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quiz 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Identify various methods of contraception

A

Includes: hormonal methods, barrier methods, intrauterine devices, natural methods

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2
Q

Describe menopause

A

The cessation of menstruation and reproductive capability

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3
Q

What is the procedure for breast self-examination?

A

Patient instruction on how to perform breast self-examination

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4
Q

What is the role in assisting with pelvic examination and Pap smear?

A

Instruct, prepare, assist, and document

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5
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A

Emotional: irritability, mood swings; Physical: bloating, headaches

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6
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Excessive bleeding during menses

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7
Q

What is metrorrhagia?

A

Irregular bleeding at times other than menses

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Infertility, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, dyspareunia

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9
Q

What is the diagnosis method for endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

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10
Q

What is the treatment for uterine prolapse?

A

Includes: vaginal hysterectomy, colporrhaphy, pessary

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11
Q

What are leiomyomas?

A

Benign tumors of uterine tissue

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12
Q

What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A

Hormonal disorder characterized by irregular menstrual cycles and excess androgens

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of PCOS?

A

Anovulation, amenorrhea, hirsutism

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14
Q

What is the age recommendation for starting Pap smears?

A

Within 3 years of first intercourse or by age 21

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15
Q

What are the types of gynecological cancers?

A

Breast, cervical, endometrial, ovarian

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16
Q

What is the significance of early diagnosis in cancer prognosis?

A

Better prognosis with early diagnosis and treatment

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17
Q

What are the common causes of infertility in women?

A

Uterine abnormalities, tubal scarring, hormone imbalance

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18
Q

What is the difference between ASCUS and a normal Pap smear?

A

ASCUS indicates atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance

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19
Q

What is colposcopy?

A

Visual examination of the vagina and cervix under magnification

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20
Q

True or False: All abnormal Pap test results indicate cancer.

A

False

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21
Q

What must be reported to the local health department regarding sexually transmitted diseases?

A

All STDs must be reported

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22
Q

What two factors greatly affect the prognosis of all cancers?

A

Early diagnosis and treatment.

These factors significantly improve the chances of successful treatment.

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23
Q

What must be reported to the local health department?

A

All sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

This is crucial for public health monitoring and control.

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24
Q

What is the cause of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum, a spirochete.

Syphilis progresses through distinct stages.

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25
Which sexually transmitted disease is the most common in the United States?
Chlamydia. ## Footnote It can lead to severe complications if untreated.
26
Which STD can cause conjunctivitis and pneumonia in newborns?
Chlamydia. ## Footnote Infected mothers may face higher risks during pregnancy.
27
What is Condylomata acuminata?
A viral infection causing genital warts due to human papillomavirus (HPV). ## Footnote It increases the risk of cervical cancer.
28
What is the treatment for herpes genitalis?
Acyclovir. ## Footnote There is no cure, only management of symptoms.
29
What is salpingitis?
Infection of the fallopian tubes. ## Footnote Commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections.
30
What are the signs of early pregnancy?
Goodell sign and Chadwick sign. ## Footnote These indicate cervical changes during pregnancy.
31
What is the normal gestation period?
37 to 40 weeks. ## Footnote Pregnancy is considered premature if less than 37 weeks.
32
What is parity?
Pregnancy that resulted in a viable . ## Footnote It is distinct from gravidity, which refers to pregnancy itself.
33
What is the purpose of a hysterosalpingography?
To determine the patency of the fallopian tubes in infertility cases. ## Footnote It involves radiographic imaging after contrast medium injection.
34
What should a pregnant patient be advised to notify the physician about?
Vaginal bleeding or spotting, persistent vomiting, fever or chills, dysuria, abdominal cramping, leaking amniotic fluid, altered fetal movement, dizziness. ## Footnote These symptoms can indicate complications.
35
What are the stages of HIV progression to AIDS?
1. Acute infectious state 2. Latent period 3. Symptomatic phase 4. Onset of immunodeficiency disorders. ## Footnote Each stage has distinct characteristics and symptoms.
36
What is the treatment for gonorrhea?
Antibiotics. ## Footnote Early treatment is crucial to prevent complications.
37
What is a Pap smear used for?
To screen for cervical cancer. ## Footnote It is a routine part of the gynecologic examination.
38
What is the definition of nullipara?
A woman who has never given birth to a viable fetus. ## Footnote This term is used in obstetric history taking.
39
What is the primary role of the colposcope?
To visually examine the vaginal and cervical surfaces. ## Footnote It is used during a colposcopy procedure.
40
What is the significance of Braxton-Hicks contractions?
They are practice contractions that do not affect the cervix. ## Footnote They occur during pregnancy as the body prepares for labor.
41
What is the main complication of untreated chlamydia in women?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). ## Footnote This can lead to infertility due to tubal scarring.
42
What is the purpose of a pelvic exam during the first prenatal visit?
To establish a baseline of the patient’s physical condition and confirm pregnancy. ## Footnote Includes a complete history and risk factor assessment.
43
What is a cesarean section?
A surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the abdominal wall and uterus. ## Footnote Indicated in certain complications during delivery.
44
What is labor?
Labor is the physiologic process leading to expelling the fetus from the uterus.
45
What characterizes the onset of labor?
Regular uterine contractions that become more intense and more frequent with time.
46
When is a cesarean section necessary?
When normal vaginal delivery is not possible or advisable due to: * Cephalopelvic disproportion * Placenta previa * Poor presentation (transverse, breech) * Failure to progress * Infant or maternal distress
47
What is the incision process in a cesarean section?
An incision is made through the abdominal wall into the uterus.
48
What is postpartum care?
Postpartum care can take up to 6 weeks and includes a scheduled visit within 4–6 weeks of delivery.
49
What is the puerperium?
The puerperium is the period of time (about 6 weeks) from childbirth until reproductive structures return to normal.
50
Name and describe the three types of lochia.
Lochia is uterine discharge following childbirth, which progresses through: * Lochia rubra: blood-tinged discharge within 6 days of delivery * Lochia serosa: thin, brownish discharge lasting 3 to 4 days after lochia rubra * Lochia alba: white discharge lasting up to week 6
51
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized ovum implants somewhere other than in the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube.
52
What are the signs and symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy?
Signs and symptoms include: * Pregnancy signs * Pelvic pain * Syncope * Dyspareunia * Irregular menses * Rupture * Hemorrhage * Shock and death
53
How is an ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?
Diagnosis can be made through: * Pregnancy test * Ultrasound * Laparoscopy * Culdocentesis
54
What is hyperemesis gravidarum?
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe morning sickness that leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and weight loss.
55
What are the symptoms of spontaneous abortion?
Symptoms include: * Vaginal bleeding * Low back pain * Uterine cramps
56
What is preeclampsia?
Preeclampsia is pregnancy-related hypertension characterized by: * Proteinuria * Lower extremity edema * Hypertension
57
What can preeclampsia progress to?
Preeclampsia may progress to: * Blurred vision * Headaches * Edema * Vomiting
58
What is eclampsia?
Eclampsia is a medical emergency characterized by seizures and extreme signs of preeclampsia.
59
What is placenta previa?
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding.
60
How is placenta previa diagnosed?
Placenta previa is diagnosed by ultrasound.
61
What is abruptio placentae?
Abruptio placentae is the premature separation or detachment of the placenta from the uterus.
62
What are the symptoms of abruptio placentae?
Symptoms include: * Pain * Uterine tenderness * Bleeding * Shock * Fetal distress
63
What is amniocentesis?
Amniocentesis is the puncture of the amniotic sac to remove fluid for testing.
64
What is the purpose of a fetal ultrasonography?
Fetal ultrasonography is used to assess: * Size and position * Gestational age * Number of fetuses * Structure and development
65
What is the contraction stress test (CST)?
The CST is performed in the third trimester to determine how the fetus tolerates uterine contractions.
66
What is the nonstress test (NST)?
The NST is a noninvasive procedure used to evaluate fetal heart tones and movement in relation to spontaneous uterine contractions.
67
What are some factors that influence the choice of contraception?
Factors include: * Patient’s beliefs * Patient’s health history * Patient’s financial situation * Patient’s motivations * Concerns of partner or spouse
68
What is menopause?
Menopause is characterized by the cessation of the menstrual cycle, occurring around age 45 to 50 years.
69
What are signs of early menopause?
Signs can include: * Oligomenorrhea * Amenorrhea * Dysfunctional uterine bleeding * Hot flashes * Flushing * Perspiration
70
What complications are associated with decreased estrogen during menopause?
Decreased estrogen increases the risk of: * Atherosclerosis * Coronary heart disease * Osteoporosis
71
What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
HRT is used to alleviate menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes, depression, and vaginal drying.
72
What should women in menopause continue to do?
Women should continue to have regular pelvic examinations, Pap smears, breast examinations, and mammograms.

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