Quiz Questions Exam 1 Flashcards by candace gray

Why might a physical therapist want to examine sensory function prior to motor function?
A) The sensory exam takes less time and therefore it is the most time-efficient way to perform the exam.
B) The sensory exam does not cause any discomfort and therefore the patient can stay alert for the motor exam.
C) The sensory system is more sensitive to fatigue and should be examined before the patient becomes fatigued.
D) The sensory system influences movement and therefore examination first may direct the examination of motor function

D) The sensory system influences movement and therefore examination first may direct the examination of motor function

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During a sensory screening examination what should the therapist do?
A) Examine the patient’s visual acuity, hearing acuity, and light touch.
B) Examine very small areas of the body, especially on the extremities.
C) Use the most highly sensitive types of examinations for the trunk.
D) Select modalities from each of the general categories of sensation.

D) Select modalities from each of the general categories of sensation.

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What should the therapist examine first during a sensory examination, superficial (exteroceptive), deep (proprioceptive), or combined (cortical) sensations?
A) Superficial sensations because these must be sufficiently intact in order to allow for testing of combined (cortical) sensations.
B) Deep sensations because these indicate most significantly a patient’s ability to participate in motor activities.
C) Combined (cortical) sensations to allow for the most efficient examination and determine immediately areas of deficiency.
D) There is no specific order for examination, so the therapist can choose based on time, equipment, and patient awareness.

A) Superficial sensations because these must be sufficiently intact in order to allow for testing of combined (cortical) sensations.

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What progression should the therapist make when performing a sensory examination?
A) Complete the examination by allowing the patient to indicate verbally the location of the most sensory loss.
B) Examine each of the dermatomes completely for each modality before moving on to the next dermatome.
C) Begin the examination distally because patients typically present with the most significant deficits distally.
D) Perform the examination on the posterior aspect of the trunk first followed by the anterior portion and the extremities.

C) Begin the examination distally because patients typically present with the most significant deficits distally.

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How would a therapist examine kinesthesia?
A) The therapist will place the patient’s joint in a position and ask the patient to duplicate the position with the opposite joint.
B) The therapist will randomly touch the patient’s skin with a tool and ask the patient o differentiate sharp and dull touch.
C) The therapist will lightly touch the patient with a piece of cotton or soft brush and ask the patient to indicate when something is felt.
D) The therapist will move the patient’s joint within a small range and ask the patient to describe the direction and range of movement.

D) The therapist will move the patient’s joint within a small range and ask the patient to describe the direction and range of movement.

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How would a therapist examine proprioceptive awareness?
A) The therapist will place the patient’s joint in a position and ask the patient to duplicate the position with the opposite joint.
B) The therapist will randomly touch the patient’s skin with a tool and ask the patient to differentiate sharp and dull touch.
C) The therapist will lightly touch the patient with a piece of cotton or soft brush and ask the patient to indicate when something is felt.
D) The therapist will move the patient’s joint within a small range and ask the patient to describe the direction and range of movement.

A) The therapist will place the patient’s joint in a position and ask the patient to duplicate the position with the opposite joint.

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Examination of stereognosis perception determines the patient’s ability to do what?
A) Localize a touch sensation on the skin.
B) Perceive two points of touch applied simultaneously.
C) Recognize familiar objects by touch.
D) Duplicate the position of a joint while in motion.

C) Recognize familiar objects by touch.

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When might examination using graphesthesia be an appropriate procedure?
A) The patient has speech impairments.
B) The patient is unable to grasp an object.
C) The patient prefers a test using numbers.
D) The patient is visually impaired.

B) The patient is unable to grasp an object.

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Which of the following would be considered a compensatory approach to interventions for a patient with sensory impairments?
A) Guided practice with augmented feedback to supplement sensation.
B) Having the patient walk at home without shoes to increase sensory input.
C) Regular skin checks of areas where there is impaired sensation.
D) Thermal stimulation of the impaired extremity in a whirlpool bath.

C) Regular skin checks of areas where there is impaired sensation.

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You are conducting a sensory evaluation and ask the patient to duplicate the position of an extremity with the contralateral extremity. You are assessing which type of sensation?
 A) Vibration perception
 B) Proprioceptive awareness 
 C) Pressure perception
 D) Stereognosis perception

B) Proprioceptive awareness

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Exerting pressure on the skin with a monofilament

Tactile threshold

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Gentle poking with a pin interspersed with light touches with the blunt end of the pin

Sharp, fast pain

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Light touching of two points on the skin, using smaller distances between the points until the points cannot be distinguished as separate points

Two-point discrimination

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Light touching of both sides of the body simultaneously

Bilateral simultaneous touch

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Drawing a line (using a dull point) on the subject’s skin

Directional cutaneous kinesthesia

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Patient to identify the letter ‘drawn’ in the palm of their hand

Graphesthesia

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If only one sensory root is severed, does a complete loss of sensation result in that area?
A) Yes. Sensation does not depend on multiple dermatomes.
B) No. Overlapping dermatomes ensure not all sensation is lost.
C) No. Multiple sensory roots must be severed for complete sensory loss to occur.
D) Yes. Overlapping dermatomes will not prevent complete sensation loss.

B) No. Overlapping dermatomes ensure not all sensation is lost

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What numerical value(s) is (are) involved in determining whether the results of a nerve conduction study are normal? 
 A) Conduction velocity
 B) Distal latency
 C) Amplitude of the evoked potential
 D) All of the above

D) All of the above

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If sitting with the legs crossed, sensory loss will eventually occur. (Part of the limb will “fall asleep.”) In what order will this loss occur? (Hint: compression of a nerve affects function in order according to axon diameter and myelination; largest diameter myelinated axons are affected first)
A) 1. Slow pain; 2. heat; 3. fast pain; 4. cold; 5. conscious proprioception and discriminative touch
B) 1. Conscious proprioception and discriminative touch; 2. heat; 3. fast pain; 4. cold; 5. slow pain
C) 1. Conscious proprioception and discriminative touch; 2. cold; 3. fast pain; 4. heat; 5. slow pain
D) 1. Slow pain; 2. cold; 3. fast pain; 4. heat; 5. conscious proprioception and discriminative touch

C) 1. Conscious proprioception and discriminative touch; 2. cold; 3. fast pain; 4. heat; 5. slow pain

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Lesions in what location(s) will result in decreased or lost sensation from the contralateral body or face?
A) Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus
B) Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the thalamus
C) A and B
D) None of the above

C) A and B

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Which of the following is(are) part of the pain matrix?
 A) Amygdala
 B) Thalamus
 C) Hypothalamus
 D) All of the above

D) All of the above

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How should ambient vision be examined?
A) Instruct the patient while in a sitting position to visually track from right to left with increasing speed.
B) Instruct the patient to read a Snellen eye chart from a distance of 20 feet.
C) Instruct the patient to move across the busy gym area while observing ability to navigate safely, avoiding obstacles
D) Instruct the patient to look at the therapist’s nose while the therapist slowly brings a
pencil into the patient’s field of view from the right or left.

C) Instruct the patient to move across the busy gym area while observing ability to
navigate safely, avoiding obstacles.

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What is included in examination of sensory organization of postural control and
balance?
A) Vision, lower extremity somatosensation, and vestibular function
B) Vision, lower extremity range of motion, and vestibular function
C) Hearing, lower extremity somatosensation, and vestibular function
D) Vision, lower extremity somatosensation, and reflex integration

A) Vision, lower extremity somatosensation, and vestibular function

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A patient who presents with significant deficits in lower extremity somatosensation will have to depend on what systems to maintain balance?
 A) Auditory and proprioception
 B) Visual and auditory
 C) Auditory and vestibular
 D) Visual and vestibular

D) Visual and vestibular

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``` Deep tendon reflexes in a patient with an upper motor neuron lesion are A) increased. B) decreased. C) not changed. D) dependent on location of the lesion. ```

A) increased

The patient is able to walk independently from his room to the physical therapy gym while talking to the therapist. This is an example of A) selective attention. B) sustained attention. C) alternating attention. D) divided attention

D) divided attention

``` What type of sensation can be described as a painless abnormal sensation in the absence of nociceptor stimulation? A) Dysesthesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Secondary hyperalgesia ```

C) Paresthesia

``` What type of sensation can be described as an unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether evoked or spontaneous? A) Dysesthesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Secondary hyperalgesia ```

A) Dysesthesia

``` What type of sensation can be described as pain evoked by a stimulus that would not normally cause pain? A) Dysesthesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Secondary hyperalgesia ```

B) Allodynia

``` What type of sensation can be described as excessive sensitivity to stimuli that is normally mildly painful in uninjured tissue? A) Dysesthesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Secondary hyperalgesia ```

D) Secondary hyperalgesia

Which of the following is true about the Golgi tendon organ (GTO)? A) Maximum GTO activation occurs before maximum voluntary contraction. B) GTO inhibition of the agonist alpha motor neuron causes immediate muscle relaxation via the GTO reflex. C) Effectiveness of the contract-relax technique for stretching is dependent on GTO input. D) GTO conveys information via a type IIa afferent to the spinal cord. E) All of the above are true statements.

B) GTO inhibition of the agonist alpha motor neuron causes immediate muscle relaxation via the GTO reflex.

What is the purpose of alpha-gamma coactivation? A) Prevents simultaneous activation of fast twitch and slow twitch muscles. B) Coordinates reciprocal reflex innervation. C) Coordinates the actions of the basal ganglia and cerebellum. D) Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity when extrafusal muscle fibers contract. E) Prevents contraction of an antagonist muscle when the agonist is contracting.

D) Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity when extrafusal muscle fibers contract.

Reciprocal inhibition produces inhibition of the alpha motor neurons to which of the following? A) Agonist muscle B) Agonist muscle and its synergists C) Antagonist muscle D) Agonist muscle, its synergists, and its antagonists E) Homologous muscles in the opposite limb

C) Antagonist muscle

``` Interneurons serve which one of the following functions? A) Modulation of sensory information B) Coordination of motor activity C) Autonomic regulation D) All of the above ```

D) All of the above

``` Which one of the following involuntary muscle contractions is always abnormal? A) Muscle spasms B) Cramps C) Fasciculations D) Fibrillations E) All of the above ```

D) Fibrillations

``` If the lower motor neurons to a muscle are destroyed, which of the following signs affects the denervated muscles? A) Loss of reflexes B) Atrophy C) Muscle hyperstiffness D) Both A and B E) A, B, and C ```

D) Both A and B

After lower neuron motor denervation caused by poliomyelitis, how does recovery of some muscle strength occur? A) Cell division of surviving motor neurons produces new motor neurons. B) Loss of interneuronal inhibition causes hyperreflexia. C) Axonal sprouting of surviving neurons innervates muscle fibers. D) Both A and B E) A, B, and C

C) Axonal sprouting of surviving neurons innervates muscle fibers.

Abnormal cutaneous reflexes that occur after an upper motor neuron lesion include which of the following? A) Emergence of Babinski's sign B) Muscle spasms in response to normally innocuous stimuli C) Paresthesias D) Both A and B E) A, B, and C

D) Both A and B

Which one of the following major factors limits movement in individuals who have had a stroke? A) Paresis caused by decreased agonist activation B) Loss of ability to fractionate movement C) Abnormal timing of muscle activation D) Both A and B E) A, B, and C

E) A, B, and C

Decorticate rigidity occurs with which of the following? A) Lesions of the medulla B) Vascular lesions of the anterior choroidal artery C) Lesions superior to the midbrain D) Lesions to the cerebellar lobes E) All of the above

C) Lesions superior to the midbrain

Which of the following characteristics distinguish central nervous system dysfunction from peripheral nervous system dysfunction? A) Hypertonia in upper motor neuron involvement B) Paraspinal sensation C) Slow muscle atrophy D) Hypertonia in lower motor neuron involvement

A) Hypertonia in upper motor neuron involvement

``` Which one of the following is NOT a sign of an upper motor neuron lesion? A) Muscle paresis B) Hyperreflexia C) Muscle fasciculations D) Positive Babinski's sign E) Spasticity ```

C) Muscle fasciculations

20. A motor program is best defined as A) a representation of a motor task that when initiated results in a movement sequence. B) information about how a movement felt and the outcome of the movement sequence. C) a plan for a movement sequence that includes multiple components of movement. D) movement that occurs as a result of practice and feedback.

A) a representation of a motor task that when initiated results in a movement sequence.

Which statement best describes dynamical systems theory? A) Control occurs in a hierarchical manner with higher levels of the CNS controlling lower levels. B) Units of the CNS are organized around demands of specific tasks. C) Motor elements are activated in response to specific sensory stimulation. D) The input from higher levels are given more weight when determining the motor response.

B) Units of the CNS are organized around demands of specific tasks.

What is an appropriate method of examining if motor learning has occurred in a patient with motor deficits? A) Manual muscle testing of the impaired extremity B) Active-assisted ROM of the impaired extremity C) Measuring performance on a retention test D) Using the Modified Ashworth Scale

C) Measuring performance on a retention test

What statement best characterizes spasticity? A) Clinical presentation includes large involuntary movements. B) Stretch reflexes are dampened or absent. C) Resistance to passive stretch is velocity-dependent. D) Clinical presentation includes uniform resistance to movement.

C) Resistance to passive stretch is velocity-dependent.

``` During a movement sequence the sensory system sends information to the central nervous system to monitor the task and provide for correction of movement. This type of control is A) feedforward control. B) synergistic units. C) feedback control. D) coordinative structures. ```

C) feedback control.

What must the cerebellum do in order to perform its function as an error-correcting mechanism for motor performance? A) Disregard any feedback that does not emerge from the central nervous system. B) Evaluate sensory input from both the central and peripheral nervous system. C) Determine if the sensory feedback is emerging from an appropriate source. D) Disregard any feedback that does not emerge from the peripheral nervous system.

B) Evaluate sensory input from both the central and peripheral nervous system.

While observing the patient eating in the dining room, the physical therapist notes that the patient has difficulty both reaching for a cup and bringing food to the mouth. The patient often does not reach out far enough to touch the cup and misses the mouth with the fork. After several attempts, the patient is often able to accomplish the task. What is the appropriate term to describe this functional limitation? A) Dysmetria B) Dyssynergia C) Dysdiadochokinesia D) Nystagmus

A) Dysmetria

``` A patient has difficulty during gait, presenting with an irregular stepping pattern with the lower extremities often moving forward in an uncoordinated manner, poor postural control, and upper extremities held away from the body. Damage to what area of the brain is most likely to cause this gait pattern? A) Cerebral cortex area 4 B) Basal ganglia C) Dorsal column D) Cerebellum ```

D) Cerebellum

``` While examining the patient, the therapist notes that when asked to look to the left or right the patient has difficulty doing so, and the eyes move back and forth in a quick, rhythmic manner. What is the appropriate term to describe this impairment? A) Dysmetria B) Nystagmus C) Dysdiadochokinesia D) Dyssynergia ```

B) Nystagmus

30. The physical therapist observes that when at rest, the patient presents with a tremor of the upper extremity. Damage to what area of the brain is most likely to cause this tremor? A) Cerebral cortex area 4 B) Basal ganglia C) Dorsal column D) Cerebellum

B) Basal ganglia

``` 31. Individuals with Parkinson's disease present with what common characteristics of basal ganglion pathology? A) Rigidity and nystagmus B) Ataxia and dystonia C) Akinesia and bradykinesia D) Dysmetria and chorea ```

C) Akinesia and bradykinesia

``` A patient exhibits slow, involuntary, writhing and twisting movements especially in the upper extremity. What is the appropriate term to describe this impairment? A) Bradykinesia B) Athetosis C) Dystonia D) Hemiballismus ```

B) Athetosis

``` The therapist observes that the patient has difficulty initiating gait and uses a shuffling gait pattern. What is the appropriate term to describe these functional limitations? A) Bradykinesia B) Athetosis C) Dystonia D) Hemiballismus ```

A) Bradykinesia

Which of the following would be an example of a nonequilibrium coordination test? A) In sitting, the patient will bring the finger to the nose. B) In sitting, the patient will perform a reaching task. C) In standing, the patient will close eyes and maintain balance. D) Walking with vertical and horizontal head turns.

A) In sitting, the patient will bring the finger to the nose.

``` The ability to change positions while maintaining postural stability, such as when moving from supine to sitting, is an example of what basic motor task requirement? A) Mobility B) Stability C) Controlled mobility D) Static dynamic control ```

C) Controlled mobility

``` The ability to maintain a steady position in a weightbearing position, such as standing, is an example of what basic motor task requirement? A) Mobility B) Stability C) Controlled mobility D) Static dynamic control ```

B) Stability

``` Initial movement within a functional pattern is an example of what basic motor task requirement? A) Mobility B) Stability C) Controlled mobility D) Static dynamic control ```

A) Mobility

Cortex

Equilibrium reactions ,. Bipedal function

Midbrain

Righting reactions Quadrupedal function

Brainstem & SC

Primitive reflex Apedal function

What does Systems Theory assume? A) Neural control of movement is coordinated by many interacting systems based on the demands of the specific task. B) Neural control of movement occurs when a sensory stimulus produces a reflex response that presents as movement. C) Neural control of movement occurs in a hierarchical manner with higher centers of the CNS controlling lower centers. D) Neural control of movement occurs at three levels that are related hierarchically, but may act independently as well.

A) Neural control of movement is coordinated by many interacting systems based on the demands of the specific task.

``` With practice, a motor skill is becoming more coordinated. there are fewer errors in performance, and the patient relates that he is beginning to get the "feel" of the movement. What stage of motor learning is described? A) Cognitive stage B) Associative stage C) Autonomous stage D) Psychomotor stage ```

B) Associative stage 475

What strategy could the therapist use during the cognitive stage of learning a motor skill? A) Correction of all errors in performance B) Long, specific instructions for the task C) Demonstration of the task by the therapist D) Maintaining a "hands off" approach

C) Demonstration of the task by the therapist

``` While working on gait with a patient the therapist provides tactile cuing to improve the quality of movement. What type of feedback is this? A) Knowledge of performance B) Knowledge of results C) Knowledge of trials D) Knowledge of errors ```

A) Knowledge of performance

The therapist provides the patient with feedback after every practice trial when learning a new motor task. What changes in performance can be expected? A) Slow improvement in performance, but good retention B) Slow improvement in performance and poor retention C) Rapid improvement in performance, but poor retention D) Rapid improvement in performance and good retention

C) Rapid improvement in performance, but poor retention

After examining the patient the therapist determines that distributed practice will benefit the patient most. Which of the following best describes a possible reason for this decision? A) The therapist wants the patient to make a great deal of progress in a short amount of time. B) The patient is highly motivated and willing to work on high-level skills. C) The therapist is working on a task that is simple and does not require a great deal of energy. D) The patient has limited endurance and impaired motor planning skills for the task.

D) The patient has limited endurance and impaired motor planning skills for the task.

The therapist has decided to work with the patient on transfers by having the patient perform bed to wheelchair, wheelchair to mat, wheelchair to couch, and wheelchair to tub transfers during one treatment session. What is the benefit of having the patient practice this way? A) Blocked practice allows the patient to progress quickly. B) Random practice is more effective for retention. C) Distributed practice works well for complex tasks. D) Massed practice increases the speed of learning.

B) Random practice is more effective for retention.

``` Which of the following motor tasks would benefit the most from whole versus part practice? A) Walking B) Wheelchair transfers C) Bed mobility D) Sit to stand ```

A) Walking

The patient is instructed to practice walking at the mall after walking in a physical therapy clinic 3 times a week for 3 weeks. How does this change the practice? A) It changes practice from blocked to random. B) It moves the task from a closed to an open environment. C) The practice of gait in the hospital was a lead-up activity. D) The practice order is significantly different in the mall.

B) It moves the task from a closed to an open environment.

``` Fibers of a motor unit contract almost synchronously with electrical potentials flowing through the surrounding tissues in an unpredictable pattern. Electrodes detect those signals reaching the electrode at essentially the same time. What is this concept? A) Summation of response C) Motor unit volume B) Volume conduction D) Fiber summation ```

B) Volume conduction

During an electromyography exam the therapist observes fibrillation potentials. What might these indicate? A) Lower motor neuron disorders such as peripheral nerve lesions B) Primary muscle disease such as muscular dystrophy C) Irritation of the anterior horn cell such as with nerve root compression D) Upper motor neuron syndrome such as cerebral vascular accident

A) Lower motor neuron disorders such as peripheral nerve lesions

During an electromyography exam the therapist observes fasciculations. What might these indicate? A) Lower motor neuron disorders such as peripheral nerve lesions B) Primary muscle disease such as muscular dystrophy C) Irritation of the anterior horn cell such as with nerve root compression D) Upper motor neuron syndrome such as cerebral vascular accident

C) Irritation of the anterior horn cell such as with nerve root compression

What is the primary difference between electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity (NCV) examination? A) With EMG testing the electrodes can be placed only in large muscles such as the quadriceps femoris. B) With NCV testing the electrodes can be placed only in large muscles such as the quadriceps femoris. C) With EMG testing measurements are taken from an evoked potential versus volitional potentials. D) With NCV testing measurements are taken from an evoked potential versus volitional potentials.

D) With NCV testing measurements are taken from an evoked potential versus volitional potentials.

To determine nerve conduction velocity, what must the therapist do? A) Perform a minimum of 10 repetitions of the stimulus at a distal point. B) Determine the latency from a proximal and a distal point of stimulation. C) Examine the strength of the motor response of the muscle tested. D) Count how many action potentials occurred after stimulation of the nerve.

B) Determine the latency from a proximal and a distal point of stimulation.

Neurons that are deprived of oxygen for a prolonged period: A. Release glycine, which inhibits the postsynaptic neurons and prevents neural function even in neurons not directly affected by the oxygen deprivation. B. Become inactive and slowly regenerate. C. Release glutamate, which causes overexcitation of the surrounding neurons. D. A, B, and C E. None of the above

C. Release glutamate, which causes overexcitation of the surrounding neurons.

Excitotoxicity begins with: A. Excessive production of lactic acid. B. Destruction of cellular proteins. C. Cellular edema. D. Persistent binding of glutamate to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-type receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane. E. Interference of mitochondria functions.

D. Persistent binding of glutamate to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-type receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane

Cellular effects of excitotoxicity include: A. Excessive production of lactic acid. B. Destruction of cellular proteins. C. Cellular edema. D. Interference of mitochondria functions. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

``` Which one of the following types of memory is affected by an injury to the hippocampus? A. Memory of how to ride a bicycle B. Memory of names and events C. Memory of how to tie shoe laces D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C ```

B. Memory of names and events

In the mature central nervous system (CNS), axonal regeneration is impeded by which of the following? A. Glial scar formation B. Absence of neural growth factor C. Release of growth inhibiting factors D. Both A and B E. A, B, and C

E. A, B, and C

Constraint-induced movement after a stroke requires which one of the following? A. Immobilization of the affected upper extremity (UE) to control spasticity B. Repetitive closed-chain resistance training C. Aggressive range of motion and exercise within 12 hours after a stroke D. Repetitive, task-specific functional movements of only the affected UE E. Weight bearing and prolonged stretching of the affected UE

D. Repetitive, task-specific functional movements of only the affected UE

``` Learning an individual's name requires: A. Sprouting B. LTP C. Habituation D. Central chromatolysis ```

B. LTP

``` Experience-dependent plasticity is also referred to as which of the following? A. Use-dependent plasticity B. Activity-dependent plasticity C. Habituation D. Both A and B ```

D. Both A and B

After learning how to play the violin: A. Large, diffuse regions of the brain show increased activity. B. Small, distinct regions of the brain show increased activity. C. Small, distinct regions of the brain show increased activity while playing the flute. D. None of the above

Small, distinct regions of the brain show increased activity.

``` Which one of the following processes contributes to experience-dependent plasticity? A. Synthesis of new proteins B. Growth of new synapses C. Modification of existing synapses D. A, B, and C ```

D. A, B, and C

Long-term depression (LTD) is due to which of the following? A. Conversion of silent synapses to active synapses B. Removal of alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) receptors from the postsynaptic membrane C. Addition of dopamine receptors to the presynaptic membrane D. Pairing of presynaptic and postsynaptic firing

B. Removal of alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) receptors from the postsynaptic membrane

Which one of the following externally applied devices is capable of enhancing or inhibiting motor learning and memory formation? A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) D. Computed tomography (CT)

A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

Astrocytes may impact synaptic plasticity by: A. Modulating neurotransmitter release B. Modulating postsynaptic receptor expression C. Modulating new synapse formation D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Functional regeneration of axons occurs more frequently in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) than in the CNS because of the: A. Production of nerve growth factor (NGF). B. Effective clearing of debris. C. Formation of bands of Büngner. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

``` Which of the following rehabilitation mechanisms promotes beneficial neural plasticity? A. Task-specific practice B. Early initiation of rehabilitation C. Bed rest D. Both A and B ```

D. Both A and B

Neurogenesis is defined as the: A. Release of NGF to stimulate axonal regeneration. B. Addition of AMPA receptors to the postsynaptic membrane. C. Ability of stem cells to create new neurons in the brain. D. None of the above

C. Ability of stem cells to create new neurons in the brain.

``` Which one of the following rehabilitation mechanisms promotes neural plasticity? A. Task-specific practice B. Early initiation of rehabilitation C. Bed rest D. Both A and B ```

D. Both A and B

Which one of the following statements about constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) is true? A. CIMT results in functional reorganization of the cortex. B. CIMT should be initiated within 5 days after the onset of stroke. C. CIMT involves the constraint of the unaffected UE and intense task-related practice of the affected UE. D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C

In a person with a vestibular disorder, a decreased neural response to movements that formerly induced dizziness and nausea

Habituation

Learning a person's name

long term potentiation

After severance of a peripheral nerve, the proximal segments of the severed axons regrow

Sprouting

Changes in cortical representation such as following amputation

Functional reorganization

Mobility deficit

Failure to initiate or sustain movements through the range; poorly controlled movements

Massed practice

A sequence of practice and rest times in which the test time is much less than the practice time

Distributed practice

Spaced practice intervals in which the practice time is equal to or less than the rest time

Blocked practice

A practice sequence organized around one task performed repeatedly, uninterrupted by practice of any other task

Random practice

A practice sequence in which a variety of tasks are ordered randomly across trials

Blocked order

The repeated practice of a task or group of tasks in order; three trials of task 1, three trials of task 2, three trials of task 3 (111222333)

Serial order

A predictable and repeating order; practice of multiple tasks in the following order (123123123)

Random order

A non repeating and non-predictable order of multiple tasks (123321312)

Quiz Questions Exam 1 Flashcards

(106 cards)