Quiz 6-8 Questions Flashcards
(92 cards)
1
Q
Which neurotransmitter, produced by the midbrain raphe nuclei, has major effects on mood? A. Serotonin B. Acetylcholine C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D. Norepinephrine E. Dopamine
A
A. Serotonin
2
Q
What is the function of the reticular formation?
A. Modulates nociceptive and pain information
B. Integrates sensory and cortical information
C. Regulates somatic motor activity, autonomic function, and consciousness
D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
3
Q
Normal sleep-wake cycles require which parts of the consciousness system to be functional?
A. Only the basal forebrain, thalamus, and cerebral cortex
B. All brainstem and cerebral components of the consciousness system
C. The consciousness system does not regulate sleep-wake cycles.
D. Only the brainstem components of the consciousness system
A
B. All brainstem and cerebral components of the consciousness system
4
Q
What area of the brain actively induces sleep? A. Ascending reticular activating system B. Brainstem C. Basal forebrain D. None of the above
A
A. Ascending reticular activating system
5
Q
Which of the following neurotransmitters act on the anterior cingulate cortex to help direct attention toward an object? A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. Serotonin D. Norepinephrine E. Both A and D
A
B. Acetylcholine
6
Q
The intralaminar thalamic nuclei are important for which of the following? A. Arousal and motor behavior B. Pituitary and adrenal gland function C. Reward and punishment behavior D. Spatial and somatic mapping
A
A. Arousal and motor behavior
7
Q
What is the MOST appropriate term to describe brain tissue damage from a cascade of biochemical, cellular, and molecular events; hypoxia; edema; and increased intracranial pressure? A. Secondary brain injury B. Primary brain injury C. Concomitant brain injury D. Exposure brain injury
A
A. Secondary brain injury
8
Q
Which of the following neuromuscular patient presentations are LEAST likely to be seen as a direct result of a traumatic brain injury? A. Upper and lower extremity paresis B. Chorea form movements C. Abnormal tone D. Abnormal gait patterns
A
B. Chorea form movements
9
Q
What is the MOST likely classification of the altered state of consciousness for a patient with traumatic brain injury who presents with a completely nonfunctional arousal system; no auditory, visual, cognitive, or communicative function; and is ventilator dependent? A. Neurogenic reserve state B. Vegetative state C. Minimally conscious state D. Comatose state
A
D. Comatose state
10
Q
A patient with traumatic brain injury appears to have relatively intact visual fixation and visual pursuit and does not withdraw from noxious stimulus, but rather localizes to it. What is the MOST appropriate classification of the state of alteration of consciousness for this patient? A. Minimally conscious state B. Comatose state C. Vegetative state D. Ozymandias state
A
A. Minimally conscious state
11
Q
Which of the following is a sympathetic nervous system response that is MORE likely to be present after traumatic brain injury? A. Increased heart rate B. Decreased blood pressure C. Slowed respiration rate D. Hypothermic state
A
A. Increased heart rate
12
Q
The Glasgow Coma Scale is the most widely used clinical scale that measures levels of consciousness and helps define and classify the level of brain injury sustained. Which of the following is NOT a traditional scoring component of this scale? A. Eye opening response B. Motor response C. Length of post-traumatic amnesia D. Verbal response
A
C. Length of post-traumatic amnesia
13
Q
Which of the following is the MOST important protocol for preventing common secondary impairments for patients in comatose states after brain injury?
A. Eliminate the use of tilt-in-space wheelchairs to enable proper positioning in rigid-frame chairs.
B. Position lower extremities in full extension whenever possible while in bed.
C. Encourage plantarflexion of the foot by serial casting.
D. Reposition patients every 2 hours to decrease likelihood of skin breakdown.
A
D. Reposition patients every 2 hours to decrease likelihood of skin breakdown.
14
Q
Glial cells contribute which of the following?
A. Communication between neurons and blood vessels
B. Neural cell death
C. Action potential propagation
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
A
E. All of the above
15
Q
Demyelination of an axon:
A. Results in decreased membrane resistance, allowing a leakage of electrical current.
B. Results in slowed propagation of action potentials.
C. May prevent propagation of action potentials.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
16
Q
Peripheral demyelination:
A. Typically affects small diameter axons before large diameter axons.
B. Is a characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis.
C. Affects the structure of oligodendrocytes.
D. Typically affects the Schwann cells of large, well-myelinated axons.
E. Typically affects the axon at the ventral root of the spinal cord.
A
D. Typically affects the Schwann cells of large, well-myelinated axons.
17
Q
Guillain-Barré syndrome:
A. Involves demyelination of peripheral axons.
B. Results from an autoimmune attack on Schwann cells.
C. May affect cranial nerves controlling the muscles involved in swallowing, breathing, and facial expression.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
18
Q
Multiple sclerosis:
A. Results from an autoimmune attack on oligodendrocytes.
B. Involves demyelination of axons in the CNS.
C. Has signs and symptoms associated with both motor and sensory impairment.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
19
Q
Based on knowledge of the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis (MS), which of the following patients is most likely to develop MS? A) A 65-year-old white man B) A 38-year-old African-American woman C) A 30-year-old white woman D) A 54-year-old African-American man
A
C) A 30-year-old white woman
20
Q
Which of the following is true with regard to geographic distribution and MS?
A) The highest frequency of MS occurs in areas of the southern United States and Europe and Northern Australia.
B) The highest frequency of MS occurs in areas of the northern United States and Europe, Scandinavian countries and southern Australia.
C) The highest frequency of MS occurs in tropical areas of Asia, Africa, and South America.
D) Geographical location does not affect frequency of MS.
A
B) The highest frequency of MS occurs in areas of the northern United States and Europe, Scandinavian countries and southern Australia.
21
Q
The most common form of MS is A) benign MS. B) primary progressive MS. C) malignant MS. D) relapsing-remitting MS.
A
D) relapsing-remitting MS.
22
Q
Which of the following environmental conditions can result in a pseudoexacerbation in patients with MS? A) Cold temperatures B) Hot temperatures C) High altitude D) High humidity
A
B) Hot temperatures
23
Q
Your MS patient’s chart indicates he has a scotoma. This refers to
A) a loss of peripheral vision.
B) blurred vision that occurs with fatigue.
C) a dark spot that appears in the center of the visual field.
D) a loss of the pupillary light reflex.
A
C) a dark spot that appears in the center of the visual field.
24
Q
Which of the following are common symptoms in patients with MS?
A) Hypotonia, weakness, paresthesia, fatigue
B) Fatigue, bradycardia, spasticity, weakness
C) Weakness, resting tremors, hypotonia, visual disturbances
D) Visual disturbances, urinary dysfunction, spasticity, pain
A
D) Visual disturbances, urinary dysfunction, spasticity, pain
25
Which of the following is true with regard to fatigue and MS?
A) Fatigue is a relatively rare symptom in patients with MS.
B) Fatigue is directly related to severity of disease.
C) Fatigue comes on abruptly and resembles an overwhelming flu-like exhaustion.
D) Most patients report only mild fatigue that occurs primarily after exercise.
C) Fatigue comes on abruptly and resembles an overwhelming flu-like exhaustion.
26
Which of the following statements is true with regard to life expectancy in patients with MS?
A) Prognosis is fairly good; for most patients life expectancy is not reduced.
B) Prognosis is poor; the majority of patients with MS will die within 5 years of symptom onset.
C) Life expectancy is significantly related to whether or not patients are taking disease-modifying agents.
D) Men diagnosed with MS tend to live only 5 to 7 years, while women live an average of 10 years after diagnosis.
A) Prognosis is fairly good; for most patients life expectancy is not reduced.
27
Which of the following statements is true with regard to the prognosis of patients with MS?
A) Onset with only one symptom is associated with a favorable prognosis.
B) Older age (after 45) is associated with a more favorable prognosis.
C) The strongest indicator of a favorable prognosis is a positive attitude.
D) Patients with primary progressive MS have the best prognosis.
A) Onset with only one symptom is associated with a favorable prognosis.
28
Which of the following is true with regard to disease-modifying drugs (such as Betaseron, Avonex, and Copaxone) and their use in patients with MS?
A) They are indicated for patients with both progressive and relapsing remitting forms of MS.
B) They result in a reversal of existing symptoms in 30% to 50% of patients.
C) In some patients, they result in a reduced number of relapses and severity of attacks.
D) They reduce spasticity but have little effect on other signs/symptoms.
C) In some patients, they result in a reduced number of relapses and severity of attacks.
29
During an acute exacerbation patients with MS should
A) continue with their typical levels of exercise or ambulation; this will help to decrease the severity of the exacerbation.
B) adjust their exercise and activity levels; they will fare better if they allow themselves to rest for a few days.
C) be placed on absolute bedrest; activity during the exacerbation will increase the severity of symptoms.
D) increase their activity level; activity will help shorten the exacerbation period.
B) adjust their exercise and activity levels; they will fare better if they allow themselves to rest for a few days.
30
Management of fatigue in patients in MS can be best addressed by
A) teaching patients activity pacing and energy conservation techniques.
B) discontinuing participation in all aerobic exercise.
C) using a knee-ankle-foot orthosis to stabilize LE muscles use during ambulation.
D) discontinuing all strength training.
A) teaching patients activity pacing and energy conservation techniques.
31
```
Individuals with multiple sclerosis who are MORE likely to benefit from a maintenance therapy program fall within which range of scores on the Expanded Disability Status Scale?
A. 0 to 2.5
B. 3 to 5
C. 5.5 to 7
D. 7.5 to 9.5
```
D. 7.5 to 9.5
32
```
ACh receptor subtypes include:
A. Adrenergic and noradrenergic
B. Nicotinic and muscarinic
C. Alpha and beta
D. Alpha and gamma
E. None of the above
```
B. Nicotinic and muscarinic
33
How does onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) therapeutically produce paresis in overactive muscles?
A. Acts as an antagonist by binding to the ACh receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.
B. Rapidly degrades ACh in the synaptic cleft.
C. Facilitates the reuptake and sequestration of ACh into the presynaptic cell.
D. Disrupts the protein structure of the muscle cell receptor, thus preventing ACh from binding.
E. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal at the neuromuscular junction.
E. Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal at the neuromuscular junction.
34
```
The binding of ACh at the neuromuscular junction results in:
A. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
B. Presynaptic facilitation.
C. Presynaptic inhibition.
D. An excitatory postsynaptic potential.
```
D. An excitatory postsynaptic potential.
35
Which of the following neurotransmitters is paired with its correct description?
A. Glutamate; excitatory transmitter, is important in learning and development.
B. Dopamine; inhibitory transmitter, increases attention to sensory information.
C. GABA; excitatory transmitter, modulates neural activity in the CNS.
D. Acetylcholine; excitatory transmitter, affects mood, arousal, and pain perception.
E. Both A and C
A. Glutamate; excitatory transmitter, is important in learning and development.
36
Myasthenia gravis:
A. Is caused by the destruction of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles.
B. Results in the decreased release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction.
C. Is an autoimmune disease that destroys ACh receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles, thus interferes with ACh binding for repetitive muscle contractions.
D. Is successfully treated with removal of the pituitary gland.
E. All of the above
C. Is an autoimmune disease that destroys ACh receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of muscles, thus interferes with ACh binding for repetitive muscle contractions.
37
Which one of the following is used to treat myasthenia gravis?
A. Medications that inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine
B. Medications that activate the immune system
C. Removal of the pancreas, which contributes to receptor damage
D. Frequent blood transfusions to prevent anemia
E. All of the above
A. Medications that inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine
38
Which of the following is NOT true with regard to ALS?
A. In the majority of cases the disease is inherited.
B. Average age at onset is mid to late 50s.
C. Initial symptoms most often occur in the extremities.
D. It is a neurodegenerative disease.
A. In the majority of cases the disease is inherited.
39
```
Which is considered the cardinal sign of ALS?
A. Pain
B. Sensory loss
C. Ataxia
D. Muscle weakness
```
D. Muscle weakness
40
Pseudobulbar affect, which is commonly seen in individuals with spastic bulbar palsy, refers to:
A. deficits in speaking and swallowing due to weakness in bulbar muscles.
B. fluctuating pathological emotional control.
C. deficits that mimic bulbar weakness.
D. slowness of speech and decreased articulation.
B. fluctuating pathological emotional control.
41
Which of the following is true with regard to prognosis in patients with ALS?
A. Older age at onset is a positive prognostic indicator; people diagnosed after age 55 have better 5-year survival rates.
B. Patients with familial ALS have a better prognosis that those with sporadic ALS.
C. Those with limb-onset ALS have a better prognosis than those with bulbar-onset ALS.
D. Disease-modifying medications, if taken early after diagnosis, can increase life expectancy by 10 years or more.
C. Those with limb-onset ALS have a better prognosis than those with bulbar-onset ALS.
42
Which of the following is true with regard to pharmacological management of ALS?
A. Drugs such as Copaxone, which are commonly used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis, are also effective in slowing the progression of ALS.
B. The glutamate inhibitor Riluzole (Rilutek) is approved for the treatment of ALS and may extend survival by several months.
C. Anticonvulsant medications such as Dilantin are often prescribed because risk of seizures increase as the disease progresses.
D. There are currently no medications available for the treatment of ALS.
B. The glutamate inhibitor Riluzole (Rilutek) is approved for the treatment of ALS and may extend survival by several months.
43
The primary goal of medical intervention in patients with ALS is:
A. to cure the disease and restore the patient to health.
B. to prevent progression of the disease and when possible reverse the pathological process.
C. to achieve the best quality of life for patients through palliative care.
D. to prepare the patient for inevitable early death.
C. to achieve the best quality of life for patients through palliative care.
44
In patients with MS, which of the following is true with regard to the management of dysphagia?
A. For most patients with ALS, dysphagia is not an issue.
B. Initially, dysphagia can be managed by dietary modifications, patient education, and swallowing adaptations and strategies.
C. Most patients with ALS are started early on total parenteral nutrition through a central line to prevent malnutrition.
D. Even in patients with dysphagia, malnutrition and dehydration are not common.
B. Initially, dysphagia can be managed by dietary modifications, patient education, and swallowing adaptations and strategies.
45
In patients with ALS, positive pressure noninvasive ventilation:
A. is recommended once vital capacity falls below 50% of predicted values.
B. is recommended at diagnosis to prevent vital capacity from decreasing.
C. is not recommended, as supplemental oxygen is usually all that is needed.
D. is not recommended, as it cannot stop progression of disease and will extend the patient's survival only by a few months.
A. is recommended once vital capacity falls below 50% of predicted values.
46
Which of the following interventions is not appropriate for managing cervical muscle weakness in patients with ALS?
A. Cervical collars for provide external support
B. Reclining or tilt-in-space wheelchair with head support
C. Environmental/ergonomic changes such as elevating reading material
D. Halotraction
D. Halotraction
47
```
A patient with a diagnosis of ALS has sialorrhea. The patient will experience:
A. excessive sweating.
B. excessive salivation and drooling.
C. ocular paralysis.
D. unexplained limb pain.
```
B. excessive salivation and drooling.
48
Which of the following is true with regard to exercise in patients with ALS?
A. When prescribing exercises, therapists must strive to attain a balance between promoting optimal use of intact muscles and preventing overuse fatigue.
B. Strengthening exercises are most effective in the weakest muscles, as these have the greatest room for improvement.
C. Exercise should be prescribed at moderate-to-high intensities; otherwise it is not effective for improving strength and endurance.
D. Exercise is contraindicated, regardless of intensity, because it causes overwork damage.
A. When prescribing exercises, therapists must strive to attain a balance between promoting optimal use of intact muscles and preventing overuse fatigue.
49
Pain in patients with ALS:
A. is typically a sharp and shooting pain as a result of demyelination.
B. typically occurs as a secondary or composite impairment as a result of immobility or malalignment.
C. is one of the first signs/symptoms of the disease.
D. is uncommon.
B. typically occurs as a secondary or composite impairment as a result of immobility or malalignment.
50
```
The treatment of patients with early-stage ALS should include
A. restorative intervention.
B. preventive intervention.
C. compensatory intervention.
D. all of the above.
```
D. all of the above
51
Which of the following mobility devices would be most appropriate to purchase for a patient with ALS?
A. A manual wheelchair with reclining back
B. A power wheelchair with tilt-in-space seating
C. A motorized scooter
D. A wheeled standing frame
B. A power wheelchair with tilt-in-space seating
52
```
A patient reports difficulty with holding eating utensils and writing but denies difficulty when using the left hand. Upon physical examination, fasciculations and a positive Babinski sign are noted in the right upper extremity. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Acute poliomyelitis
B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
C. Guillain-Barré syndrome
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
```
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
53
```
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is unable to elevate the eyebrows. Which cranial nerve (CN) is MOST likely involved?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN X
```
B. CN VII
54
A patient who was recently diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis presents with clonus and weakness in the right dorsiflexors (3/5) and hip flexors (4–/5). The patient also reports a few choking episodes when eating. Which is the MOST appropriate category for this patient according to the El Escorial Criteria?
A. Clinically probable
B. Clinically definite
C. Clinically possible
D. Clinically probable with laboratory support
A. Clinically probable
55
A 56-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis reports mild to moderate right shoulder pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 weeks. The strength of the shoulder musculature is 4/5. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intervention at this point in time?
A. Performing heavy eccentric exercises to maintain stabilization
B. Providing the patient with a sling to allow his shoulder to rest
C. Managing pain and advancing to moderate resistance exercises
D. Using modalities for pain relief
C. Managing pain and advancing to moderate resistance exercises
56
Which approach needs to be considered when determining the appropriate amount and type of exercise in a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis whose functional status has declined?
A. Encouraging the patient to rest and exercise less so energy can be conserved
B. Providing a program that includes exercises with heavy eccentric loading
C. Developing a program that focuses more on the weaker muscles vs the stronger ones
D. Providing the patient with an exercise program at moderate to low intensities
D. Providing the patient with an exercise program at moderate to low intensities
57
```
Which of the following preventive treatment strategies can be taken during the late stages of rehabilitation for patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Strengthening
B. Endurance exercises
C. Pressure relieving devices
D. All of the above
```
C. Pressure relieving devices
58
```
Interventions directed toward modification of activities or the environment to minimize functional limitations are called:
A. Preventive interventions
B. Facilitative interventions
C. Compensatory interventions
D. Restorative interventions
```
C. Compensatory interventions
59
```
Individuals with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are at risk to develop which of the following shoulder pathologies as weakness progresses?
A. Glenohumeral subluxation
B. Abnormal scapulohumeral rhythm
C. Adhesive capsulitis
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
60
```
You are going to see a home health patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and you note in the PT evaluation that this person has lower extremity spasticity. Which of the following interventions is NOT likely to be useful to include in your caregiver training?
A. Use of cryotherapy
B. Use of quick stretch with exercises
C. Massage
D. Daily standing program
```
B. Use of quick stretch with exercises
61
```
Generally speaking in regards to strengthening exercises in progressive neuromuscular diseases, there is not likely a benefit to attempt to strengthen any muscles with a reported strength less than:
A. 1/5
B. 2/5
C. 3/5
D. 4/5
```
C. 3/5
62
According to the somatic marker hypothesis:
A. Specific areas of the body are mapped on the motor cortex.
B. Memory is processed by both limbic and nonlimbic structures.
C. The amygdala interprets facial expressions and social signals.
D. Emotions are critical for sound judgment and decision making.
E. Pressure points on the body correspond to visceral organs.
D. Emotions are critical for sound judgment and decision making.
63
What is(are) the effect(s) of persistently high levels of cortisol (i.e., a prolonged stress response)?
A. Suppression of immune function
B. Increased incidence of colitis, cardiovascular disorders, and adult-onset diabetes
C. Cognitive and emotional disturbances
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
64
```
The intralaminar thalamic nuclei are important for which of the following?
A. Arousal and motor behavior
B. Pituitary and adrenal gland function
C. Reward and punishment behavior
D. Spatial and somatic mapping
```
A. Arousal and motor behavior
65
```
A patient is being taught to ascend stairs with a walker while a maintaining non–weight-bearing stance on his left foot. Once learned, this motor skill will be an example of which of the following?
A. Conscious procedural memory
B. Unconscious declarative memory
C. Unconscious procedural memory
D. Conscious declarative memory
```
C. Unconscious procedural memory
66
In the encoding process of declarative memory:
A. Memories are stabilized via long-term potentiation.
B. Memories can be enhanced by attention or emotional arousal.
C. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex encodes the declarative memory information for storage in the hippocampus.
D. Information is processed into a memory representation in the thalamic relay nuclei.
E. All of the above occur.
B. Memories can be enhanced by attention or emotional arousal.
67
Which of the following correctly matches a system with its contribution to the stress response?
A. Somatic nervous system; increases muscle tension.
B. Autonomic nervous system; increases blood flow to the skin, kidneys, and digestive tract.
C. Neuroendocrine system; stimulates release of epinephrine from the adrenal glands.
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above
D. Both A and C
68
```
The functions of the ventral striatum include which of the following?
A. Reward-oriented behavior
B. Motor planning and execution
C. Goal-setting behavior
D. Visual and spatial processing
```
A. Reward-oriented behavior
69
A patient is unable to maintain a self-stretching activity while watching another patient
walk in the parallel bars. This is an example of difficulty with:
A. sustained attention.
B. focused attention.
C. alternating attention.
D. divided attention.
B. focused attention.
70
```
A patient is able to verbalize the steps needed to complete the activity you have requested; however, accuracy in physically completing the task is significantly lacking. This is an example of a deficit in what aspect of executive function?
A. Volition
B. Planning
C. Purposeful action
D. Effective performance
```
D. Effective performance
71
```
A patient who exhibits difficulty with recognizing personal performance errors is demonstrating difficulty with which of the following?
A. Executive function
B. Perception
C. Learning
D. Memory
```
A. Executive function
72
Task performance is most negatively influenced by which of the following?
A. Simple instruction in an unfamiliar environment
B. Complex instruction in a familiar environment
C. Simple instruction in a familiar environment
D. Complex instruction in an unfamiliar environment
D. Complex instruction in an unfamiliar environment
73
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using remedial techniques to retrain functional activities for a patient with cognitive dysfunction?
A. Remedial techniques are effective with limited insight.
B. Remedial techniques do not require good language skills.
C. Remedial techniques maximize neural recovery.
D. Remedial techniques produce functional results in a short time period.
C. Remedial techniques maximize neural recovery.
74
```
Which of the following is an example of a compensatory approach for treating short-term memory loss?
A. Computer games
B. Memory log
C. List recall drill
D. Logical association
```
B. Memory log
75
```
What is the MOST appropriate term to describe the process that requires integration of multiple sensory inputs and results in the awareness of objects and experiences within an environment?
A. Perception
B. Sensation
C. Cognition
D. Stimulation
```
A. Perception
76
Utilizing a sensory integration approach to perceptual retraining for remediating underlying deficits is MOST commonly associated with which of the following patient types?
A. An adolescent with a brain injury resulting in aphasia and dysphagia
B. A child with developmental sensorimotor or learning problems
C. A child with a traumatic limb amputation
D. An adult with difficulty planning and organizing daily home and work activities
B. A child with developmental sensorimotor or learning problems
77
A patient is involved in a co-treatment session with a physical therapist and an occupational therapist. The patient is standing at the sink and practicing the steps involved in teeth brushing. Which of the following examples of therapeutic goals MOST closely resembles a remedial approach to rehabilitation?
A. The patient will understand the importance of good oral hygiene.
B. Mastery of the teeth-brushing skill while standing at the sink will translate to other daily routines.
C. Teeth brushing will be performed independently while standing at the sink.
D. The patient will tolerate standing for 5 minutes while at the sink with minimal assistance.
B. Mastery of the teeth-brushing skill while standing at the sink will translate to other daily routines.
78
During functional locomotor training in the parallel bars, the therapist places a piece of brightly colored tape on the left shoe of a patient who has experienced a stroke and then cues the patient to “find the tape and move the foot the tape is on.” This intervention is BEST described as which of the following?
A. An intervention that is not recommended due to safety concerns
B. A sensory integration approach to the therapy goal
C. A top-down cognitive intervention strategy
D. An environmental adaptation to help accomplish a therapy goal
D. An environmental adaptation to help accomplish a therapy goal
79
Which of the following BEST describes the optimal timing for conducting an examination of a patient’s sensory abilities?
A. Before a cognitive or perceptual examination
B. During a cognitive or perceptual examination
C. After a cognitive or perceptual examination
D. Between a cognitive and a perceptual examination
A. Before a cognitive or perceptual examination
80
```
The relative inability of a patient to stay focused on a conversation during the initial evaluation of tasks such as donning or doffing clothing, preparing a basic meal on the stovetop, or doing mat exercises in a loud therapy gym is MOST likely indicative of a breakdown in which of the following cognitive systems?
A. Short-term memory
B. Attention
C. Long-term memory
D. Executive function
```
B. Attention
81
```
Chart review of a patient who is using a manual wheelchair reveals intact right and left visual fields; however, the patient has multiple abrasions on his left arm, demonstrates difficulty reading by not scanning all the way to the left side of the page, and routinely leaves the left side of meal trays untouched when they are served in the patient’s room. Which is the MOST likely condition responsible for these findings?
A. Left hemisphere stroke
B. Left homonymous hemianopsia
C. Unilateral neglect
D. Executive function deficit
```
C. Unilateral neglect
82
```
Vestibular connections influence which of the following?
A. Posture of the head and body
B. Head and eye movements
C. Consciousness
D. Autonomic functions
E. All of the above
```
E. All of the above
83
```
What is the most common symptom of vestibular dysfunction?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Limb ataxia
C. Disequilibrium
D. Vertigo
E. Upward beat nystagmus
```
D. Vertigo
84
```
Projections from the vestibular nuclei contribute to which of the following?
A. Postural adjustments
B. Autonomic function and consciousness
C. Gaze stabilization
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
85
```
Which of the following is a role of the vestibular system?
A. Postural adjustments
B. Provides sensory information
C. Gaze stabilization
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
86
```
To detect a movement of the head, receptors in the semicircular canals sense motion in which of the following?
A. Cilia
B. Crista
C. Endolymph
D. All of the above
```
C. Endolymph
87
How do the vestibular connections with the reticular formation affect the autonomic nervous system?
A. Vestibular connections with the reticular formation do not affect the autonomic nervous system.
B. Excessive activity of the circuits linking vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation may result in nausea, vomiting, and changes in consciousness.
C. Activity of the circuits linking vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation prevents any nausea, vomiting, and changes in consciousness.
D. Vestibular connections with the reticular formation calm the autonomic nervous system.
B. Excessive activity of the circuits linking vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation may result in nausea, vomiting, and changes in consciousness.
88
```
Your patient tells you that she feels dizzy. Upon further questioning, she tells you that the room feels like it is spinning. You would document her complaint as:
A. Vertigo
B. Lightheadedness
C. Disequilibrium
D. Oscillopsia
```
A. Vertigo
89
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A vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumor of which of the cranial nerves?
A. Cranial nerve VII
B. Cranial nerve VIII
C. Cranial nerve IX
D. Cranial nerve X
```
B. Cranial nerve VIII
90
You would not proceed with interventions for vestibular disease if your patient experiences which of the following symptoms?
A. Increased feeling of pressure in the ears
B. Sudden loss of hearing
C. Fluid discharge from the nose
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
91
```
Physical therapy is not appropriate for patients having which of the following conditions?
A. Ménière’s disease
B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
C. Unilateral vestibular hypofunction
D. Ventral vestibular hypofunction
```
A. Ménière’s disease
92
Why is it important that each pair of semicircular canals produce reciprocal signals?
A. The canals never produce reciprocal signals.
B. Difficulties with control of posture, abnormal eye movements, and nausea will result if the signals are not reciprocal.
C. Difficulties in sensing forward motion will result if the signals are not reciprocal.
D. Difficulties in sensing up and down motion will result if the signals are not reciprocal.
B. Difficulties with control of posture, abnormal eye movements, and nausea will result if the signals are not reciprocal.
