Quiz 51

Question 1

Incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct results in what?

Answer 1

Meckel diverticulum

Question 2

Rathke’s pouch develops into what?

Answer 2

Anterior pituitary

Question 3

What tumor arises from epithelial nests derived from Rathke’s pouch?

Answer 3

Craniopharyngioma

Question 4

What does gross examination of a craniopharyngioma appear like?

Answer 4

Partly cystic mass filled with dark brown oily fluid

Question 5

Histologically, what is seen in a craniopharyngioma?

Answer 5

Tumors derived from dental epithelium

Question 6

What is the MOA of ropinirole?

Answer 6

Dopamine receptor agonist

Question 7

What is the MOA of selegiline?

Answer 7

Inhibits MOA-B

Question 8

What is the inheritance pattern of Wilson’s disease?

Answer 8

Autosomal recessive

Question 9

What is defective in Wilson’s disease?

Answer 9

ATP7B - copper transporter

Question 10

What chromosome is responsible for Wilson’s disease?

Answer 10

Chromosome 13

Question 11

What is seen on eye examination of a patient with Wilson’s disease?

Answer 11

Kayser-Fleischer ring

Question 12

How can one observe Kayser-Fleischer rings?

Answer 12

Slit-lamp examination

Question 13

Name 5 AEs of valproic acid.

Answer 13

Teratogen (neural tube defects), alopecia, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia

Question 14

What are schuffner’s dots?

Answer 14

Red granules in erythrocytes - indicative of malarial infection

Question 15

What anti-malarial drug can cause worsening of psoriasis?

Answer 15

Chloroquine

Question 16

What anti-malarial drug can cause retinopathy?

Answer 16

Chloroquine

Question 17

What is seen on joint aspiration of gout?

Answer 17

Monosodium urate crystals

Question 18

What is the appearance of monosodium urate crystals?

Answer 18

Needle shaped; negatively birefringent (blue when perpendicular)

Question 19

What is the function of the interosseous muscles? What innervates them?

Answer 19

Abduction and adduction of the digits; innervated by the ulnar nerve

Question 20

Ulnar deviation results when what nerve is injured?

Answer 20

Median nerve

Question 21

What innervates oppenens pollicis? What is it’s action?

Answer 21

Median nerve; opposition of the thumb

Question 22

What is seen on EEG of a patient with CJD?

Answer 22

Triphasic spikes

Question 23

What can be found on lumbar puncture of a patient with CJD?

Answer 23

14-3-3 protein

Question 24

What is a cause of relative polycythemia?

Answer 24

Increased RBC count due to decreased plasma volume (eg dehydration)

Question 25

What are some causes of secondary absolute polycythemia?

Answer 25

Hypoxia (due to congenital heart disease, pulmonary disease, or high altitude) or ectopic EPO production ( RCC)

Question 26

What is the term for the bulls eye rash or target seen in Lyme disease?

Answer 26

Erythema migrans

Question 27

Why is doxycycline used over other efficacious agents in treating Lyme disease?

Answer 27

Doxycycline is effective in treating anaplasma phagocytophilum, a common coinfectious agent

Question 28

What is the function of adductor pollicis? What innervates it?

Answer 28

Adduction of the thumb; ulnar nerve

Question 29

The median nerve innervates what three muscles of the thenar eminence?

Answer 29

Flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis

Question 30

What is the function of the 1st and 2nd lumbricals? What is their innervation?

Answer 30

Flexion at the MCP joint and extension at the interphalangeal joint; median nerve

Question 31

Damage to 1st and 2nd lumbricals results in what hand formation?

Answer 31

Median claw hand

Question 32

How does V2 exit the skull?

Answer 32

Foramen rotundum

Question 33

What go through the carotid canal on the skull?

Answer 33

Internal carotid a. And carotid sympathetic n.

Question 34

How does the mandibular nerve exit the skull?

Answer 34

Foramen ovale

Question 35

What travels through the optic canal?

Answer 35

CN II and ophthalmic artery

Question 36

What goes through the superior orbital fissure in the skull?

Answer 36

CN III, IV, VI, ophthalmic nerve (V1)

Question 37

What goes through the foramen spinosum?

Answer 37

Middle meningeal artery

Question 38

What goes through the jugular foramen?

Answer 38

CN IX, X, XI

Question 39

What structure produces aqueous humor?

Answer 39

Ciliary body

Question 40

What are astrocytes derived from?

Answer 40

Neuroectoderm

Question 41

What are schwann cells derived from?

Answer 41

Neural crest cells

Question 42

What are ependymal cells derived from?

Answer 42

Neuroectoderm

Question 43

What are oligodendroglia cells derived from?

Answer 43

Neuroectoderm

Question 44

What are the DRG derived from?

Answer 44

Neural crest

Question 45

Name the virus families with segmented genomes.

Answer 45

Bunyaviridae, Orthomyxoviridae, Reoviridae, Arenaviridae

Question 46

What cells release somatostatin?

Answer 46

D cells

Question 47

What cells release gastrin?

Answer 47

G cells

Question 48

What structure in the brain is affected by Parkinson disease?

Answer 48

Substantia nigra

Question 49

Where is the substantia nigra located in the brain?

Answer 49

Midbrain ("mickey mouse")

Question 50

What neurotransmitter is affected in Parkinson disease?

Answer 50

Dopamine - decreased

Question 51

What is the histologic hallmarks of Parkinson disease?

Answer 51

Loss of pigmented dopaminergic neurons form substantia nigra and Lewy bodies (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions)

Question 52

What disease are granulovacuolar degeneration and Hiran bodies found in?

Answer 52

Alzheimer disease

Question 53

When does when see Negri bodies? Where are they found?

Answer 53

Rabbies; found in Purkinje neurons and hippocampal pyramidal neurons

Question 54

What disease are neurofibrillary tangles found in?

Answer 54

Alzheimer disease

Question 55

What regions of the brain are affected by Pick Disease?

Answer 55

Frontotemporal regions

Question 56

What neurotransmitter is important for the induction of REM sleep?

Answer 56

ACh

Question 57

What are the affects of dopamine on sleep?

Answer 57

Produces arousal and wakefulness; dopamine levels rise with waking

Question 58

What is the importance of NE in sleep?

Answer 58

NE is lower during REM

Question 59

What neurotransmitter helps initiate sleep?

Answer 59

Serotonin

Question 60

What neurotransmitter is high during REM?

Answer 60

Ach

Question 61

What is acanthosis nigricans?

Answer 61

Hyperplasia of the stratum spinosum of the epidermis; thickened, hyperpigmented zones of the skin

Question 62

What structure does the mandibular nerve pass through?

Answer 62

Foramen ovale

Question 63

What is the MOA of gemfibrozil?

Answer 63

Atdivate proliferator-activated receptor-alpha -- increases the expression of lipoprotein lipases

Question 64

What are AEs of fibrates?

Answer 64

Gallstones and muscle toxicity

Question 65

How long does it take to reach steady state of a drug?

Answer 65

Four to five half lives

Question 66

What percentage of steady state is reached in one half life?

Answer 66

50%

Question 67

What percentage of steady state is reached in 3 half lives?

Answer 67

87.5%

Question 68

If a drug has a half life of 6 hours, how long does it take to reach 75% of steady-state?

Answer 68

Takes 2 half lives to reach 75% of steady-state; therefore 12 hours

Question 69

Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone located?

Answer 69

Area postrema in the floor of the fourth ventricle

Question 70

What is the MOA of metoclopramide?

Answer 70

Dopamine antagonist

Question 71

Clawing of the entire hand is from what type of brachial plexus injury?

Answer 71

Lower trunk lesion

Question 72

What is Klumpke paralysis?

Answer 72

Damage to lower trunk of brachial plexus

Question 73

Why is there an issue when a woman with PKU becomes pregnant?

Answer 73

PKU results in higher levels of phenylalanine, which can cross the placenta and act as a teratogen to the fetus