysts in the water during a bowel movement - Backpacker’s drink untreated wilderness water
77
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - mode of motility
flagella
78
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - symptoms
Watery diarrhea, fatigue, nausea, flatulence, weakness, weight loss, and abdominal cramps
79
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - treatment
metronidazole
80
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - method of diagnosis
Stool sample to verify cysts and trophs
81
Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) - stages in the life cycle (cysts, troph, etc)
cysts - up to 4 nuclei Troph - 2 nuclei + 4 pairs of flagella
82
Trichomonas vaginalis - disease it causes
Trichnomiasis (STI)
83
Trichomonas vaginalis - infective stage and mode of transmission
Sexually transmitted infection
84
Trichomonas vaginalis - mode of motility
flagella
85
Trichomonas vaginalis - symptoms
Many people asymptomatic Itching, burning, redness, discomfort w/ urination, change in vaginal discharge
86
Trichomonas vaginalis - treatment
metronidazole
87
Trichomonas vaginalis - method of diagnosis
Molecular testing and wet mount of discharge fluid to look for troph
88
Trichomonas vaginalis - stages in the life cycle
Troph - large nucleus w/ 4 flagella